Anaesthesia - 30 Random Past Questions

By Kar
Kar, Assistant Professor (Biochemistry)
Karthikeyan Pethusamy is an assistant professor in the Department of Biochemistry at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi
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, Assistant Professor (Biochemistry)
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Anaesthesia - 30 Random Past Questions - Quiz

When going into surgery, be it in the dentist’s office or for something a little more serious, we usually pay no mind to the wonder that is anaesthesia. Test your knowledge on the agent in this quiz on “Anaesthesia – 30 Random Past Questions”. Good luck! You may need it.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Anaesthetic agent contraindicated in hypertensives is

    • A.

      Propofol

    • B.

      Ketamine

    • C.

      Thiopentone sodium

    • D.

      Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    B. Ketamine
    Explanation
    stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

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  • 2. 

    Contraindication to vasoconstrictors in local anaesthesia is

    • A.

      Regional anaesthesia

    • B.

      Spinal anaesthesia

    • C.

      Epidural anaesthesia

    • D.

      Digital nerve block

    Correct Answer
    D. Digital nerve block
    Explanation
    other sites:Toes, Pinna, Penis, Nose

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is correct regarding colour coding of anaesthetic gases?

    • A.

      Oxygen – Black with grey shoulders

    • B.

      Nitric oxide – Blue

    • C.

      Helium – Orange

    • D.

      Cyclopropane – Red

    Correct Answer
    B. Nitric oxide – Blue
    Explanation
    Oxygen – Black with white shoulders
    Nitric oxide – Blue
    Cyclopropane – Orange
    Carbon Dioxide – Grey
    Nitrogen – Black
    Helium – Brown
    Air – Grey body with white & black quartered shoulder

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  • 4. 

    Preferred muscle relaxant in a patient with liver dysfunction / renal failure is

    • A.

      Rocuronium

    • B.

      Pancuronium

    • C.

      Vecuronium

    • D.

      Atracurium

    Correct Answer
    D. Atracurium
    Explanation
    undergoes non specific ester hydrolysis and non enzymatic degradation ( Hoffman degradation )

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  • 5. 

    LSCS can be carried out under all the following techniques of anaesthesia except

    • A.

      Spinal anaesthesia

    • B.

      Caudal anaesthesia

    • C.

      Combined Spinal Epidural anaesthesia

    • D.

      General anaesthesia

    Correct Answer
    B. Caudal anaesthesia
    Explanation
    audal anaesthesia is used only for perineal surgery.

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  • 6. 

    The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except 

    • A.

      Assist-control ventilation (ACV)

    • B.

      Pressure support ventilation (PSV)

    • C.

      Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)

    • D.

      Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)

    Correct Answer
    D. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)
    Explanation
    In CMV, the ventillator delivers the tidal volume. The patient effort is not present. Hence it is not used for weaning off patients from ventillator.

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  • 7. 

    The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except

    • A.

      During CPR

    • B.

      In a difficult intubation

    • C.

      ln a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity

    • D.

      In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery

    Correct Answer
    C. ln a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity
    Explanation
    The laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is a device used to secure the airway of a patient in various conditions. It is commonly used during CPR to facilitate ventilation and oxygenation. It is also used in cases of difficult intubation when traditional methods of intubation are challenging. In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery, the LMA can be used to maintain a patent airway during the procedure. However, in a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity, the LMA may not be suitable as it could obstruct the airway further or interfere with the surgical procedure.

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  • 8. 

    The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except

    • A.

      Propofol

    • B.

      Ketamine

    • C.

      Dexamethasone

    • D.

      Ondansetron

    Correct Answer
    B. Ketamine
    Explanation
    Ketamine can cause nausea and vomiting following administration.

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  • 9. 

    All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except

    • A.

      Induction is slow

    • B.

      Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias

    • C.

      Cautery cannot be used

    • D.

      Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchial secretions

    Correct Answer
    B. Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias
    Explanation
    Anesthetic ether has several disadvantages, including slow induction, inability to use cautery, and increased salivary and bronchial secretions due to its irritant nature. However, it does not affect blood pressure or produce arrhythmias.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the Intracranial pressure

    • A.

      Propofol

    • B.

      Lignocaine

    • C.

      Sevoflurane

    • D.

      Thiopentone sodium

    Correct Answer
    C. Sevoflurane
    Explanation
    others:
    Isoflurane
    Halothane
    Nitrous oxide
    Ketamine

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  • 11. 

    One of the fastest acting inhalational agent is

    • A.

      Sevoflurane

    • B.

      Ether

    • C.

      Halothane

    • D.

      Isoflurane

    Correct Answer
    A. Sevoflurane
    Explanation
    Sevoflurane is considered one of the fastest acting inhalational agents due to its low blood-gas solubility and rapid onset of action. It is quickly absorbed into the bloodstream and reaches the brain, resulting in a fast induction of anesthesia. Sevoflurane also has a rapid recovery profile, allowing patients to wake up quickly after the procedure. Its fast-acting properties make it a popular choice for anesthesia induction and maintenance in surgical procedures.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?

    • A.

      Esmolol

    • B.

      Hydralazine

    • C.

      Mephentermine

    • D.

      Sodium nitroprusside

    Correct Answer
    C. Mephentermine
    Explanation
    Mephentermine is acts as an agonist on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. This causes increased in cardiac output and blood pressure. Hence it cannot be used to induce hypotension.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?

    • A.

      Suxamethonium

    • B.

      Pethidine

    • C.

      Atropine

    • D.

      Thiopentone

    Correct Answer
    B. Pethidine
    Explanation
    Tramadol is the drug of choice

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery ?

    • A.

      Diazepam

    • B.

      Propofol

    • C.

      Morphine

    • D.

      Ketamine

    Correct Answer
    B. Propofol
    Explanation
    Propofol is the most suitable intravenous induction agent for day care surgery. This is because it has a rapid onset of action, short duration of effect, and minimal side effects. It provides smooth induction and recovery, allowing for a quick and efficient procedure with minimal post-operative sedation. Diazepam, morphine, and ketamine are not as suitable for day care surgery due to their longer duration of action and potential for more pronounced sedation and side effects.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following anesthetic agents does not trigger malignant hyperthermia ?

    • A.

      Thiopentone

    • B.

      Suxamethonium

    • C.

      Isoflurane

    • D.

      Halothane

    Correct Answer
    A. Thiopentone
    Explanation
    Thiopentone is the correct answer because it is a barbiturate anesthetic agent that does not trigger malignant hyperthermia. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal reaction to certain anesthetic drugs, characterized by a rapid rise in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and other symptoms. Suxamethonium, isoflurane, and halothane are all known to trigger malignant hyperthermia, but thiopentone does not.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate?

    • A.

      It is an intravenous anesthetic

    • B.

      Precipitates coronary insufficiency

    • C.

      Inhibits cortisol synthesis

    • D.

      Causes pain at site of injection

    Correct Answer
    B. Precipitates coronary insufficiency
    Explanation
    Etomidate is an intravenous anesthetic that is commonly used for induction of anesthesia. It is known for its minimal cardiovascular effects, making it a suitable choice for patients with compromised cardiac function. However, the statement that etomidate precipitates coronary insufficiency is not true. Etomidate does not have a direct negative impact on coronary blood flow or cause coronary insufficiency. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

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  • 17. 

    Which one of the following local anesthetics belongs to the ester group?

    • A.

      Bupivacaine

    • B.

      Procaine

    • C.

      Lignocaine

    • D.

      Mepivacaine

    Correct Answer
    B. Procaine
    Explanation
    ester means one i and amide means double ii

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  • 18. 

    Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?

    • A.

      Cefotaxime

    • B.

      Doxycycline

    • C.

      Streptomycin

    • D.

      Norfloxacin

    Correct Answer
    C. Streptomycin
    Explanation
    Streptomycin should not be used with d-tubocurarine because it can enhance the neuromuscular blocking effects of d-tubocurarine. This can result in prolonged paralysis and respiratory depression. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these two medications together.

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  • 19. 

    Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?

    • A.

      Atracurium

    • B.

      Vecuronium

    • C.

      Rocuronium

    • D.

      Doxacurium

    Correct Answer
    D. Doxacurium
    Explanation
    Doxacurium is the muscle relaxant with the maximum duration of action. This means that it stays active in the body for the longest period of time compared to the other options (Atracurium, Vecuronium, and Rocuronium).

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?

    • A.

      Pneumothorax

    • B.

      Maintenance of a patent airway

    • C.

      To provide positive pressure ventilation

    • D.

      Pulmonary toiletting

    Correct Answer
    A. Pneumothorax
    Explanation
    Endotracheal intubation is a procedure in which a tube is inserted into the trachea to ensure a patent airway, provide positive pressure ventilation, and assist with pulmonary toiletting. However, pneumothorax, which is the presence of air in the pleural cavity, is not an indication for endotracheal intubation. Instead, pneumothorax is typically managed by other interventions such as chest tube insertion to remove the air and re-establish negative pressure in the pleural space.

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  • 21. 

    Which side effect is commonly seen with fentanyl?

    • A.

      Pain in abdomen

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Tachycardia

    • D.

      Chest wall rigidity

    Correct Answer
    D. Chest wall rigidity
    Explanation
    Chest wall rigidity is a commonly seen side effect of fentanyl. This refers to the tightening or stiffness of the muscles in the chest wall, making it difficult for the patient to breathe. This side effect can be dangerous and may require immediate medical intervention. It is important to monitor patients closely when administering fentanyl to watch for this potential complication.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not true about Xenon anaesthesia

    • A.

      Non explosive

    • B.

      Slow induction and slow recovery

    • C.

      Low blood gas solubility

    • D.

      Minimal cardiovascular side effects

    Correct Answer
    B. Slow induction and slow recovery
    Explanation
    Xenon is very close to being an ideal anaesthetic agent

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following in anaesthesia will produce decreased EEG activities

    • A.

      N2O

    • B.

      Early hypoxia

    • C.

      Ketamine

    • D.

      Hypothermia

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    Hypothermia is the correct answer because it is known to decrease EEG activities. EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures the electrical activity in the brain, and hypothermia slows down brain activity, resulting in decreased EEG readings. This can be seen in patients who are exposed to extremely cold temperatures or during certain surgical procedures where deliberate hypothermia is induced to protect the brain. N2O, early hypoxia, and ketamine do not have the same effect on EEG activities as hypothermia.

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  • 24. 

    Last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block is

    • A.

      Superior rectus

    • B.

      Superior oblique

    • C.

      Inferior oblique

    • D.

      Levator palpebral superioris

    Correct Answer
    B. Superior oblique
    Explanation
    The superior oblique muscle is the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block. This means that it is the last muscle to become temporarily paralyzed or immobilized when the anesthetic is administered around the eye.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agent has the shortest onset of action ?

    • A.

      Vecuronium

    • B.

      Mivacurium

    • C.

      Succinylcholine

    • D.

      Rapacuronium

    Correct Answer
    C. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Succinylcholine has the shortest onset of action among the given neuromuscular blocking agents. It is a depolarizing muscle relaxant that rapidly binds to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, causing a rapid onset of muscle paralysis. This rapid onset makes succinylcholine ideal for situations where rapid intubation or muscle relaxation is required, such as during emergency procedures or rapid sequence inductions.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?

    • A.

      Desflurane

    • B.

      Sevoflurane

    • C.

      Nitrous oxide

    • D.

      Isoflurane

    Correct Answer
    A. Desflurane
    Explanation
    Desflurane has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient among the given inhalational agents. Blood gas solubility coefficient refers to the ability of an inhalational agent to dissolve in the blood. A lower solubility coefficient indicates that the agent is less soluble in blood and will be rapidly eliminated from the body. Desflurane has a low solubility coefficient, making it ideal for use in anesthesia as it allows for a quick induction and emergence from anesthesia.

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  • 27. 

    Methemoglobinemia caused by

    • A.

      Procaine

    • B.

      Bupivacaine

    • C.

      Prilocaine

    • D.

      Lignocaine

    Correct Answer
    C. Prilocaine
    Explanation
    Prilocaine is a local anesthetic that can cause methemoglobinemia. Methemoglobinemia is a condition where the iron in hemoglobin is oxidized, leading to a reduced ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen. Prilocaine can induce the production of methemoglobin by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for converting methemoglobin back to normal hemoglobin. This can result in symptoms such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin), shortness of breath, and fatigue. Therefore, prilocaine is the correct answer as it is known to cause methemoglobinemia.

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  • 28. 

    Merits of nasotracheal intubation is

    • A.

      Good oral hygiene

    • B.

      Less infection

    • C.

      Less mucosal damage and bleeding

    • D.

      More movement or displacement of endotracheal tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Good oral hygiene
    Explanation
    Nasotracheal intubation has the advantage of promoting good oral hygiene. This is because the tube is inserted through the nose, bypassing the mouth and reducing the risk of contamination from oral secretions. By maintaining oral hygiene, the risk of infection can be minimized. Additionally, nasotracheal intubation causes less mucosal damage and bleeding compared to other methods, further reducing the risk of infection. However, it should be noted that nasotracheal intubation may result in more movement or displacement of the endotracheal tube, which can be a potential drawback.

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  • 29. 

    Most common nerve used for monitoring during anaesthesia is

    • A.

      Ulnar

    • B.

      Radial

    • C.

      Facial

    • D.

      Median

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulnar
    Explanation
    During anesthesia, the ulnar nerve is commonly used for monitoring. This is because it is easily accessible and provides information about the function of the hand and forearm. Monitoring the ulnar nerve helps to ensure that the patient's nerves are functioning properly and that there are no complications or damage occurring during the anesthesia. By monitoring the ulnar nerve, anesthesiologists can assess the patient's response to the anesthesia and make any necessary adjustments to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 30. 

    Side effects of oxygen therapy are all except

    • A.

      Absorption atelactasis

    • B.

      Increased pulmonary compliance

    • C.

      Endothelial damage

    • D.

      Decreased vital capacity

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased pulmonary compliance
    Explanation
    Oxygen therapy is commonly used to treat patients with respiratory conditions. Increased pulmonary compliance refers to the ability of the lungs to expand and contract easily, which is actually a positive effect of oxygen therapy. Absorption atelectasis, endothelial damage, and decreased vital capacity are potential side effects of oxygen therapy. Absorption atelectasis occurs when oxygen displaces nitrogen in the alveoli, leading to collapse. Endothelial damage can occur due to increased oxygen levels, causing inflammation and injury to blood vessels. Decreased vital capacity may result from oxygen-induced hyperinflation. Therefore, the correct answer is increased pulmonary compliance, as it is not a side effect but rather a beneficial outcome of oxygen therapy.

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Kar |Assistant Professor (Biochemistry) |
Karthikeyan Pethusamy is an assistant professor in the Department of Biochemistry at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi

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    Quiz Edited by
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