Anesthesia Quiz: Evaluation And Management! Exam
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Excision of the gallbladder is commonly referred to as a :
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Colectomy
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Choledochectomy
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Cholecystectomy
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Corpectomy
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About This Quiz
As an anaesthetist, it is important to not only know the various ways of ensuring the patient being put under is safe but know what vitals to look for that may be a cause for alarm. In this quiz, you will not only get to learn more about some of the common drugs used in anaesthesia but also test your See moreability to understand what different words mean. Give it a shot!
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- 2.
What code best describes an ablation of a polyp in the colon?
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Bipolar cautery removal
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Snare
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Cryosurgery
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Hot biopsy Forceps
Correct Answer
A. CryosurgeryExplanation
Cryosurgery is the best code to describe the ablation of a polyp in the colon. Cryosurgery involves using extreme cold temperatures to freeze and destroy abnormal tissues, including polyps. This technique is often used in the removal of small polyps in the colon. The other options, such as bipolar cautery removal, snare, and hot biopsy forceps, involve different methods of removing polyps but are not specifically related to cryosurgery.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Peritonitis is a condition that occurs in which system?
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Genitourinary
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Integumentary
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Digestive
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Cardiovascular
Correct Answer
A. DigestiveExplanation
Peritonitis is a condition that occurs in the digestive system. It is an inflammation of the peritoneum, which is the thin tissue that lines the inner wall of the abdomen and covers most of the abdominal organs. This condition typically occurs when bacteria or other infectious agents enter the peritoneum, leading to infection and inflammation. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and vomiting. Prompt medical attention is necessary to treat peritonitis and prevent complications.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What type of infection is Helicobactor pylorus?
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Bacterial
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Viral
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Staphyloccus
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Streptococcus
Correct Answer
A. BacterialExplanation
Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacterial infection. It is a spiral-shaped bacterium that infects the stomach lining and is known to cause various gastrointestinal diseases, including gastritis and peptic ulcers. This bacterium is usually transmitted through contaminated food or water and is one of the most common bacterial infections worldwide. Treatment typically involves a combination of antibiotics and acid-suppressing medications to eradicate the infection and promote healing of the affected tissues.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which following term describes a congenital absence of a limb?
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Amputation
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Ectromelia
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Hallux varus
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Genu vagum
Correct Answer
A. EctromeliaExplanation
Ectromelia is the correct term to describe a congenital absence of a limb. It refers to a developmental abnormality where a limb is either partially or completely absent at birth. This condition can affect any limb, including arms or legs, and can vary in severity. Ectromelia is caused by genetic or environmental factors that disrupt the normal development of the limb buds during embryogenesis. It is important to differentiate ectromelia from amputation, which refers to the intentional removal of a limb, and the other two options, Hallux varus and Genu vagum, which are unrelated conditions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The patient presents with a laceration on the auricle pinna that needs a wound repair. What part of the body will the physician repair?
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Nasal
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Ear
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Eyelid
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Vermilion
Correct Answer
A. EarExplanation
The physician will repair the laceration on the auricle pinna. The auricle pinna is the visible part of the external ear, which is commonly referred to as the "ear." Therefore, the correct answer is "Ear."Rate this question:
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- 7.
The kidneys, bladder, and urethra make up what system?
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Endocrine
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Urinary
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Nervous
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Digestive
Correct Answer
A. UrinaryExplanation
The kidneys, bladder, and urethra make up the urinary system. This system is responsible for filtering waste products from the blood, producing urine, and eliminating it from the body. The kidneys filter waste and excess water from the blood to produce urine, which is then stored in the bladder. The urethra is the tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is Urinary.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Complete the series : Frontal, Ethmoid, Maxillary, -------------------------------
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Turbinates
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Nasopharynx
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Sphenoid
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Inferior
Correct Answer
A. SphenoidExplanation
The given series follows a pattern of naming different sinuses in the skull. The frontal sinus is located in the forehead, followed by the ethmoid sinus located between the eyes, and then the maxillary sinus located in the cheekbones. Therefore, the next term in the series would be the sphenoid sinus, which is located behind the nose and between the eyes.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A physician anesthetizes the brachial plexus nerves with an injection to provide pain control. These nerves are located :
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From the shoulder to the wrist.
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From the thigh to the foot.
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From the hip joint to the thigh.
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From the neck to the subclavicular.
Correct Answer
A. From the neck to the subclavicular.Explanation
The brachial plexus nerves are a network of nerves that originate from the neck and extend down to the subclavicular region. Anesthetizing these nerves with an injection can provide pain control for the upper extremity, from the shoulder to the wrist.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Adrenal glands are part of which anatomical system?
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Circulatory
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Genitourinary
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Endocrine
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Digestive
Correct Answer
A. EndocrineExplanation
The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system. These small glands are located on top of the kidneys and are responsible for producing hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, blood pressure, and stress response. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The basilic vein is located in the :
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Head
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Foot
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Leg
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Arm
Correct Answer
A. ArmExplanation
The basilic vein is located in the arm. It is a large vein that runs along the inner side of the arm, starting from the elbow and extending up to the shoulder. This vein is commonly used for medical procedures such as blood draws and intravenous access because of its accessibility and size.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The small intestine is divided into what parts :
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Esophagus, Stomach, Duodenum
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Pylorus, Jejunum, Cecum
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Stomach, Descending Colon, Rectum
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Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
Correct Answer
A. Duodenum, Jejunum, IleumExplanation
The small intestine is divided into three main parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and receives partially digested food from the stomach. The jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine and is responsible for absorbing nutrients from the digested food. The ileum is the final part of the small intestine and completes the absorption process, as well as playing a role in the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A Cochlear implant is placed in the :
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Cornea
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Inner Ear
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Heart
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Spine
Correct Answer
A. Inner EarExplanation
A cochlear implant is a medical device that is surgically placed in the inner ear. It is designed to provide a sense of sound to individuals who are severely or profoundly deaf. The implant consists of an external microphone, speech processor, and transmitter that send electrical signals to an array of electrodes in the inner ear. These electrodes stimulate the auditory nerve, allowing the brain to perceive sound. Placing the implant in the inner ear allows for direct stimulation of the auditory system, bypassing any damaged or non-functioning parts of the ear.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient who has been severely burned will be undergoing a skin xenograft for temporary wound closure. The xenograft harvests the skin from where?
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From the body of the patient.
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From a donor of the same species.
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From a donor that is non-human.
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From synthetic material.
Correct Answer
A. From a donor that is non-human.Explanation
The correct answer is from a donor that is non-human. In a skin xenograft procedure, the skin is harvested from a donor that is not of the same species as the patient. This is often done using pig skin, as it is similar in structure and function to human skin. The xenograft is used as a temporary wound closure until the patient's own skin can be regenerated or a more permanent graft can be performed.Rate this question:
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- 15.
" ------------------------------- " is a reference that instructs coder to look up another term to locate a code for a particular condition.
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See category
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And
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See condition
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Eponym
Correct Answer
A. See conditionExplanation
The correct answer is "See condition". This answer suggests that when encountering the reference "See condition" in coding, the coder should look up another term to find the appropriate code for a specific condition. This implies that the coder should refer to additional information or guidelines to determine the appropriate code to use based on the given condition.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The most commonly used etiology/manifestation combinations are the codes for --------------------------, category 250.
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Heart disease.
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Tachycardia.
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Diabetes mellitus.
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Hypertension.
Correct Answer
A. Diabetes mellitus.Explanation
The most commonly used etiology/manifestation combinations are the codes for diabetes mellitus, category 250. This implies that diabetes mellitus is a frequently reported condition and its codes are commonly used in medical documentation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
EVALUATION AND MANAGEMENT :A 90-year-old patient asks for a second opinion when he was recently diagnosed with bilateral senile cataracts. His regular ophthalmologist has recommended implantation of lenses after surgical removal of the cataracts. The patient presents to the clinic stating that he is concerned about the necessity of the procedure. During the detailed history, the patient states that he has had decreasing vision over the last year or two but has always had excellent vision. He cannot recall a trauma to the eye in the past. The physician conducted a detailed visual examination and confirmed the diagnosis of the patient's ophthalmologist. The medical decision-making was of low complexity.
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99252
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99241
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99203
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92002
Correct Answer
A. 99203Explanation
The correct answer is 99203. This code represents a new patient office visit with a detailed history, a detailed examination, and low complexity medical decision-making. In this scenario, the 90-year-old patient is seeking a second opinion for his bilateral senile cataracts. The physician conducts a detailed visual examination and confirms the diagnosis made by the patient's ophthalmologist. The patient's history of decreasing vision and lack of trauma to the eye suggests a progressive condition rather than an acute problem. The medical decision-making is considered low complexity because the diagnosis is confirmed and the treatment plan involves surgical removal of the cataracts with lens implantation.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A new patient presents to the emergency department with an ankle sprain received when he fell while roller-blading. The physician completes an expanded problem focused history and examination. The medical decision making complexity is low.
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99232
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99282
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99202
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99284
Correct Answer
A. 99282Explanation
The correct answer is 99282. This code represents a level 2 emergency department visit. The patient's presentation with an ankle sprain and the completion of an expanded problem focused history and examination indicate a moderate level of complexity. The medical decision making complexity is low, which aligns with a level 2 visit.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A new patient is admitted to the observation unit of the local hospital after a 10 foot fall from a ladder. The physician completed a comprehensive history and physical examination. The medical decision making is moderately complex. Also code for Code for a subsequent observation, one day, Expanded problem-focused history, Expanded problem-focused exam and Moderate Medical Decision Making. What is noteworthy about the subsequent day observation codes?
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99222; 99223; They are Add-On Codes
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99219; 99225; They are Out of Order Codes
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99235; 99224; They are Modifier 51 Exempt
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99220; 99226; They Do Not Follow E & M Rules of the Three Key Components.
Correct Answer
A. 99219; 99225; They are Out of Order CodesExplanation
The subsequent day observation codes 99219 and 99225 are considered "Out of Order Codes" because they do not follow the E & M (Evaluation and Management) rules of the three key components. These codes are used when a patient is admitted for observation after a previous visit or procedure and the subsequent day requires a more comprehensive evaluation and management. These codes are used to accurately bill for the services provided on the subsequent day, even though they may not follow the usual order of E & M codes.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An established patient is admitted to the hospital by his attending physician after a car accident in which the patient hit the steering wheel of the automobile with significant enough force to fold the wheel backward. After a detailed history and physical examination, the physician believed the patient may have sustained a right rotator cuff injury. The medical decision was straightforward in complexity.
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99255
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99283
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99253
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99221
Correct Answer
A. 99221Explanation
The correct answer is 99221 because the patient is an established patient who was admitted to the hospital after a car accident. The physician performed a detailed history and physical examination and determined that the patient may have sustained a right rotator cuff injury. The medical decision-making was straightforward in complexity, indicating that a lower level of service is appropriate. Therefore, 99221, which represents an initial hospital visit for a new or established patient, is the correct code.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An established patient is seen in a nursing facility by the physician because the patient, who is a diabetic, has developed a stage II decubitus ulcer with cellulitis. The physician performs a detailed history and examination. The medical decision making complexity is moderate.
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99310
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99309
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99315
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99228
Correct Answer
A. 99309Explanation
In this scenario, the physician is seeing an established patient in a nursing facility who has developed a stage II decubitus ulcer with cellulitis. The physician performs a detailed history and examination, indicating a higher level of complexity in medical decision making. The correct answer, 99309, is an evaluation and management code for a detailed examination and a moderate level of medical decision making.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The qualifying circumstances code indicates a 75-year-old male.
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99100
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99140
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99116
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99135
Correct Answer
A. 99100 -
- 23.
To calculate the unit value of services for two procedures performed on the same patient during the same operative session you would do the following to report anesthesia services.
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Report only the units for the highest unit value procedure.
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Report only the units for the lowest unit value procedure.
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Subtract the procedure with the lowest unit value from the procedure with the highest unit value.
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Add the units of the two procedures together.
Correct Answer
A. Report only the units for the highest unit value procedure.Explanation
When calculating the unit value of services for two procedures performed on the same patient during the same operative session, it is recommended to report only the units for the highest unit value procedure. This means that the anesthesia services should be reported based on the procedure with the highest unit value, rather than combining or subtracting the units of the two procedures. By doing so, it ensures that the anesthesia services are accurately reported and billed based on the procedure that requires the most resources and time.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Code anesthesia service provided for an anterior cervical discectomy with decompression of a single interspace of the spinal cord and nerve roots and including osteophytectomy.
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00620
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00640
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00630
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00600
Correct Answer
A. 00600Explanation
The correct answer is 00600. This code represents the anesthesia service provided for an anterior cervical discectomy with decompression of a single interspace of the spinal cord and nerve roots, including osteophytectomy.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Per CPT guidelines, anesthesia time ends :
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When the patient leaves the operating room
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When the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance on the patient.
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When the patient has fulfilled post anesthesia care unit criteria for recovery
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When the patient leaves the post anesthesia care unit.
Correct Answer
A. When the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance on the patient.Explanation
According to CPT guidelines, anesthesia time ends when the anesthesiologist is no longer personally attending to the patient. This means that once the anesthesiologist has completed their duties and is no longer directly involved in the patient's care, the anesthesia time is considered to have ended. It is not dependent on the patient leaving the operating room or the post anesthesia care unit, or fulfilling recovery criteria.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Anesthesia time starts when :
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When the radiologist meets the family
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When the radiologist begins to administer drugs
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When the radiologist prepares the patient for induction ---- preoperative
Correct Answer
A. When the radiologist prepares the patient for induction ---- preoperativeExplanation
The correct answer is when the radiologist prepares the patient for induction - preoperative. This is because anesthesia time typically starts when the patient is being prepared for the induction of anesthesia, which includes activities such as positioning the patient, applying monitoring devices, and administering preoperative medications. Meeting the family or administering drugs may be part of the anesthesia process, but they do not mark the start of anesthesia time.Rate this question:
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- 27.
RADIOLOGY :A 60-year-old female comes to the clinic with shortness of breath. The doctor orders a chest x-ray, frontal and lateral.
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71020 X 2, 786.07
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71035 X 2, 786.9
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71015, 786.09
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71020, 786.05
Correct Answer
A. 71020, 786.05Explanation
The correct answer is 71020, 786.05. The reason for this is that the question states that a chest x-ray, both frontal and lateral, is ordered. The code 71020 represents a chest x-ray, and the modifier 26 is not mentioned in the question, which means that the professional component is not being billed separately. The diagnosis code 786.05 is for shortness of breath, which matches the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A patient presents for an MRI of the pelvis with contrast materials.
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72125
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72198
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72196
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72159
Correct Answer
A. 72196 -
- 29.
Code an endoscopic catheterization of the biliary ductal system for the professional radiology component only.
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74330-26
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43271, 74320
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74328-26
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74300-26
Correct Answer
A. 74328-26Explanation
The correct answer is 74328-26. This code represents the endoscopic catheterization of the biliary ductal system for the professional radiology component only. It is the most appropriate code for this procedure.Rate this question:
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- 30.
PATHOLOGY AND LABORATORY :A patient presents to the laboratory in the clinic for the following tests : TSH, comprehensive metabolic panel, and an automated hemogram with manual differential WBC count (CBC). How would you code this lab?
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84445, 80051, 85025
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84443
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80050
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84443, 80053, 85027, 85007
Correct Answer
A. 80050Explanation
The correct answer is 80050. This code represents the comprehensive metabolic panel test, which is one of the tests mentioned in the question. The other codes listed in the options are either not mentioned or do not correspond to the tests mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 31.
An 81-year-old female patient presented to the laboratory for a lipid panel that includes measurement of total serum cholesterol, lipoprotein (direct measurement, HDL), and triglycerides.
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80061
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80061-52
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82465, 83718, 84478
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82465-52, 83718, 84478
Correct Answer
A. 80061Explanation
The correct answer is 80061. This is the correct code for a lipid panel, which includes the measurement of total serum cholesterol, lipoprotein (direct measurement, HDL), and triglycerides. The other options either include an incorrect modifier or include additional codes that are not necessary for a lipid panel.Rate this question:
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- 32.
This 34-year-old female had been suffering from chronic fatigue. Her physician has ordered a TSH test.
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80418, 780.71
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80438, 780.71
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80440, 780.79
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84443, 780.79
Correct Answer
A. 84443, 780.79Explanation
The correct answer is 84443, 780.79. The patient's physician ordered a TSH test, which stands for thyroid-stimulating hormone. The TSH test is used to evaluate thyroid function and can help diagnose conditions such as hypothyroidism, which can cause symptoms of chronic fatigue. The code 84443 represents the TSH test, while the code 780.79 represents the symptom of fatigue.Rate this question:
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- 33.
This patient presents to the clinic lab for a prothrombin time measurement because of long-term use of Coumadin.
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85210, V58.61
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85210, V58.62
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85610, V58.61
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85230, V58
Correct Answer
A. 85610, V58.61Explanation
This patient is on long-term use of Coumadin, which is a medication that affects blood clotting. Prothrombin time (PT) is a test used to measure how long it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, the correct answer is 85610, which is the CPT code for PT measurement. Additionally, the patient's reason for the test is the long-term use of Coumadin, which is represented by the ICD-10 code V58.61, indicating the need for long-term (current) use of anticoagulants.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The 67-year-old female suffers from Chronic liver disease and needs a hepatic function panel performed every six months. Tests include total bilirubin (82247), direct bilirubin (82248), total protein (84155), alanin aminotransferases (ALT and SGPT) (84460), aspartate aminotransferases (AST and SGOT) (84450) and what other lab tests ?
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82040, 84075
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80061, 83718
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82040, 82247
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84295, 84450
Correct Answer
A. 82040, 84075Explanation
The correct lab tests to be performed along with the mentioned tests for the 67-year-old female suffering from Chronic liver disease are 82040 and 84075. These additional tests are necessary to assess the liver function comprehensively and monitor the progression of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 35.
MEDICINE SECTION :An elderly man comes in for his flu (split virus, IM) and pneumonia (23-valent, IM) vaccines. Code only the immunization administration and diagnoses for the vaccines.
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90658, 90632, V05.8, V04.81
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90471, 90658, 90472, 90732, V04.81, V03.82
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90471 X 2, 90658, 90632, V04.81
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90471, 90472, V04.81, V03.82
Correct Answer
A. 90471, 90472, V04.81, V03.82Explanation
The correct answer is 90471, 90472, V04.81, V03.82. This answer includes the correct immunization administration codes (90471 and 90472) for both the flu and pneumonia vaccines. It also includes the correct diagnosis codes (V04.81 and V03.82) for the vaccines.Rate this question:
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- 36.
This 70-year-old male is taken to the emergency room with severe chest pain. The physician provided an expanded problem-focused history and examination. While the physician is examining the patient, his pressures drop and he goes into cardiac arrest. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is given to the patient, and his pressure returns to normal; he is transferred to the intensive care unit in critical condition. Code the cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the diagnosis. The medical decision making was of low complexity.
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99282, 92950, 427.5
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99283, 92970, 427.5
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92950, 427.5
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92960, 427.5
Correct Answer
A. 92950, 427.5Explanation
The correct answer is 92950, 427.5. This code represents the cardiopulmonary resuscitation given to the patient. The patient went into cardiac arrest and required resuscitation in order to restore his blood pressure to normal. Additionally, the diagnosis code 427.5 represents cardiac arrest, which is the reason for the resuscitation. The medical decision making was of low complexity, indicating that the physician's evaluation and management of the patient's condition was relatively straightforward.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Mary is a 50-year-old female with end-stage renal failure. She receives dialysis Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays each week. She sees the physician 4 times per month. Code a full month of dialysis for the month of December.
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90960 X 4, 585
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90960, 585
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90960, 586
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90961, 586
Correct Answer
A. 90960, 585Explanation
Mary receives dialysis three times a week on Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays. In the month of December, there are four Tuesdays, four Thursdays, and five Saturdays. Therefore, she would receive a total of 13 dialysis sessions in December. The correct answer, 90960, 585, represents the code for a full month of dialysis. The first number, 90960, indicates the code for the dialysis procedure, and the second number, 585, represents the number of sessions.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How does the CPT Professional Edition define a new patient?
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A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past two years.
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A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years.
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A new patient is one who has received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty within the last two years for the same problem.
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A new patient is one who has received hospital services but has never been seen in the clinic by the reporting physician.
Correct Answer
A. A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years.Explanation
The correct answer is that a new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years. This means that if a patient has not seen any physician within the same specialty and group practice for three years, they would be considered a new patient. This definition helps to determine the appropriate billing and coding for new patients versus established patients.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Andrea, a 52-year-old patient, had a hysterectomy on Monday morning. That afternoon, after returning to her hospital room, she suffered a cardiac arrest. A cardiologist responded to the call and delivered one hour and 35 minutes of critical care. During this time the cardiologist ordered a single view chest x-ray and provided ventilation management. How should you report the cardiologist's services?
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99291, 99292
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99291, 99292, 71010, 94002
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71010, 94002, 99231
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99291, 99292, 99292-52
Correct Answer
A. 99291, 99292Explanation
The correct answer is 99291, 99292. The cardiologist provided critical care for one hour and 35 minutes, which qualifies for code 99291. Additionally, the cardiologist provided prolonged services, which qualifies for code 99292. Therefore, both codes should be reported.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Brandon was seen in Dr. Shaw's office after falling off his bunk bed. Brandon's mother reported that Brandon and his sister were jumping on the beds when she heard a "thud". Brandon complained of knee pain and had trouble walking. Dr. Shaw ordered a knee x-ray that was done at the imaging center across the street. The x-ray showed no fracture or dislocations. Dr. Shaw had seen Brandon for his school physical six months ago. Today, Dr. Shaw documented a detailed examination and decision-making of moderate complexity. He also instructed Brandon's mother that if Brandon had any additional pain or trouble walking he should see an orthopedic specialist. How should Dr. Shaw report her services from today's visit?
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99204
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99394, 99214
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99214
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99203
Correct Answer
A. 99214Explanation
Dr. Shaw should report her services from today's visit as 99214. This is because she documented a detailed examination and decision-making of moderate complexity, which meets the requirements for a level 4 established patient office visit. The other options (99204, 99394, 99203) do not accurately reflect the level of complexity and documentation provided in this case.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Dr. Jane admitted a 67-year-old woman to the coronary care unit for an acute myocardial infarction. The admission included a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and high complexity decision-making. Dr. Jane visited the patient on days two and three and documented (each day) an expanded problem-focused examination and decision-making of moderate complexity. On day four, Dr. Jane moved the patient to the medical floor and documented a problem focused examination and straightforward decision-making. Day five, Dr. Jane discharged the patient to home. The discharge took over an hour. How would you report the services from day one to day five?
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99213, 99232, 99231, 99239 X 2
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99221, 99222, 99223, 99238
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99231, 99232, 99355, 99217
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99223, 99232, 99232, 99231, 99239
Correct Answer
A. 99223, 99232, 99232, 99231, 99239Explanation
The correct answer is 99223, 99232, 99232, 99231, 99239. This is because on day one, Dr. Jane performed a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and high complexity decision-making, which corresponds to code 99223. On days two and three, Dr. Jane performed an expanded problem-focused examination and decision-making of moderate complexity, which corresponds to code 99232. On day four, Dr. Jane performed a problem-focused examination and straightforward decision-making, which corresponds to code 99231. On day five, Dr. Jane performed a discharge that took over an hour, which corresponds to code 99239.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Mr. Johnson, a 38-year-old established patient is being seen for management of his hypertension, diabetes, and weight control. On his last visit, he was told he had a diabetic foot ulcer and needed to be hospitalized for this condition. He decided to get a second opinion and went to see Dr. Myers. This was the first time Dr. Myers had seen Mr. Johnson. Dr. Myers documented a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and decision-making of high complexity. He concurred with hospitalization for the foot ulcer and sent a report back to Mr. Johnson's primary care doctor. How would you report Dr. Myers visit?
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99245
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99205
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99215
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99255
Correct Answer
A. 99205Explanation
The correct answer is 99205. This is the appropriate code to report Dr. Myers' visit because he performed a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and decision-making of high complexity. This level of service is typically associated with new patients and reflects the thoroughness and complexity of the visit. The other codes listed do not accurately reflect the level of service provided by Dr. Myers.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Code for the supervision by a control physician of interfacility transport care of the critically ill or critically injured pediatric patient, 24 months of age or younger, includes two-way communication with transport team before transport, at the referring facility and during the transport, including data interpretation and report; first 30 minutes.
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99485
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99486
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99487
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99488
Correct Answer
A. 99485Explanation
The correct answer is 99485 because it includes the supervision by a control physician of interfacility transport care for critically ill or injured pediatric patients who are 24 months of age or younger. This code covers two-way communication with the transport team before, during, and after the transport, including data interpretation and reporting, for the first 30 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A patient presents to a freestanding radiology center and had ultrasonic guidance needle placement with imaging supervision and interpretation of two separate lesions in the left breast. The procedure required several passes to complete. How would you report the imaging procedure?
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76930 X 2
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76941
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76942 x 2-LT
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76942-LT
Correct Answer
A. 76942 x 2-LTExplanation
The correct answer is 76942 x 2-LT. This is the appropriate code to report the imaging procedure in this scenario. The patient had ultrasonic guidance needle placement with imaging supervision and interpretation of two separate lesions in the left breast. The procedure required several passes to complete, which is indicated by the "x 2" in the code. The "LT" indicates that the procedure was performed on the left side.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Sally had a DXA bone density study for her hips, pelvis, and spine. The procedure was performed in a hospital. How would you report for the professional services of this study?
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77078-26, 77080-26
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77080-26
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77082-26
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77081-26, 77080-26
Correct Answer
A. 77080-26Explanation
The correct answer is 77080-26. This code represents the professional services for a DXA bone density study. The "-26" modifier indicates that only the professional component is being reported, meaning that the interpretation and report of the study were provided by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional. The other codes listed either do not include the correct code for a DXA bone density study or include additional codes that are not necessary for reporting the professional services of the study.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How does cardiac magnetic imaging differ from a traditional MRI?
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In its ability to provide a physiologic evaluation of cardiac function.
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In its ability to provide a measurement of the cardiac output.
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In its ability to provide only a one dimensional view of the heart.
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In its ability to provide only mapping points for cardiac regurgitation.
Correct Answer
A. In its ability to provide a physiologic evaluation of cardiac function.Explanation
Cardiac magnetic imaging differs from a traditional MRI in its ability to provide a physiologic evaluation of cardiac function. While a traditional MRI can provide detailed anatomical images of the heart, cardiac magnetic imaging goes a step further by assessing the heart's physiological performance. It can measure parameters such as cardiac output, ejection fraction, and myocardial viability, providing valuable information about the heart's function and overall health. This makes cardiac magnetic imaging a more comprehensive and specialized tool for evaluating cardiac function compared to a traditional MRI.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Dr. Monday provided a comprehensive clinical pathology consultation at the request of Dr. Adams. This request was regarding a patient with various infections, drug allergies, skin rash, and Down's syndrome. This patient is in the hospital intensive care unit being treated with intravenous antibiotics. Dr. Monday did not see the patient but he reviewed the patient's history, complex medical records, and provided a written report back to Dr. Adams regarding his findings and recommendations for further treatment. How would Dr. Monday report his services?
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80502
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99244
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99244-25, 80502
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99255-25, 80500
Correct Answer
A. 80502Explanation
Dr. Monday would report his services using code 80502. This code represents a comprehensive consultation provided by a pathologist, which includes the review of the patient's history and medical records, as well as the provision of a written report with findings and treatment recommendations. This is the most appropriate code for Dr. Monday's services in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Code 3011F describes which diagnostic or screening process?
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Lipid panel results including total cholesterol, HDL-C, triglycerides, calculated LDL-C
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Lipid panel results including total cholesterol
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Lipid panel results including cholesterol, triglycerides, lipoprotein
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Lipid panel results including cholesterol, triglycerides, carbon dioxide, glucose, potassium
Correct Answer
A. Lipid panel results including total cholesterol, HDL-C, triglycerides, calculated LDL-CExplanation
Code 3011F describes a diagnostic or screening process for lipid panel results. A lipid panel is a blood test that measures various types of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood. The correct answer states that the lipid panel includes measurements of total cholesterol, HDL-C (high-density lipoprotein cholesterol), triglycerides, and calculated LDL-C (low-density lipoprotein cholesterol). This combination of measurements provides a comprehensive assessment of an individual's lipid profile, which can help in assessing their risk for cardiovascular disease.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Code 95907 could describe studies to which of the following nerves?
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Lateral antebrachial cutaneous sensory nerve and posterior femoral cutaneous sensory nerve
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Medial calcaneal sensory nerve and radial sensory nerve to digit one
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Both A and B
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None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Both A and BExplanation
Code 95907 could describe studies to both the lateral antebrachial cutaneous sensory nerve and the posterior femoral cutaneous sensory nerve, as well as the medial calcaneal sensory nerve and the radial sensory nerve to digit one.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 17, 2015Quiz Created by
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