Quiz: Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia

74 Questions | By Scottishduffy | Last updated: Mar 22, 2022 | Total Attempts: 1806

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Quiz: Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia - Quiz

A review of the material for Exam 3 in Principles covering OB anesthesia.

Questions and Answers

1.

Which of the following describes the proper intubation technique for a pregnant pet undergoing general anesthesia?
- A.
  
  Rapid Sequence induction
- B.
  
  Awake Fiber Optic Intubation
- C.
  
  Regular induction, but have glidescope ready is needed
- D.
  
  Perform all cases with LMA’s due to airway difficulty
2.

If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most concerned with saving the life of the…
- A.
  
  Fetus
- B.
  
  Mother
- C.
  
  Neither is more important than the other
- D.
  
  Myself!!!
3.

You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective C-section today. She has refused epidural anesthesia, so will have to undergo general anesthesia today. You begin a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate. You able to ventilate the pt with cricioid pressure, but can’t seem to get a tube in. What do you do?
- A.
  
  Perform retrograde intubation
- B.
  
  Insert LMA and then proceed with case
- C.
  
  Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation
- D.
  
  Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery
4.

You are the SRNA for Ms. Tiyarah who is coming down for an emergent c-section due to fetal distress. She does not have an epidural, so must undergo general anesthesia since there is no time to insert one. You do a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate the pt. You are able to maintain ventilation with cricoids pressure but can’t get a tube in. What do you do?
- A.
  
  Perform retrograde intubation
- B.
  
  Perform Transtracheal Jet Ventilation
- C.
  
  Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation
- D.
  
  Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery
5.

Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?
- A.
  
  Precipitous labor
- B.
  
  Fetal Distress
- C.
  
  Pt hemorrhaging
- D.
  
  Failed regional block
6.

Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts undergoing general anesthesia?
- A.
  
  Metaclopromide
- B.
  
  Bicitra
- C.
  
  Calcium Carbonate
- D.
  
  Pepcid
7.

How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general anesthesia?
- A.
  
  Deep extubation
- B.
  
  All pregnant pts should remain intubated until cleared by OB/GYN
- C.
  
  Awake extubation
- D.
  
  Extubate of jet stylet so re-intubation easier if necessary
8.

In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…
- A.
  
  Avoid regional blocks due to difficulty in locating anatomical landmarks
- B.
  
  Administer anxiolytic and opioids as soon as possible to initiate pain control
- C.
  
  Talk to them about how to lose the baby weight (and then some) after birth
- D.
  
  Make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic
9.

You are doing general anesthesia on Mrs. Maritt who is having a lap chole today. She is also 7 months pregnant and morbidly obese. Which of the following would not be an airway consideration with this patient?
- A.
  
  More anterior larynx
- B.
  
  Limited flexion
- C.
  
  Narrowed view of pharyngeal opening
- D.
  
  Limited mouth opening
10.

Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?
- A.
  
  Fetal Distress
- B.
  
  Failed regional block
- C.
  
  Dystocia
- D.
  
  Cephalopelvic disproportion
11.

For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a sensory blockade at what level?
- A.
  
  T6
- B.
  
  T2
- C.
  
  T4
- D.
  
  T8
12.

Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are necessary to establish what?
- A.
  
  Sentinel Event
- B.
  
  Obstetric risk
- C.
  
  Culpability
- D.
  
  Medical Malpractice
13.

What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcome in obstetric anesthesia?
- A.
  
  Respiratory Events
- B.
  
  Cardiac Events
- C.
  
  Fetal Distress
- D.
  
  Abnormal fetal presentation
14.

What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?
- A.
  
  MAC sedation
- B.
  
  Regional Anesthesia
- C.
  
  General Anesthesia
- D.
  
  All the above are equally good options
15.

All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full stomachs regardless of how long they have been NPO.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
16.

Minimum NPO status for an elective C-section is ____ hours.
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  8
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  10
17.

Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients?
- A.
  
  Increased intragastric pressure
- B.
  
  Lower esophageal sphincter tone
- C.
  
  Delayed Gastric emptying
- D.
  
  All the above contribute.
18.

Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant patients except?
- A.
  
  Pt who is overdue by 2 weeks
- B.
  
  Emergent c-section
- C.
  
  Eclamptic pt
- D.
  
  Difficult intubation
19.

The hallmark sign of post dural puncture headache is a headache that is relieved by what position?
- A.
  
  Sitting while leaning forward
- B.
  
  Laying flat
- C.
  
  Laying on the left side
- D.
  
  Standing and walking
20.

When does organogenesis occur?
- A.
  
  First 4 months of pregnancy
- B.
  
  3rd – 5th months of pregnancy
- C.
  
  First two months of pregnancy
- D.
  
  Throughout the entire pregnancy
21.

Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?
- A.
  
  Vecuronium
- B.
  
  Ephedrine
- C.
  
  Sevoflurane
- D.
  
  Versed
22.

When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, we are concerned with all of the following except….
- A.
  
  Maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures
- B.
  
  Prevention of preterm labor
- C.
  
  Avoidance of teratogenic medications, such as nitrous oxide
- D.
  
  Maintaining optimal uteroplacental perfusion
23.

Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations of pregnant pts?
- A.
  
  They have a greater sensitivity to anesthetics
- B.
  
  Optimal positioning for 2nd – 3rd trimester pts is supine
- C.
  
  Pts have a greater circulating blood volume
- D.
  
  Pts are more susceptible to thromboembolic problems
24.

During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not considered to be at an increased aspiration risk.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
25.

Why must nitrous oxide be avoided during pregnancy?
- A.
  
  N2O diffuses into and expands uterus, increasing risk for uterine rupture
- B.
  
  Nitrous oxide causes fetal bradycardia and increasing risk of spontaneous abortion
- C.
  
  N2O interferes with folic acid metabolism, thus impairing DNA synthesis
- D.
  
  All the above