Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia Quiz

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  • 1/74 Questions

    Which of the following describes the proper intubation technique for a pregnant pet undergoing general anesthesia?

    • Rapid Sequence induction
    • Awake Fiber Optic Intubation
    • Regular induction, but have glidescope ready is needed
    • Perform all cases with LMA’s due to airway difficulty
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About This Quiz

Dive into the intricate world of obstetric anesthesia with our engaging quiz designed for medical professionals seeking to enhance their knowledge and expertise. This quiz meticulously covers the principles of obstetric anesthesia, from understanding the physiological changes during pregnancy to mastering the nuances of pain management during labor and delivery.

Whether you're a seasoned anesthesiologist, an obstetrician, or a medical student eager to deepen your understanding, this quiz offers a comprehensive assessment of essential concepts and practices. Explore scenarios that mirror real-life obstetric situations, testing your ability to make critical decisions for the well-being of both the mother and the newborn.

Elevate your proficiency in obstetric anesthesia by taking this quiz, where each question is crafted to enhance your skills and contribute to safe and effective care in obstetrics.

Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full stomachs regardless of how long they have been NPO.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In obstetric patients undergoing a cesarean section, it is considered that they have full stomachs regardless of the duration of fasting. This is because pregnancy can delay gastric emptying and increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia induction. Therefore, it is important to assume that these patients have full stomachs and take appropriate precautions to minimize the risk of aspiration during the procedure.

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  • 3. 

    The incidence of maternal aspiration is higher for emergent c-sections. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because emergent c-sections are performed in urgent situations where there is a higher risk to the mother and baby. This urgency can lead to complications during the procedure, including the risk of aspiration. Aspiration refers to inhaling or aspirating foreign matter into the lungs, which can be dangerous for the mother. Therefore, the incidence of maternal aspiration is indeed higher for emergent c-sections compared to planned c-sections or vaginal deliveries.

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  • 4. 

    If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most concerned with saving the life of the…

    • Fetus

    • Mother

    • Neither is more important than the other

    • Myself!!!

    Correct Answer
    A. Mother
    Explanation
    As an anesthetist, your primary concern should be the well-being and safety of the patient. In this case, the patient is the mother. If intubation fails, it can lead to serious complications and potentially endanger the mother's life. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize saving the life of the mother in such a situation. The fetus is also important, but the mother's life takes precedence in this scenario.

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  • 5. 

    What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?

    • MAC sedation

    • Regional Anesthesia

    • General Anesthesia

    • All the above are equally good options

    Correct Answer
    A. Regional Anesthesia
    Explanation
    Regional anesthesia is the preferred anesthetic method for obstetric patients because it provides effective pain relief during labor and delivery while minimizing the risks associated with general anesthesia. Regional anesthesia techniques, such as epidural or spinal anesthesia, can be tailored to the individual patient's needs and provide targeted pain relief without affecting the baby's well-being. This method allows the mother to remain awake and actively participate in the birthing process while reducing the risk of complications and side effects compared to general anesthesia or MAC sedation.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not a good candidate for Spinal anesthesia?

    • Pt with a known difficult airway

    • Pt with Aortic stenosis

    • Pt with history of asthma and bronchitis

    • Pt who is terrified of general anesthesia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pt with Aortic stenosis
    Explanation
    A patient with aortic stenosis is not a good candidate for spinal anesthesia because it can cause a sudden decrease in blood pressure, which may be poorly tolerated by the patient. Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve is narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. Spinal anesthesia can cause vasodilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, which can further compromise blood flow in patients with aortic stenosis. Therefore, it is safer to avoid spinal anesthesia in these patients.

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  • 7. 

    The presence of the placenta in the cervical opening is known as what?

    • Placenta Previa

    • HELLP Syndrome

    • Abruptio Placentea

    • Uterine Atony

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta Previa
    Explanation
    Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, the opening to the uterus. This can cause bleeding during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester. It is important to diagnose and manage placenta previa as it can lead to complications such as preterm labor and delivery.

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  • 8. 

    How will pregnancy affect the MAC of anesthetics?

    • Decrease MAC

    • Increase MAC

    • No effect on MAC

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease MAC
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, there are physiological changes that can affect the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of anesthetics. These changes include an increase in blood volume, cardiac output, and hormonal levels. As a result, pregnant women may require lower concentrations of anesthetics to achieve the same level of anesthesia, leading to a decrease in MAC. This is important for determining the appropriate dosage of anesthetics during pregnancy to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the fetus.

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  • 9. 

    The hallmark sign of post dural puncture headache is a headache that is relieved by what position?

    • Sitting while leaning forward

    • Laying flat

    • Laying on the left side

    • Standing and walking

    Correct Answer
    A. Laying flat
    Explanation
    Post dural puncture headache is a type of headache that occurs after a procedure involving the puncture of the dura mater, which is the membrane surrounding the spinal cord. This type of headache is typically relieved by laying flat. The reason for this is that when a person is in an upright position, the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks out of the puncture site, causing a decrease in CSF pressure around the brain and spinal cord. This decrease in pressure leads to the characteristic headache. By laying flat, the CSF pressure is restored, relieving the headache.

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  • 10. 

    How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general anesthesia?

    • Deep extubation

    • All pregnant pts should remain intubated until cleared by OB/GYN

    • Awake extubation

    • Extubate of jet stylet so re-intubation easier if necessary

    Correct Answer
    A. Awake extubation
    Explanation
    Awake extubation is the correct answer because it is the recommended method for extubating pregnant patients upon emergence from general anesthesia. This approach allows for a smoother transition from being under anesthesia to being fully awake, minimizing the risk of complications. It also allows for immediate assessment of the patient's airway and breathing, ensuring their safety during the extubation process.

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  • 11. 

    In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…

    • Avoid regional blocks due to difficulty in locating anatomical landmarks

    • Administer anxiolytic and opioids as soon as possible to initiate pain control

    • Talk to them about how to lose the baby weight (and then some) after birth

    • Make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic
    Explanation
    In an obese patient in labor, it is important to make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic. This is because regional anesthesia, such as epidural or spinal anesthesia, provides effective pain relief during labor and delivery. It can also help avoid the need for general anesthesia, which carries more risks in obese patients. Additionally, early initiation of regional anesthesia allows for better pain control and improves the overall experience for the patient.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations of pregnant pts?

    • They have a greater sensitivity to anesthetics

    • Optimal positioning for 2nd – 3rd trimester pts is supine

    • Pts have a greater circulating blood volume

    • Pts are more susceptible to thromboembolic problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Optimal positioning for 2nd – 3rd trimester pts is supine
  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for Post dural Puncture headache?

    • Blood Patch, at same interspace prior epidural was performed

    • Oral/IV hydration

    • IV Caffeine

    • Maintaining pt in upright position, on bedrest

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining pt in upright position, on bedrest
    Explanation
    Maintaining the patient in an upright position and on bedrest is not an appropriate treatment for Post dural Puncture headache. This position can actually worsen the headache and prolong the recovery time. The recommended treatment options for Post dural Puncture headache include a Blood Patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the site of the dural puncture to seal the hole and relieve the headache. Oral/IV hydration is also recommended to ensure adequate fluid intake and IV caffeine may be used to alleviate the headache symptoms.

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  • 14. 

    What would be the muscle relaxant of choice for induction of a pregnant pt?

    • Succinylcholine

    • Rocuronium

    • Cisatracurium

    • Pancuronium

    Correct Answer
    A. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Succinylcholine is the muscle relaxant of choice for induction of a pregnant patient because it has a rapid onset and short duration of action. This allows for quick intubation and ventilation during induction while minimizing the risk of prolonged paralysis. Additionally, succinylcholine does not cross the placenta, reducing the potential for fetal exposure and adverse effects.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a cause of antepartum hemorrhage?

    • Amniotic Fluid Embolism

    • Placenta Previa

    • Uterine Rupture

    • Abruptio Placentae

    Correct Answer
    A. Amniotic Fluid Embolism
    Explanation
    Amniotic Fluid Embolism is not a cause of antepartum hemorrhage. Antepartum hemorrhage refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 20 weeks of gestation but before the birth of the baby. The common causes of antepartum hemorrhage include Placenta Previa, Uterine Rupture, and Abruptio Placentae. Amniotic Fluid Embolism, on the other hand, is a rare and life-threatening condition where amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation, leading to an allergic reaction and respiratory distress. It is not directly related to bleeding from the genital tract.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following patients is an Absolute contraindication to spinal anesthesia?

    • Mrs. A what has severe mitral stenosis.

    • Mr. B who has advanced HIV disease

    • Mrs. C who weighs 350 pounds.

    • Mr. D who suffers from chronic back pain.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mrs. A what has severe mitral stenosis.
    Explanation
    Mrs. A with severe mitral stenosis is an absolute contraindication to spinal anesthesia. Mitral stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the mitral valve, which can lead to impaired blood flow and increased pressure in the left atrium. Spinal anesthesia can cause a sudden decrease in systemic vascular resistance and venous return, which can further compromise cardiac function in patients with mitral stenosis. Therefore, it is not safe to administer spinal anesthesia to Mrs. A.

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  • 17. 

    HELLP Syndrome may be characterized by all of the following except..

    • Hemolysis

    • Elevated liver Enzymes

    • Hypotension

    • Greater susceptibility to bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypotension
    Explanation
    HELLP syndrome is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. It is often associated with preeclampsia and can lead to various complications. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not typically a characteristic of HELLP syndrome. Instead, hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly seen in this condition.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients?

    • Increased intragastric pressure

    • Lower esophageal sphincter tone

    • Delayed Gastric emptying

    • All the above contribute.

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above contribute.
    Explanation
    Increased intragastric pressure, lower esophageal sphincter tone, and delayed gastric emptying all contribute to an increased risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients. Aspiration occurs when stomach contents enter the lungs, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Increased intragastric pressure can occur due to the growing uterus putting pressure on the stomach, lower esophageal sphincter tone may be reduced due to hormonal changes during pregnancy, and delayed gastric emptying is common in pregnant patients. These factors combined increase the likelihood of stomach contents refluxing into the lungs during anesthesia.

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  • 19. 

    During vaginal delivery of the baby, pain is somatic in origin and mainly derived from nerve fibers originating where?

    • L3-L5

    • S1-S4

    • T10-L1

    • T6-T8

    Correct Answer
    A. S1-S4
    Explanation
    During vaginal delivery, the pain is somatic in origin and mainly derived from nerve fibers originating from the sacral spinal segments S1-S4. These segments innervate the perineum, vagina, and lower part of the uterus, which are involved in the birthing process. The pain experienced during delivery is transmitted through these nerve fibers, leading to the somatic pain perception in the mother.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is not true of respiratory changes during pregnancy?

    • Pts will need larger ETT’s

    • O2 dissociation curve shifts to right

    • Decrease in FRC

    • Respiratory Alkalosis may be normal

    Correct Answer
    A. Pts will need larger ETT’s
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, there are several respiratory changes that occur. The O2 dissociation curve shifts to the right, which means that oxygen is more readily released to the tissues. There is a decrease in functional residual capacity (FRC), which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation. Respiratory alkalosis may be normal due to an increase in minute ventilation. However, there is no evidence to suggest that patients will need larger endotracheal tubes (ETT) during pregnancy.

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  • 21. 

    What is the optimal surgical position for a pt undergoing c-section to prevent hypotension?

    • Reverse trendelenburg

    • Lithotomy

    • Supine and slightly lateral

    • Trendelenburg

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine and slightly lateral
    Explanation
    The optimal surgical position for a patient undergoing a c-section to prevent hypotension is supine and slightly lateral. This position helps to improve blood flow to the uterus and prevent compression of the inferior vena cava, which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure. The supine position allows for easy access to the abdomen for the surgical team, while the slight lateral tilt helps to alleviate pressure on the vena cava. This position is commonly used during c-sections to maintain hemodynamic stability and prevent hypotension.

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  • 22. 

    When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, we are concerned with all of the following except….

    • Maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures

    • Prevention of preterm labor

    • Avoidance of teratogenic medications, such as nitrous oxide

    • Maintaining optimal uteroplacental perfusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures
    Explanation
    When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, it is important to consider all of the following except maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures. This is because deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation can pose risks to the fetus, such as compromising fetal oxygenation and increasing the risk of fetal distress. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other factors such as prevention of preterm labor, avoidance of teratogenic medications, and maintaining optimal uteroplacental perfusion to ensure fetal safety during anesthesia.

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  • 23. 

    A pregnant pt with pre-eclampsia would most likely be placed on which of the following drips?

    • Labetolol

    • Magnesium Sulfate

    • Hydralyzine

    • Sodium Nitroprusside

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnesium Sulfate
    Explanation
    A pregnant patient with pre-eclampsia would most likely be placed on Magnesium Sulfate drip. Magnesium Sulfate is commonly used in the management of pre-eclampsia to prevent seizures (eclampsia) and to lower blood pressure. It acts as a smooth muscle relaxant, helping to relax the blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. Additionally, it has neuroprotective effects on the fetus. Labetolol is another option for blood pressure control in pre-eclampsia, but Magnesium Sulfate is specifically used for its seizure prevention properties. Hydralazine and Sodium Nitroprusside are not typically used in the management of pre-eclampsia.

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  • 24. 

    COMIC RELIEF: Shamelessly stolen from those watching it in class last week. :-)

    • AAaggghh!! Scary!!!!

    • Butterface!

    • You know, for a dude he is pretty hot...

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The given answer "All the above" is correct because all the statements mentioned - "AAaggghh!! Scary!!!!", "Butterface!", and "You know, for a dude he is pretty hot..." - are examples of comic relief. Comic relief refers to the inclusion of humorous elements or moments in a serious or intense situation to provide a temporary break from tension or to lighten the mood. In this case, all the statements are meant to be funny and provide comic relief.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?

    • Fetal Distress

    • Failed regional block

    • Dystocia

    • Cephalopelvic disproportion

    Correct Answer
    A. Failed regional block
    Explanation
    A failed regional block refers to the inability to achieve adequate anesthesia or pain relief during labor and delivery through the use of regional anesthesia techniques such as epidural or spinal anesthesia. This is not an indication for cesarean section because it can be managed by alternative methods or by adjusting the anesthesia technique. Cesarean section is typically indicated for fetal distress, dystocia (difficult labor), and cephalopelvic disproportion (baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis).

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?

    • Vecuronium

    • Ephedrine

    • Sevoflurane

    • Versed

    Correct Answer
    A. Versed
    Explanation
    Versed is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy because it belongs to a class of medications called benzodiazepines, which can potentially harm the developing fetus. Benzodiazepines have been associated with an increased risk of birth defects, particularly when taken during the first trimester of pregnancy. Therefore, it is generally recommended to avoid using Versed or any other benzodiazepines during pregnancy unless the potential benefits outweigh the risks.

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  • 27. 

    What would be the preferred anesthetic technique for a pt undergoing c-section who has a past history of aortic stenosis?

    • General

    • MAC

    • Regional

    • Don't know, Don't care

    Correct Answer
    A. General
    Explanation
    For a patient with a past history of aortic stenosis undergoing a c-section, the preferred anesthetic technique would be general anesthesia. General anesthesia provides complete unconsciousness and muscle relaxation, allowing for optimal surgical conditions and control of the patient's airway. It also allows for close monitoring of the patient's hemodynamics, which is crucial in a patient with aortic stenosis. Regional anesthesia may not be suitable in this case due to the risk of hemodynamic instability and the potential for worsening of the aortic stenosis.

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  • 28. 

    For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a sensory blockade at what level?

    • T6

    • T2

    • T4

    • T8

    Correct Answer
    A. T4
    Explanation
    During a cesarean section with an epidural in place, the goal is to achieve a sensory blockade at the T4 level. This means that the anesthesia should numb the nerves at the fourth thoracic vertebrae level, providing pain relief and allowing the surgery to be performed without discomfort for the patient. Achieving a sensory blockade at T4 ensures that the necessary area for the surgery is adequately numbed, providing optimal conditions for a successful procedure.

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  • 29. 

    You are caring for Mrs. Berri who is fully dilated and about to deliver her baby. She has a past history of gestational diabetes, and 2 prior deliveries. Her first child delivered vaginally and her second child born via c-section.  As Mrs. Berri is pushing she suddenly screams and start to complain of a very severe pain. She says ‘something’s wrong’ and that it doesn’t feel like labor pain.  You look at the FHR monitor and notice the baby’s HR going down. What is happening?

    • Amniotic Fluid Embolism

    • Uterine Rupture

    • Umbilical Cord prolapsed

    • Abruptio Placentae

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterine Rupture
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is uterine rupture. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication during childbirth where the uterine wall tears. This can lead to severe pain for the mother and can also cause distress for the baby, as indicated by the decrease in fetal heart rate on the monitor. Given Mrs. Berri's history of a prior vaginal delivery and a prior c-section, she may be at higher risk for uterine rupture. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to address this emergency situation and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following interventions would be appropriate to manage an obstetric pt who has just aspirated?

    • Administration of steroids

    • Administration of antibiotics

    • Suction

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    In the case of an obstetric patient who has just aspirated, all of the listed interventions would be appropriate. Administration of steroids may help reduce inflammation and prevent further complications. Administration of antibiotics can help prevent or treat any potential infection that may arise from the aspiration. Suctioning can be used to remove any aspirated material from the airway and improve breathing. Therefore, all of these interventions can play a role in managing the patient's condition effectively.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?

    • Precipitous labor

    • Fetal Distress

    • Pt hemorrhaging

    • Failed regional block

    Correct Answer
    A. Precipitous labor
    Explanation
    Precipitous labor is not an indication for general anesthesia because it refers to a very rapid labor and delivery process, typically lasting less than 3 hours. In such cases, there is usually not enough time to administer general anesthesia safely and effectively. General anesthesia requires time for preparation, induction, and recovery, which may not be feasible in the context of precipitous labor. Therefore, other methods of pain management or local anesthesia are typically used in these situations.

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  • 32. 

    Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts undergoing general anesthesia?

    • Metaclopromide

    • Bicitra

    • Calcium Carbonate

    • Pepcid

    Correct Answer
    A. Bicitra
    Explanation
    Bicitra is commonly given to pregnant patients undergoing general anesthesia as a nonparticulate antacid. It helps to neutralize stomach acid and reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Bicitra contains citric acid and sodium citrate, which work together to increase the pH level in the stomach and provide relief from heartburn and indigestion. Its nonparticulate nature makes it a safe choice for pregnant patients, as it does not pose a risk of causing harm to the fetus.

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  • 33. 

    During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not considered to be at an increased aspiration risk.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    During the first and second trimesters of pregnancy, the pregnant individuals are considered to be at an increased risk of aspiration. This is because the growing uterus can put pressure on the stomach, causing the stomach contents to be pushed up into the esophagus. This can increase the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration during anesthesia or surgery. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 34. 

    How far should your epidural catheter be inserted?

    • Until pt begins to feel an ‘electric shock’ sensation

    • 3-5 cm

    • 1-2 cm

    • 5-10 cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-5 cm
    Explanation
    The epidural catheter should be inserted 3-5 cm into the patient. This is the recommended depth for proper placement and effectiveness of the epidural anesthesia. Inserting the catheter too shallow (1-2 cm) may not provide adequate pain relief, while inserting it too deep (5-10 cm) can lead to complications such as dural puncture or nerve damage. The sensation of an 'electric shock' is not a reliable indicator for the correct depth of insertion, and should not be used as a guide.

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  • 35. 

    How much volume would you inject for a blood patch to treat PDpH?

    • 10-20 cc’s

    • 5-10 cc’s

    • 25-30 cc’s

    • Depends upon size of pt and severity of headache

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-20 cc’s
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10-20 cc's. When performing a blood patch to treat post-dural puncture headache (PDPH), a volume of 10-20 cc's is typically injected. The specific volume may vary depending on the size of the patient and the severity of the headache. However, in general, a range of 10-20 cc's is commonly used for this procedure.

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  • 36. 

    Preterm labor is defined as any active labor occurring between ___ and ____ weeks gestation.

    • 15 , 34

    • 16, 32

    • 20, 37

    • 24, 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 20, 37
    Explanation
    Preterm labor is defined as any active labor occurring between 20 and 37 weeks gestation. This means that if a woman goes into labor before reaching 20 weeks, it is considered preterm labor. Similarly, if she goes into labor after 37 weeks, it is considered full term labor. This definition helps healthcare providers determine the appropriate management and care for pregnant women who experience preterm labor.

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  • 37. 

    You are now going in for an emergent c-section for Mrs. Gudro, no time to an epidural you must do GA. Mrs. Gudro had premature rupture of membrane at 28 weeks and has been on a Magnesium drip to stop contractions. How will this affect you anesthetic technique?

    • Must keep FiO2 low to prevent pulmonary alveolitis

    • Pt is prone to electrolyte imbalances and cardiac arrhythmias

    • Pt is at increased risk of bleeding since Mag will cause a low plt count

    • Duration of action of muscle relaxants will be prolonged

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of action of muscle relaxants will be prolonged
    Explanation
    The administration of magnesium drip to stop contractions can prolong the duration of action of muscle relaxants. Magnesium is a known antagonist of neuromuscular transmission and can interfere with the normal functioning of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This can result in a prolonged effect of muscle relaxants, making it necessary to carefully monitor and adjust the dosage of these medications during the anesthetic procedure.

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  • 38. 

    During the first stage of labor, the pain felt is visceral in origin and derived from nerve fibers originating where?

    • T10-L1

    • L3-L5

    • S1-S4

    • T6-T8

    Correct Answer
    A. T10-L1
    Explanation
    During the first stage of labor, the pain felt is visceral in origin and derived from nerve fibers originating from the T10-L1 spinal segments. These segments innervate the uterus and cervix, which are the main areas involved in the first stage of labor. The pain is transmitted through these nerve fibers to the brain, causing the sensation of pain.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following will not cross the placenta?

    • Glycopyrolate

    • Fentanyl

    • Ephedrine

    • Metaclopromide

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycopyrolate
    Explanation
    Glycopyrolate will not cross the placenta because it is a quaternary ammonium compound that is highly charged and polar. These properties make it difficult for the drug to pass through the placental barrier, which is selectively permeable. In contrast, Fentanyl, Ephedrine, and Metaclopromide are all able to cross the placenta due to their smaller size and lipophilic properties.

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  • 40. 

    What happens to coagulation factors during pregnancy?

    • Decreased plasma concentration

    • No change in plasma concentration

    • Increase in plasma concentration

    • Look.... Honestly I am sooooooo not motivated to study right now.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase in plasma concentration
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, there is an increase in plasma concentration of coagulation factors. This is because the body prepares for potential bleeding during childbirth by increasing the levels of clotting factors. This helps to prevent excessive bleeding and ensures proper blood clot formation.

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  • 41. 

    The fetus is most sensitive to drugs during which trimester?

    • 3rd

    • 2nd

    • 1st

    • Equally sensitive during all trimesters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1st
    Explanation
    During the first trimester of pregnancy, the fetus is most sensitive to drugs. This is because during this period, the major organs and systems of the fetus are developing rapidly. Exposure to drugs or other substances during this time can potentially cause significant harm to the developing fetus, leading to birth defects or other complications. It is important for pregnant women to be cautious about taking any medications or substances during the first trimester to minimize the risk to the fetus.

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  • 42. 

    When does organogenesis occur?

    • First 4 months of pregnancy

    • 3rd – 5th months of pregnancy

    • First two months of pregnancy

    • Throughout the entire pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. First two months of pregnancy
    Explanation
    Organogenesis is the process of organ formation in a developing embryo. It occurs during the first two months of pregnancy, when the major organs and body systems begin to form. This is a critical period for the development of the embryo, as any disruptions or abnormalities during this time can have long-lasting effects on the health and well-being of the individual. After the first two months, the organs continue to grow and mature, but the basic structures have already been established.

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  • 43. 

    What is the leading cause of maternal death under general anesthesia?

    • Aspiration

    • Amniotic Fluid Embolism

    • Uterine rupture and Hemorrhage

    • Myocardial Infarction

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    Aspiration is the leading cause of maternal death under general anesthesia. This occurs when stomach contents, such as vomit or gastric juices, are inhaled into the lungs. It can lead to severe respiratory complications, including aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Proper airway management and precautions are essential during anesthesia to prevent aspiration and ensure the safety of the mother.

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  • 44. 

    You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective C-section today. She has refused epidural anesthesia, so will have to undergo general anesthesia today. You begin a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate. You able to ventilate the pt with cricioid pressure, but can’t seem to get a tube in. What do you do?

    • Perform retrograde intubation

    • Insert LMA and then proceed with case

    • Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation

    • Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation
  • 45. 

    Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant patients except?

    • Pt who is overdue by 2 weeks

    • Emergent c-section

    • Eclamptic pt

    • Difficult intubation

    Correct Answer
    A. Pt who is overdue by 2 weeks
    Explanation
    Aspiration is more likely to occur in pregnant patients who have certain risk factors such as emergent c-section, eclampsia, and difficult intubation. However, being overdue by 2 weeks does not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Therefore, the patient who is overdue by 2 weeks is less likely to experience aspiration compared to the other three patients mentioned.

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  • 46. 

    At what point during labor is an epidural usually performed?

    • Whenever Mom asks

    • When pt is 3-4 cm dilated

    • When pt is 8-9 cm dilated

    • As soon as pt admitted, regardless of dilation

    Correct Answer
    A. When pt is 3-4 cm dilated
    Explanation
    During labor, an epidural is usually performed when the patient is 3-4 cm dilated. This is because at this stage, the cervix has started to dilate significantly, indicating that labor is progressing and the patient may be experiencing increasing discomfort. Administering the epidural at this point allows for pain relief to be provided in a timely manner, ensuring the patient's comfort throughout the rest of the labor process.

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  • 47. 

    What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcome in obstetric anesthesia?

    • Respiratory Events

    • Cardiac Events

    • Fetal Distress

    • Abnormal fetal presentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory Events
    Explanation
    Respiratory events are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcomes in obstetric anesthesia. This can include events such as airway obstruction, inadequate ventilation, or respiratory depression. These events can be caused by various factors, including the administration of anesthesia medications, pre-existing respiratory conditions in the patient, or complications during labor and delivery. Prompt recognition and management of respiratory events are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is not true of CV changes that occur during pregnancy?

    • Increase in intravascular volume

    • Decrease in SVR

    • Increase in HR

    • Largest increase in CO is during third trimester

    Correct Answer
    A. Largest increase in CO is during third trimester
    Explanation
    Largest increase in CO is immediately following delivery.

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  • 49. 

    Succinylcholine will normally last longer during pregnancy.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the metabolism of succinylcholine is altered, resulting in a prolonged duration of action. This is because pregnancy causes an increase in plasma cholinesterase levels, which is the enzyme responsible for metabolizing succinylcholine. As a result, the drug is cleared from the body at a slower rate, leading to a longer duration of action. Therefore, it is true that succinylcholine will normally last longer during pregnancy.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 29, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 29, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 15, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
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