Quiz: Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia

74 Questions | Total Attempts: 133

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Quiz: Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia

A review of the material for Exam 3 in Principles covering OB anesthesia.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following describes the proper intubation technique for a pregnant pet undergoing general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Rapid Sequence induction

    • B. 

      Awake Fiber Optic Intubation

    • C. 

      Regular induction, but have glidescope ready is needed

    • D. 

      Perform all cases with LMA’s due to airway difficulty

  • 2. 
    If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most concerned with saving the life of the…
    • A. 

      Fetus

    • B. 

      Mother

    • C. 

      Neither is more important than the other

    • D. 

      Myself!!!

  • 3. 
    You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective C-section today. She has refused epidural anesthesia, so will have to undergo general anesthesia today. You begin a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate. You able to ventilate the pt with cricioid pressure, but can’t seem to get a tube in. What do you do?
    • A. 

      Perform retrograde intubation

    • B. 

      Insert LMA and then proceed with case

    • C. 

      Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation

    • D. 

      Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery

  • 4. 
    You are the SRNA for Ms. Tiyarah who is coming down for an emergent c-section due to fetal distress. She does not have an epidural, so must undergo general anesthesia since there is no time to insert one. You do a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate the pt. You are able to maintain ventilation with cricoids pressure but can’t get a tube in. What do you do?
    • A. 

      Perform retrograde intubation

    • B. 

      Perform Transtracheal Jet Ventilation

    • C. 

      Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation

    • D. 

      Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Precipitous labor

    • B. 

      Fetal Distress

    • C. 

      Pt hemorrhaging

    • D. 

      Failed regional block

  • 6. 
    Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts undergoing general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Metaclopromide

    • B. 

      Bicitra

    • C. 

      Calcium Carbonate

    • D. 

      Pepcid

  • 7. 
    How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Deep extubation

    • B. 

      All pregnant pts should remain intubated until cleared by OB/GYN

    • C. 

      Awake extubation

    • D. 

      Extubate of jet stylet so re-intubation easier if necessary

  • 8. 
    In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…
    • A. 

      Avoid regional blocks due to difficulty in locating anatomical landmarks

    • B. 

      Administer anxiolytic and opioids as soon as possible to initiate pain control

    • C. 

      Talk to them about how to lose the baby weight (and then some) after birth

    • D. 

      Make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic

  • 9. 
    You are doing general anesthesia on Mrs. Maritt who is having a lap chole today. She is also 7 months pregnant and morbidly obese. Which of the following would not be an airway consideration with this patient?
    • A. 

      More anterior larynx

    • B. 

      Limited flexion

    • C. 

      Narrowed view of pharyngeal opening

    • D. 

      Limited mouth opening

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?
    • A. 

      Fetal Distress

    • B. 

      Failed regional block

    • C. 

      Dystocia

    • D. 

      Cephalopelvic disproportion

  • 11. 
    For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a sensory blockade at what level?
    • A. 

      T6

    • B. 

      T2

    • C. 

      T4

    • D. 

      T8

  • 12. 
    Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are necessary to establish what?
    • A. 

      Sentinel Event

    • B. 

      Obstetric risk

    • C. 

      Culpability

    • D. 

      Medical Malpractice

  • 13. 
    What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcome in obstetric anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Respiratory Events

    • B. 

      Cardiac Events

    • C. 

      Fetal Distress

    • D. 

      Abnormal fetal presentation

  • 14. 
    What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?
    • A. 

      MAC sedation

    • B. 

      Regional Anesthesia

    • C. 

      General Anesthesia

    • D. 

      All the above are equally good options

  • 15. 
    All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full stomachs regardless of how long they have been NPO.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    Minimum NPO status for an elective C-section is ____ hours.
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10

  • 17. 
    Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients?
    • A. 

      Increased intragastric pressure

    • B. 

      Lower esophageal sphincter tone

    • C. 

      Delayed Gastric emptying

    • D. 

      All the above contribute.

  • 18. 
    Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant patients except?
    • A. 

      Pt who is overdue by 2 weeks

    • B. 

      Emergent c-section

    • C. 

      Eclamptic pt

    • D. 

      Difficult intubation

  • 19. 
    The hallmark sign of post dural puncture headache is a headache that is relieved by what position?
    • A. 

      Sitting while leaning forward

    • B. 

      Laying flat

    • C. 

      Laying on the left side

    • D. 

      Standing and walking

  • 20. 
    When does organogenesis occur?
    • A. 

      First 4 months of pregnancy

    • B. 

      3rd – 5th months of pregnancy

    • C. 

      First two months of pregnancy

    • D. 

      Throughout the entire pregnancy

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Vecuronium

    • B. 

      Ephedrine

    • C. 

      Sevoflurane

    • D. 

      Versed

  • 22. 
    When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, we are concerned with all of the following except….
    • A. 

      Maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures

    • B. 

      Prevention of preterm labor

    • C. 

      Avoidance of teratogenic medications, such as nitrous oxide

    • D. 

      Maintaining optimal uteroplacental perfusion

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations of pregnant pts?
    • A. 

      They have a greater sensitivity to anesthetics

    • B. 

      Optimal positioning for 2nd – 3rd trimester pts is supine

    • C. 

      Pts have a greater circulating blood volume

    • D. 

      Pts are more susceptible to thromboembolic problems

  • 24. 
    During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not considered to be at an increased aspiration risk.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Why must nitrous oxide be avoided during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      N2O diffuses into and expands uterus, increasing risk for uterine rupture

    • B. 

      Nitrous oxide causes fetal bradycardia and increasing risk of spontaneous abortion

    • C. 

      N2O interferes with folic acid metabolism, thus impairing DNA synthesis

    • D. 

      All the above