Quiz: Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia
A review of the material for Exam 3 in Principles covering OB anesthesia.
- 1.Which of the following describes the proper intubation technique for a pregnant pet undergoing general anesthesia?
- A.
Rapid Sequence induction
- B.
Awake Fiber Optic Intubation
- C.
Regular induction, but have glidescope ready is needed
- D.
Perform all cases with LMA’s due to airway difficulty
- 2.If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most concerned with saving the life of the…
- A.
Fetus
- B.
Mother
- C.
Neither is more important than the other
- D.
Myself!!!
- 3.You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective C-section today. She has refused epidural anesthesia, so will have to undergo general anesthesia today. You begin a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate. You able to ventilate the pt with cricioid pressure, but can’t seem to get a tube in. What do you do?
- A.
Perform retrograde intubation
- B.
Insert LMA and then proceed with case
- C.
Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation
- D.
Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery
- 4.You are the SRNA for Ms. Tiyarah who is coming down for an emergent c-section due to fetal distress. She does not have an epidural, so must undergo general anesthesia since there is no time to insert one. You do a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate the pt. You are able to maintain ventilation with cricoids pressure but can’t get a tube in. What do you do?
- A.
Perform retrograde intubation
- B.
Perform Transtracheal Jet Ventilation
- C.
Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation
- D.
Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery
- 5.Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?
- A.
Precipitous labor
- B.
Fetal Distress
- C.
Pt hemorrhaging
- D.
Failed regional block
- 6.Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts undergoing general anesthesia?
- A.
Metaclopromide
- B.
Bicitra
- C.
Calcium Carbonate
- D.
Pepcid
- 7.How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general anesthesia?
- A.
Deep extubation
- B.
All pregnant pts should remain intubated until cleared by OB/GYN
- C.
Awake extubation
- D.
Extubate of jet stylet so re-intubation easier if necessary
- 8.In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…
- A.
Avoid regional blocks due to difficulty in locating anatomical landmarks
- B.
Administer anxiolytic and opioids as soon as possible to initiate pain control
- C.
Talk to them about how to lose the baby weight (and then some) after birth
- D.
Make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic
- 9.You are doing general anesthesia on Mrs. Maritt who is having a lap chole today. She is also 7 months pregnant and morbidly obese. Which of the following would not be an airway consideration with this patient?
- A.
More anterior larynx
- B.
Limited flexion
- C.
Narrowed view of pharyngeal opening
- D.
Limited mouth opening
- 10.Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?
- A.
Fetal Distress
- B.
Failed regional block
- C.
Dystocia
- D.
Cephalopelvic disproportion
- 11.For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a sensory blockade at what level?
- A.
T6
- B.
T2
- C.
T4
- D.
T8
- 12.Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are necessary to establish what?
- A.
Sentinel Event
- B.
Obstetric risk
- C.
Culpability
- D.
Medical Malpractice
- 13.What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcome in obstetric anesthesia?
- A.
Respiratory Events
- B.
Cardiac Events
- C.
Fetal Distress
- D.
Abnormal fetal presentation
- 14.What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?
- A.
MAC sedation
- B.
Regional Anesthesia
- C.
General Anesthesia
- D.
All the above are equally good options
- 15.All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full stomachs regardless of how long they have been NPO.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 16.Minimum NPO status for an elective C-section is ____ hours.
- A.
4
- B.
8
- C.
6
- D.
10
- 17.Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients?
- A.
Increased intragastric pressure
- B.
Lower esophageal sphincter tone
- C.
Delayed Gastric emptying
- D.
All the above contribute.
- 18.Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant patients except?
- A.
Pt who is overdue by 2 weeks
- B.
Emergent c-section
- C.
Eclamptic pt
- D.
Difficult intubation
- 19.The hallmark sign of post dural puncture headache is a headache that is relieved by what position?
- A.
Sitting while leaning forward
- B.
Laying flat
- C.
Laying on the left side
- D.
Standing and walking
- 20.When does organogenesis occur?
- A.
First 4 months of pregnancy
- B.
3rd – 5th months of pregnancy
- C.
First two months of pregnancy
- D.
Throughout the entire pregnancy
- 21.Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?
- A.
Vecuronium
- B.
Ephedrine
- C.
Sevoflurane
- D.
Versed
- 22.When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, we are concerned with all of the following except….
- A.
Maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures
- B.
Prevention of preterm labor
- C.
Avoidance of teratogenic medications, such as nitrous oxide
- D.
Maintaining optimal uteroplacental perfusion
- 23.Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations of pregnant pts?
- A.
They have a greater sensitivity to anesthetics
- B.
Optimal positioning for 2nd – 3rd trimester pts is supine
- C.
Pts have a greater circulating blood volume
- D.
Pts are more susceptible to thromboembolic problems
- 24.During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not considered to be at an increased aspiration risk.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 25.Why must nitrous oxide be avoided during pregnancy?
- A.
N2O diffuses into and expands uterus, increasing risk for uterine rupture
- B.
Nitrous oxide causes fetal bradycardia and increasing risk of spontaneous abortion
- C.
N2O interferes with folic acid metabolism, thus impairing DNA synthesis
- D.
All the above
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