Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia Quiz

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1. Which of the following describes the proper intubation technique for a pregnant pet undergoing general anesthesia?

Explanation

Rapid Sequence Induction is the proper intubation technique for a pregnant pet undergoing general anesthesia. This technique involves the administration of a rapid-acting induction agent and a neuromuscular blocking agent to facilitate intubation quickly and minimize the risk of aspiration. It is important to secure the airway promptly to ensure the safety of both the mother and the unborn offspring.

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About This Quiz
Principles Of Obstetric Anesthesia Quiz - Quiz

Dive into the intricate world of obstetric anesthesia with our engaging quiz designed for medical professionals seeking to enhance their knowledge and expertise. This quiz meticulously covers the... see moreprinciples of obstetric anesthesia, from understanding the physiological changes during pregnancy to mastering the nuances of pain management during labor and delivery.

Whether you're a seasoned anesthesiologist, an obstetrician, or a medical student eager to deepen your understanding, this quiz offers a comprehensive assessment of essential concepts and practices. Explore scenarios that mirror real-life obstetric situations, testing your ability to make critical decisions for the well-being of both the mother and the newborn.

Elevate your proficiency in obstetric anesthesia by taking this quiz, where each question is crafted to enhance your skills and contribute to safe and effective care in obstetrics. see less

2. All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full stomachs regardless of how long they have been NPO.  

Explanation

In obstetric patients undergoing a cesarean section, it is considered that they have full stomachs regardless of the duration of fasting. This is because pregnancy can delay gastric emptying and increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia induction. Therefore, it is important to assume that these patients have full stomachs and take appropriate precautions to minimize the risk of aspiration during the procedure.

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3. The incidence of maternal aspiration is higher for emergent c-sections. 

Explanation

The statement is true because emergent c-sections are performed in urgent situations where there is a higher risk to the mother and baby. This urgency can lead to complications during the procedure, including the risk of aspiration. Aspiration refers to inhaling or aspirating foreign matter into the lungs, which can be dangerous for the mother. Therefore, the incidence of maternal aspiration is indeed higher for emergent c-sections compared to planned c-sections or vaginal deliveries.

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4. If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most concerned with saving the life of the…

Explanation

As an anesthetist, your primary concern should be the well-being and safety of the patient. In this case, the patient is the mother. If intubation fails, it can lead to serious complications and potentially endanger the mother's life. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize saving the life of the mother in such a situation. The fetus is also important, but the mother's life takes precedence in this scenario.

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5. What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?

Explanation

Regional anesthesia is the preferred anesthetic method for obstetric patients because it provides effective pain relief during labor and delivery while minimizing the risks associated with general anesthesia. Regional anesthesia techniques, such as epidural or spinal anesthesia, can be tailored to the individual patient's needs and provide targeted pain relief without affecting the baby's well-being. This method allows the mother to remain awake and actively participate in the birthing process while reducing the risk of complications and side effects compared to general anesthesia or MAC sedation.

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6. Which of the following is not a good candidate for Spinal anesthesia?

Explanation

A patient with aortic stenosis is not a good candidate for spinal anesthesia because it can cause a sudden decrease in blood pressure, which may be poorly tolerated by the patient. Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve is narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. Spinal anesthesia can cause vasodilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, which can further compromise blood flow in patients with aortic stenosis. Therefore, it is safer to avoid spinal anesthesia in these patients.

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7. The presence of the placenta in the cervical opening is known as what?

Explanation

Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, the opening to the uterus. This can cause bleeding during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester. It is important to diagnose and manage placenta previa as it can lead to complications such as preterm labor and delivery.

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8. How will pregnancy affect the MAC of anesthetics?

Explanation

During pregnancy, there are physiological changes that can affect the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of anesthetics. These changes include an increase in blood volume, cardiac output, and hormonal levels. As a result, pregnant women may require lower concentrations of anesthetics to achieve the same level of anesthesia, leading to a decrease in MAC. This is important for determining the appropriate dosage of anesthetics during pregnancy to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the fetus.

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9. How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general anesthesia?

Explanation

Awake extubation is the correct answer because it is the recommended method for extubating pregnant patients upon emergence from general anesthesia. This approach allows for a smoother transition from being under anesthesia to being fully awake, minimizing the risk of complications. It also allows for immediate assessment of the patient's airway and breathing, ensuring their safety during the extubation process.

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10. The hallmark sign of post dural puncture headache is a headache that is relieved by what position?

Explanation

Post dural puncture headache is a type of headache that occurs after a procedure involving the puncture of the dura mater, which is the membrane surrounding the spinal cord. This type of headache is typically relieved by laying flat. The reason for this is that when a person is in an upright position, the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks out of the puncture site, causing a decrease in CSF pressure around the brain and spinal cord. This decrease in pressure leads to the characteristic headache. By laying flat, the CSF pressure is restored, relieving the headache.

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11. In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…

Explanation

In an obese patient in labor, it is important to make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic. This is because regional anesthesia, such as epidural or spinal anesthesia, provides effective pain relief during labor and delivery. It can also help avoid the need for general anesthesia, which carries more risks in obese patients. Additionally, early initiation of regional anesthesia allows for better pain control and improves the overall experience for the patient.

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12. Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations of pregnant pts?

Explanation

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13. Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for Post dural Puncture headache?

Explanation

Maintaining the patient in an upright position and on bedrest is not an appropriate treatment for Post dural Puncture headache. This position can actually worsen the headache and prolong the recovery time. The recommended treatment options for Post dural Puncture headache include a Blood Patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the site of the dural puncture to seal the hole and relieve the headache. Oral/IV hydration is also recommended to ensure adequate fluid intake and IV caffeine may be used to alleviate the headache symptoms.

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14. What would be the muscle relaxant of choice for induction of a pregnant pt?

Explanation

Succinylcholine is the muscle relaxant of choice for induction of a pregnant patient because it has a rapid onset and short duration of action. This allows for quick intubation and ventilation during induction while minimizing the risk of prolonged paralysis. Additionally, succinylcholine does not cross the placenta, reducing the potential for fetal exposure and adverse effects.

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15. Which of the following patients is an Absolute contraindication to spinal anesthesia?

Explanation

Mrs. A with severe mitral stenosis is an absolute contraindication to spinal anesthesia. Mitral stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the mitral valve, which can lead to impaired blood flow and increased pressure in the left atrium. Spinal anesthesia can cause a sudden decrease in systemic vascular resistance and venous return, which can further compromise cardiac function in patients with mitral stenosis. Therefore, it is not safe to administer spinal anesthesia to Mrs. A.

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16. Which of the following is not a cause of antepartum hemorrhage?

Explanation

Amniotic Fluid Embolism is not a cause of antepartum hemorrhage. Antepartum hemorrhage refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 20 weeks of gestation but before the birth of the baby. The common causes of antepartum hemorrhage include Placenta Previa, Uterine Rupture, and Abruptio Placentae. Amniotic Fluid Embolism, on the other hand, is a rare and life-threatening condition where amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation, leading to an allergic reaction and respiratory distress. It is not directly related to bleeding from the genital tract.

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17. During vaginal delivery of the baby, pain is somatic in origin and mainly derived from nerve fibers originating where?

Explanation

During vaginal delivery, the pain is somatic in origin and mainly derived from nerve fibers originating from the sacral spinal segments S1-S4. These segments innervate the perineum, vagina, and lower part of the uterus, which are involved in the birthing process. The pain experienced during delivery is transmitted through these nerve fibers, leading to the somatic pain perception in the mother.

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18. HELLP Syndrome may be characterized by all of the following except..

Explanation

HELLP syndrome is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. It is often associated with preeclampsia and can lead to various complications. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not typically a characteristic of HELLP syndrome. Instead, hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly seen in this condition.

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19. Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients?

Explanation

Increased intragastric pressure, lower esophageal sphincter tone, and delayed gastric emptying all contribute to an increased risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients. Aspiration occurs when stomach contents enter the lungs, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Increased intragastric pressure can occur due to the growing uterus putting pressure on the stomach, lower esophageal sphincter tone may be reduced due to hormonal changes during pregnancy, and delayed gastric emptying is common in pregnant patients. These factors combined increase the likelihood of stomach contents refluxing into the lungs during anesthesia.

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20. Which of the following is not true of respiratory changes during pregnancy?

Explanation

During pregnancy, there are several respiratory changes that occur. The O2 dissociation curve shifts to the right, which means that oxygen is more readily released to the tissues. There is a decrease in functional residual capacity (FRC), which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation. Respiratory alkalosis may be normal due to an increase in minute ventilation. However, there is no evidence to suggest that patients will need larger endotracheal tubes (ETT) during pregnancy.

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21. What is the optimal surgical position for a pt undergoing c-section to prevent hypotension?

Explanation

The optimal surgical position for a patient undergoing a c-section to prevent hypotension is supine and slightly lateral. This position helps to improve blood flow to the uterus and prevent compression of the inferior vena cava, which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure. The supine position allows for easy access to the abdomen for the surgical team, while the slight lateral tilt helps to alleviate pressure on the vena cava. This position is commonly used during c-sections to maintain hemodynamic stability and prevent hypotension.

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22. When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, we are concerned with all of the following except….

Explanation

When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, it is important to consider all of the following except maintaining deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation during procedures. This is because deep maternal sedation and fetal relaxation can pose risks to the fetus, such as compromising fetal oxygenation and increasing the risk of fetal distress. Therefore, it is important to prioritize other factors such as prevention of preterm labor, avoidance of teratogenic medications, and maintaining optimal uteroplacental perfusion to ensure fetal safety during anesthesia.

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23. A pregnant pt with pre-eclampsia would most likely be placed on which of the following drips?

Explanation

A pregnant patient with pre-eclampsia would most likely be placed on Magnesium Sulfate drip. Magnesium Sulfate is commonly used in the management of pre-eclampsia to prevent seizures (eclampsia) and to lower blood pressure. It acts as a smooth muscle relaxant, helping to relax the blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. Additionally, it has neuroprotective effects on the fetus. Labetolol is another option for blood pressure control in pre-eclampsia, but Magnesium Sulfate is specifically used for its seizure prevention properties. Hydralazine and Sodium Nitroprusside are not typically used in the management of pre-eclampsia.

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24. COMIC RELIEF: Shamelessly stolen from those watching it in class last week. :-)


Explanation

The given answer "All the above" is correct because all the statements mentioned - "AAaggghh!! Scary!!!!", "Butterface!", and "You know, for a dude he is pretty hot..." - are examples of comic relief. Comic relief refers to the inclusion of humorous elements or moments in a serious or intense situation to provide a temporary break from tension or to lighten the mood. In this case, all the statements are meant to be funny and provide comic relief.

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25. Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?

Explanation

A failed regional block refers to the inability to achieve adequate anesthesia or pain relief during labor and delivery through the use of regional anesthesia techniques such as epidural or spinal anesthesia. This is not an indication for cesarean section because it can be managed by alternative methods or by adjusting the anesthesia technique. Cesarean section is typically indicated for fetal distress, dystocia (difficult labor), and cephalopelvic disproportion (baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis).

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26. Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?

Explanation

Versed is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy because it belongs to a class of medications called benzodiazepines, which can potentially harm the developing fetus. Benzodiazepines have been associated with an increased risk of birth defects, particularly when taken during the first trimester of pregnancy. Therefore, it is generally recommended to avoid using Versed or any other benzodiazepines during pregnancy unless the potential benefits outweigh the risks.

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27. What would be the preferred anesthetic technique for a pt undergoing c-section who has a past history of aortic stenosis?

Explanation

For a patient with a past history of aortic stenosis undergoing a c-section, the preferred anesthetic technique would be general anesthesia. General anesthesia provides complete unconsciousness and muscle relaxation, allowing for optimal surgical conditions and control of the patient's airway. It also allows for close monitoring of the patient's hemodynamics, which is crucial in a patient with aortic stenosis. Regional anesthesia may not be suitable in this case due to the risk of hemodynamic instability and the potential for worsening of the aortic stenosis.

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28. For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a sensory blockade at what level?

Explanation

During a cesarean section with an epidural in place, the goal is to achieve a sensory blockade at the T4 level. This means that the anesthesia should numb the nerves at the fourth thoracic vertebrae level, providing pain relief and allowing the surgery to be performed without discomfort for the patient. Achieving a sensory blockade at T4 ensures that the necessary area for the surgery is adequately numbed, providing optimal conditions for a successful procedure.

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29. You are caring for Mrs. Berri who is fully dilated and about to deliver her baby. She has a past history of gestational diabetes, and 2 prior deliveries. Her first child delivered vaginally and her second child born via c-section.  As Mrs. Berri is pushing she suddenly screams and start to complain of a very severe pain. She says ‘something’s wrong’ and that it doesn’t feel like labor pain.  You look at the FHR monitor and notice the baby’s HR going down. What is happening?

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is uterine rupture. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication during childbirth where the uterine wall tears. This can lead to severe pain for the mother and can also cause distress for the baby, as indicated by the decrease in fetal heart rate on the monitor. Given Mrs. Berri's history of a prior vaginal delivery and a prior c-section, she may be at higher risk for uterine rupture. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to address this emergency situation and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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30. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate to manage an obstetric pt who has just aspirated?

Explanation

In the case of an obstetric patient who has just aspirated, all of the listed interventions would be appropriate. Administration of steroids may help reduce inflammation and prevent further complications. Administration of antibiotics can help prevent or treat any potential infection that may arise from the aspiration. Suctioning can be used to remove any aspirated material from the airway and improve breathing. Therefore, all of these interventions can play a role in managing the patient's condition effectively.

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31. Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?

Explanation

Precipitous labor is not an indication for general anesthesia because it refers to a very rapid labor and delivery process, typically lasting less than 3 hours. In such cases, there is usually not enough time to administer general anesthesia safely and effectively. General anesthesia requires time for preparation, induction, and recovery, which may not be feasible in the context of precipitous labor. Therefore, other methods of pain management or local anesthesia are typically used in these situations.

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32. Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts undergoing general anesthesia?

Explanation

Bicitra is commonly given to pregnant patients undergoing general anesthesia as a nonparticulate antacid. It helps to neutralize stomach acid and reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Bicitra contains citric acid and sodium citrate, which work together to increase the pH level in the stomach and provide relief from heartburn and indigestion. Its nonparticulate nature makes it a safe choice for pregnant patients, as it does not pose a risk of causing harm to the fetus.

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33. During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not considered to be at an increased aspiration risk.

Explanation

During the first and second trimesters of pregnancy, the pregnant individuals are considered to be at an increased risk of aspiration. This is because the growing uterus can put pressure on the stomach, causing the stomach contents to be pushed up into the esophagus. This can increase the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration during anesthesia or surgery. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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34. How far should your epidural catheter be inserted?

Explanation

The epidural catheter should be inserted 3-5 cm into the patient. This is the recommended depth for proper placement and effectiveness of the epidural anesthesia. Inserting the catheter too shallow (1-2 cm) may not provide adequate pain relief, while inserting it too deep (5-10 cm) can lead to complications such as dural puncture or nerve damage. The sensation of an 'electric shock' is not a reliable indicator for the correct depth of insertion, and should not be used as a guide.

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35. How much volume would you inject for a blood patch to treat PDPH?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-20 cc's. When performing a blood patch to treat post-dural puncture headache (PDPH), a volume of 10-20 cc's is typically injected. The specific volume may vary depending on the size of the patient and the severity of the headache. However, in general, a range of 10-20 cc's is commonly used for this procedure.

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36. Preterm labor is defined as any active labor occurring between ___ and ____ weeks gestation.

Explanation

Preterm labor is defined as any active labor occurring between 20 and 37 weeks gestation. This means that if a woman goes into labor before reaching 20 weeks, it is considered preterm labor. Similarly, if she goes into labor after 37 weeks, it is considered full term labor. This definition helps healthcare providers determine the appropriate management and care for pregnant women who experience preterm labor.

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37. You are now going in for an emergent c-section for Mrs. Gudro, no time to an epidural you must do GA. Mrs. Gudro had premature rupture of membrane at 28 weeks and has been on a Magnesium drip to stop contractions. How will this affect you anesthetic technique?

Explanation

The administration of magnesium drip to stop contractions can prolong the duration of action of muscle relaxants. Magnesium is a known antagonist of neuromuscular transmission and can interfere with the normal functioning of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This can result in a prolonged effect of muscle relaxants, making it necessary to carefully monitor and adjust the dosage of these medications during the anesthetic procedure.

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38. During the first stage of labor, the pain felt is visceral in origin and derived from nerve fibers originating where?

Explanation

During the first stage of labor, the pain felt is visceral in origin and derived from nerve fibers originating from the T10-L1 spinal segments. These segments innervate the uterus and cervix, which are the main areas involved in the first stage of labor. The pain is transmitted through these nerve fibers to the brain, causing the sensation of pain.

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39. What happens to coagulation factors during pregnancy?

Explanation

During pregnancy, there is an increase in plasma concentration of coagulation factors. This is because the body prepares for potential bleeding during childbirth by increasing the levels of clotting factors. This helps to prevent excessive bleeding and ensures proper blood clot formation.

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40. Which of the following will not cross the placenta?

Explanation

Glycopyrolate will not cross the placenta because it is a quaternary ammonium compound that is highly charged and polar. These properties make it difficult for the drug to pass through the placental barrier, which is selectively permeable. In contrast, Fentanyl, Ephedrine, and Metaclopromide are all able to cross the placenta due to their smaller size and lipophilic properties.

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41. The fetus is most sensitive to drugs during which trimester?

Explanation

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the fetus is most sensitive to drugs. This is because during this period, the major organs and systems of the fetus are developing rapidly. Exposure to drugs or other substances during this time can potentially cause significant harm to the developing fetus, leading to birth defects or other complications. It is important for pregnant women to be cautious about taking any medications or substances during the first trimester to minimize the risk to the fetus.

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42. Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant patients except?

Explanation

Aspiration is more likely to occur in pregnant patients who have certain risk factors such as emergent c-section, eclampsia, and difficult intubation. However, being overdue by 2 weeks does not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Therefore, the patient who is overdue by 2 weeks is less likely to experience aspiration compared to the other three patients mentioned.

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43. When does organogenesis occur?

Explanation

Organogenesis is the process of organ formation in a developing embryo. It occurs during the first two months of pregnancy, when the major organs and body systems begin to form. This is a critical period for the development of the embryo, as any disruptions or abnormalities during this time can have long-lasting effects on the health and well-being of the individual. After the first two months, the organs continue to grow and mature, but the basic structures have already been established.

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44. What is the leading cause of maternal death under general anesthesia?

Explanation

Aspiration is the leading cause of maternal death under general anesthesia. This occurs when stomach contents, such as vomit or gastric juices, are inhaled into the lungs. It can lead to severe respiratory complications, including aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Proper airway management and precautions are essential during anesthesia to prevent aspiration and ensure the safety of the mother.

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45. You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective C-section today. She has refused epidural anesthesia, so will have to undergo general anesthesia today. You begin a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate. You able to ventilate the pt with cricioid pressure, but can’t seem to get a tube in. What do you do?

Explanation

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46. At what point during labor is an epidural usually performed?

Explanation

During labor, an epidural is usually performed when the patient is 3-4 cm dilated. This is because at this stage, the cervix has started to dilate significantly, indicating that labor is progressing and the patient may be experiencing increasing discomfort. Administering the epidural at this point allows for pain relief to be provided in a timely manner, ensuring the patient's comfort throughout the rest of the labor process.

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47. What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcome in obstetric anesthesia?

Explanation

Respiratory events are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcomes in obstetric anesthesia. This can include events such as airway obstruction, inadequate ventilation, or respiratory depression. These events can be caused by various factors, including the administration of anesthesia medications, pre-existing respiratory conditions in the patient, or complications during labor and delivery. Prompt recognition and management of respiratory events are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

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48. Succinylcholine will normally last longer during pregnancy.

Explanation

During pregnancy, the metabolism of succinylcholine is altered, resulting in a prolonged duration of action. This is because pregnancy causes an increase in plasma cholinesterase levels, which is the enzyme responsible for metabolizing succinylcholine. As a result, the drug is cleared from the body at a slower rate, leading to a longer duration of action. Therefore, it is true that succinylcholine will normally last longer during pregnancy.

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49. Which of the following is not true of CV changes that occur during pregnancy?

Explanation

Largest increase in CO is immediately following delivery.

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50. Success in outcome of pregnancy following surgery is determined by all of the following except…

Explanation

The success of the outcome of pregnancy following surgery is determined by various factors such as maternal well-being, timing of surgery, and choice of anesthetic agents. However, maternal age is not a determining factor in the success of the outcome. While advanced maternal age may increase the risk of certain complications during pregnancy, it does not directly impact the success of the outcome following surgery.

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51. Uterine Blood flow is autoregulated. 

Explanation

Uterine blood flow is not autoregulated. Autoregulation refers to the ability of an organ or tissue to maintain a constant blood flow despite changes in perfusion pressure. In the case of the uterus, its blood flow is not autoregulated and can vary depending on factors such as hormonal changes, uterine contractions, and placental blood flow. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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52. Which of the following fetal shunts directs blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava?

Explanation

The correct answer is Ductus Venosus. The Ductus Venosus is a fetal shunt that directs blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. It allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver and flow directly into the systemic circulation. This helps to ensure that the developing fetus receives a sufficient oxygen supply. The other options listed are not involved in this specific blood flow pathway.

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53. Which of the following scenarios would indicate fetal distress?

Explanation

Fetal deceleration that occurs 30 seconds after the onset of uterine contractions would indicate fetal distress. This suggests that the baby is experiencing a decrease in heart rate shortly after the start of a contraction, which may be a sign of inadequate oxygen supply or other complications. It is important to monitor these decelerations closely and take appropriate medical action to ensure the well-being of the fetus.

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54. You are the SRNA for Ms. Tiyarah who is coming down for an emergent c-section due to fetal distress. She does not have an epidural, so must undergo general anesthesia since there is no time to insert one. You do a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate the pt. You are able to maintain ventilation with cricoids pressure but can’t get a tube in. What do you do?

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is to maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery. This is because the patient is in an emergent situation and there is no time to try other methods of intubation. The priority is to ensure that the patient is able to receive oxygen and maintain ventilation during the surgery. Cricoid pressure helps to prevent aspiration of gastric contents while maintaining ventilation. Although other options such as retrograde intubation, transtracheal jet ventilation, or awake fiberoptic intubation may be considered in different circumstances, they are not suitable in this urgent situation.

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55. Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are necessary to establish what?

Explanation

Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are necessary to establish Medical Malpractice. In order to prove medical malpractice, it must be shown that there was a duty of care owed by the healthcare professional to the patient, a breach of that duty occurred, an injury or harm was suffered by the patient, and that the breach of duty was the proximate cause of the injury. These elements are essential in establishing a case of medical malpractice.

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56. Spinal and Epidural anesthesia are known to decrease uterine blood flow.

Explanation

Spinal and Epidural anesthesia do not decrease uterine blood flow. In fact, they have been found to have minimal effects on uterine blood flow. These types of anesthesia primarily affect sensory and motor nerve function, allowing for pain relief during childbirth. They are commonly used during labor and delivery and have been shown to be safe for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, the statement that spinal and epidural anesthesia decrease uterine blood flow is false.

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57. Which of the following could not be safely given to prevent aspiration in a pregnant pt?

Explanation

Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is an antipsychotic medication that is commonly used to treat severe nausea and vomiting. However, it is not recommended to be given to pregnant patients to prevent aspiration. This is because Compazine has been associated with potential risks to the developing fetus, including the possibility of birth defects. Therefore, alternative medications should be considered for pregnant patients to prevent aspiration.

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58. Which of the following will not help to decrease the incidence of PDPH?

Explanation

Placing the patient in a lateral position during the administration of an epidural will not help decrease the incidence of PDPH (post-dural puncture headache). PDPH is a common complication of epidural anesthesia, and it is caused by leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the dural puncture site. Placing the patient in a lateral position does not affect the risk of dural puncture or CSF leakage, and therefore, it will not help decrease the incidence of PDPH. Other measures such as using a rounded point needle, a smaller gauge needle, or orienting the needle parallel to the meningeal fibers can help decrease the risk of dural puncture and subsequent PDPH.

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59. Umbilical cord prolapse may be evidenced by..

Explanation

Late fetal decelerations are a sign of umbilical cord prolapse. Late decelerations occur when there is a decrease in the fetal heart rate that is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. This can happen when the umbilical cord becomes compressed or prolapses, leading to a decrease in blood flow to the fetus. Therefore, the presence of late fetal decelerations indicates a potential umbilical cord prolapse.

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60. Minimum NPO status for an elective C-section is ____ hours.

Explanation

The minimum NPO (nothing by mouth) status for an elective C-section is 6 hours. This means that the patient should not consume any food or drink for at least 6 hours prior to the surgery. This is important to prevent aspiration of stomach contents during the procedure, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Following the NPO guidelines helps ensure the safety of the patient during the surgery.

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61. You are performing an epidural on a patient in labor. As you begin to administer your test dose you see pts heart rate go up. She is now breathing deeply and rubbing her stomach. Is it OK to proceed?

Explanation

The patient's increased heart rate, deep breathing, and rubbing of the stomach are indicative of a contraction during labor. This is a normal physiological response and not a sign of an adverse reaction to the epidural. It is recommended to wait a few minutes and observe the patient's condition before proceeding with the administration of the epidural.

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62. Which of the following is not true regarding GI changes during pregnancy?

Explanation

During pregnancy, there are several changes that occur in the gastrointestinal (GI) system. One of these changes is an increase in gastric fluid volume, which is true. Another change is an increase in insulin secretion, which is also true. Additionally, the tone of the gastroesophageal sphincter decreases during pregnancy, which is true as well. However, it is not true that gastric pH increases during pregnancy. In fact, gastric pH tends to decrease due to increased production of gastric acid.

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63. You are caring for Mrs. Lincinia who is in active labor. While looking at the fetal HR tracing you notice fetal HR decelerations. There doesn’t appear to be any pattern in regards to onset, in fact most seem to be short and vary in the magnitude.  However, when it does occur the descents in fetal HR are steep. Is this baby in distress?

Explanation

The given scenario describes fetal HR decelerations that are short, vary in magnitude, and do not follow a specific pattern. However, the descents in fetal HR are steep when they occur. This suggests that the baby is not in distress, but rather the decelerations may be caused by changes in the baby's position. By changing the mother's position and ensuring that the decelerations do not become prolonged, the healthcare provider can help alleviate the decelerations and ensure the well-being of the baby. Therefore, preparing for a c-section or assuming that the mother is fully dilated and ready to push would not be appropriate in this situation.

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64. You are doing general anesthesia on Mrs. Maritt who is having a lap chole today. She is also 7 months pregnant and morbidly obese. Which of the following would not be an airway consideration with this patient?

Explanation

During general anesthesia, the position of the patient's larynx becomes more anterior. This is due to the relaxation of the muscles in the neck and throat. In the case of Mrs. Maritt, who is 7 months pregnant and morbidly obese, this change in the position of the larynx may not be a significant airway consideration. The other options, such as limited flexion, narrowed view of the pharyngeal opening, and limited mouth opening, are all potential airway considerations that need to be taken into account when managing the airway of a patient in this condition.

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65. What would be your preferred anesthetic method for a pt undergoing c-section who has a past history of mitral valve regurge?

Explanation

The preferred anesthetic method for a patient undergoing a c-section with a past history of mitral valve regurgitation would be regional anesthesia. Regional anesthesia involves numbing a specific region of the body, such as the lower half, while allowing the patient to remain conscious. This method is preferred because it avoids the potential risks and complications associated with general anesthesia, which involves putting the patient to sleep. Regional anesthesia provides effective pain relief and allows for better hemodynamic stability, which is crucial for patients with mitral valve regurgitation.

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66. Why must nitrous oxide be avoided during pregnancy?

Explanation

Nitrous oxide should be avoided during pregnancy because it interferes with folic acid metabolism, which is essential for DNA synthesis. Folic acid is crucial for the development of the neural tube in the fetus, and any disruption in its metabolism can lead to birth defects and other complications. Therefore, it is important to avoid nitrous oxide during pregnancy to ensure proper fetal development.

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67. You are giving a test dose of lido with epi to a patient receiving an epidural. Within 3 minutes of injection the pt complains of numbness in their lower extremities. Is it OK to proceed with the injection?

Explanation

The patient complaining of numbness in their lower extremities within 3 minutes of injection is a sign of accidental dural puncture. This means that the needle has punctured the dura, the protective covering of the spinal cord, allowing the local anesthetic to spread to the surrounding nerves and causing numbness. In this case, it is necessary to adjust the dose because the intended effect of the epidural has been achieved too quickly and may result in excessive numbness or other complications.

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68. What is age of viability for a Fetus?

Explanation

The age of viability for a fetus refers to the gestational age at which the fetus has the potential to survive outside of the womb. In this case, the correct answer is 24 weeks. At this stage, the fetus has developed enough that it has a chance of survival with medical intervention, although it is still considered premature. It is important to note that the age of viability can vary depending on various factors such as the health of the mother and the development of the fetus.

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69. Which of the following coagulation factors will not increase during pregnancy?

Explanation

During pregnancy, the levels of most coagulation factors increase due to the increased demands of the growing fetus and the changes in the maternal physiology. However, Factor XI does not increase during pregnancy. Factor XI is primarily synthesized in the liver, and its levels remain relatively stable throughout pregnancy. This is because Factor XI is not directly involved in the coagulation cascade but rather plays a role in amplifying the coagulation process. Therefore, the levels of Factor XI do not need to increase during pregnancy.

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70. Morbid Obesity is defined as any BMI greater than what?

Explanation

Morbid obesity is defined as having a body mass index (BMI) greater than 35. BMI is a measure of body fat based on an individual's weight and height. A BMI of 35 or higher indicates a significantly increased risk of obesity-related health problems and is considered a severe form of obesity. Therefore, a BMI greater than 35 is the threshold for defining morbid obesity.

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71. What is the cure for Pregnancy induced Hypertension?

Explanation

The cure for Pregnancy induced Hypertension can be either inducing labor and vaginal delivery or C-section delivery of the baby. Both methods can be effective in managing and resolving the condition. The choice between the two options may depend on various factors such as the severity of hypertension, the health of the mother and baby, and the recommendations of the healthcare provider.

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72. What percentage of cardiac output goes to the uterus?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10%. During pregnancy, the uterus requires a significant amount of blood supply to support the growing fetus. The uterine arteries, which branch off from the main arteries in the body, supply blood directly to the uterus. These arteries receive approximately 10% of the total cardiac output, ensuring an adequate blood supply to the uterus and the developing baby. This allows for proper oxygen and nutrient delivery to support the growth and development of the fetus.

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73. You are giving an epidural to a pt up on the OB floor. As you insert the catheter the patient complains of feeling an electric shock sensation. What do you do?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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74. Primary dysfunctional labor occurs when the patient is completely effaced but not dilated and has been laboring for more than _____ hours.

Explanation

Primary dysfunctional labor occurs when the patient is completely effaced but not dilated and has been laboring for more than 20 hours. This means that the cervix has thinned out completely, but there has been no significant progress in the opening of the cervix. This can be a sign of a prolonged labor, which may require medical intervention to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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Which of the following describes the proper intubation technique for a...
All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full...
The incidence of maternal aspiration is higher for emergent...
If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most...
What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?
Which of the following is not a good candidate for Spinal anesthesia?
The presence of the placenta in the cervical opening is known as what?
How will pregnancy affect the MAC of anesthetics?
How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general...
The hallmark sign of post dural puncture headache is a headache that...
In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…
Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations...
Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for Post dural...
What would be the muscle relaxant of choice for induction of a...
Which of the following patients is an Absolute contraindication to...
Which of the following is not a cause of antepartum hemorrhage?
During vaginal delivery of the baby, pain is somatic in origin and...
HELLP Syndrome may be characterized by all of the following except..
Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of...
Which of the following is not true of respiratory changes during...
What is the optimal surgical position for a pt undergoing c-section to...
When attempting to maintain fetal safety during anesthesia, we are...
A pregnant pt with pre-eclampsia would most likely be placed on which...
COMIC RELIEF: Shamelessly stolen from those watching it in class last...
Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?
Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?
What would be the preferred anesthetic technique for a pt undergoing...
For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a...
You are caring for Mrs. Berri who is fully dilated and about to...
Which of the following interventions would be appropriate to manage an...
Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?
Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts...
During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not...
How far should your epidural catheter be inserted?
How much volume would you inject for a blood patch to treat PDPH?
Preterm labor is defined as any active labor occurring between ___ and...
You are now going in for an emergent c-section for Mrs. Gudro, no time...
During the first stage of labor, the pain felt is visceral in origin...
What happens to coagulation factors during pregnancy?
Which of the following will not cross the placenta?
The fetus is most sensitive to drugs during which trimester?
Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant...
When does organogenesis occur?
What is the leading cause of maternal death under general anesthesia?
You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective...
At what point during labor is an epidural usually performed?
What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse...
Succinylcholine will normally last longer during pregnancy.
Which of the following is not true of CV changes that occur during...
Success in outcome of pregnancy following surgery is determined by all...
Uterine Blood flow is autoregulated. 
Which of the following fetal shunts directs blood from the umbilical...
Which of the following scenarios would indicate fetal distress?
You are the SRNA for Ms. Tiyarah who is coming down for an emergent...
Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are...
Spinal and Epidural anesthesia are known to decrease uterine blood...
Which of the following could not be safely given to prevent aspiration...
Which of the following will not help to decrease the incidence of...
Umbilical cord prolapse may be evidenced by..
Minimum NPO status for an elective C-section is ____ hours.
You are performing an epidural on a patient in labor. As you begin to...
Which of the following is not true regarding GI changes during...
You are caring for Mrs. Lincinia who is in active labor. While looking...
You are doing general anesthesia on Mrs. Maritt who is having a lap...
What would be your preferred anesthetic method for a pt undergoing...
Why must nitrous oxide be avoided during pregnancy?
You are giving a test dose of lido with epi to a patient receiving an...
What is age of viability for a Fetus?
Which of the following coagulation factors will not increase during...
Morbid Obesity is defined as any BMI greater than what?
What is the cure for Pregnancy induced Hypertension?
What percentage of cardiac output goes to the uterus?
You are giving an epidural to a pt up on the OB floor. As you insert...
Primary dysfunctional labor occurs when the patient is completely...
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