A Practice Test On Cardiology! Trivia Quiz

44 Questions | Attempts: 112
Share

SettingsSettingsSettings
A Practice Test On Cardiology! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

The heart is the driving force in the body, and any issues affecting normal operations of the heart often threats a person’s life. The most preferred way to check how the heart is performing is by visiting a cardiologist. Take this trivia quiz and get to see how wide your cardiology knowledge is and your understanding of the common disorders.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the likely mechanism for the respiratory problems associated with carvedilol?

    • A.

      Blockade of apha 1 receptors in bronchi

    • B.

      Blockade of beta 1 receptors in bronchi

    • C.

      Degranulation of mast cells in bronchial tree

    • D.

      Blockade of beta 2 receptors in bronchi

    • E.

      Inhibition of phosphodiesterase in bronchial smooth muscle cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Blockade of beta 2 receptors in bronchi
  • 2. 

    Which of the following would suggest a predominantly right ventricular failure?

    • A.

      Basal crepitations

    • B.

      Apex beat palpable in mid axillary line

    • C.

      Orthopnoea

    • D.

      Tall R waves on ECG leads V4-V6

    • E.

      Raised JVP

    Correct Answer
    E. Raised JVP
  • 3. 

    When attempting to listen to a prosthetic mitral valve, where is the most appropriate site for auscultation?

    • A.

      2nd intercostal space left sternal edge

    • B.

      4th intercostal space left sternal edge

    • C.

      2nd intercostal space right sternal edge

    • D.

      5th intercostal space on left midclavicular line

    • E.

      3rd intercostal space on left midclavicular line

    Correct Answer
    D. 5th intercostal space on left midclavicular line
  • 4. 

    Which clinical signs would lead you to a diagnosis of aortic stenosis?

    • A.

      Pulsus paradoxus, raised JVP on inspiration, muffled heart sounds

    • B.

      A loud S1, mid diastolic murmur loudest at apex beat on expiration lying on the left hand side

    • C.

      Displaced volume-overloaded apex, soft S1, pansystolic murmur at apex radiating to axilla

    • D.

      Collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, diastolic murmur

    • E.

      Plateau pulse, narrow pulse pressure, heaving apex beat, systolic ejection murmur, 4th heart sound

    Correct Answer
    E. Plateau pulse, narrow pulse pressure, heaving apex beat, systolic ejection murmur, 4th heart sound
  • 5. 

    A patient complains that since he has been on atenolol he has noticed coldness in his feet and pain in his right calf after walking about 1/2 mile. What physiological mechanism is likely to be causing his symptoms?

    • A.

      Blockade of beta 1 receptors

    • B.

      Blockade of beta 3 receptors

    • C.

      Blockade of alpha 1 receptors

    • D.

      Blockade of alpha 2 receptors

    • E.

      Blockade of beta 2 receptors

    Correct Answer
    E. Blockade of beta 2 receptors
  • 6. 

    In an ECG, what do large P waves indicate?

    Correct Answer
    atrial enlargement
  • 7. 

    In an ECG, what do enlarged Q waves indicate?

    Correct Answer
    myocardial infarction
  • 8. 

    In an ECG, what do enlarged R waves indicate?

    Correct Answer
    enlarged ventricles
  • 9. 

    In an ECG, what do flattened T waves indicate?

    Correct Answer
    heart muscle not receiving sufficient O2
  • 10. 

    A stenotic valve murmur would produce a murmur that sounded like what?

    Correct Answer
    whistling
  • 11. 

    A regurgitant valve murmur would produce a murmur that sounded like what?

    Correct Answer
    swishing
    gurgling
  • 12. 

    Mitral and tricuspid stenosis would produce a murmur during which heart phase? Mitral and tricuspid regurgitation would produce a murmur during which heart phase? Aortic and pulmonary stenosis would produce a murmur during which heart phase? Aortic and pulmonary regurgitation would produce a murmur during which heart phase?

    Correct Answer
    diastole, systole, systole, diastole
  • 13. 

    What are the side-effects of ACE inhibitors?

    Correct Answer
    renal impairment, mild dry cough, taste disturbance, rash
  • 14. 

    How do ACE inhibitors work?

    Correct Answer
    prevent vasoconstriction
  • 15. 

    How do beta blockers work?

    Correct Answer
    slow heart rate and decrease force of cardiac contractions
  • 16. 

    What are the possible side effects of beta-blockers?

    Correct Answer
    bradychardia, cold extremities, fatigue, can worsen heart failure
  • 17. 

    Are calcium channel blockers a positive or a negative inotrope? Therefore, what do they do to heart contractility?

    Correct Answer
    negative. decrease
  • 18. 

    How do calcium channel blockers reduce blood pressure?

    Correct Answer
    cause arteriolar dilation, decrease force of cardiac contraction
  • 19. 

    What are the 5 potential side effects of calcium channel blockers?

    Correct Answer
    headache, sweating, peripheral oedema, palpitations, flushing
  • 20. 

    A 53-year-old white gentleman is diagnosed with chronic hypertension. He has no known history of MI. What are the 1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment options?

    Correct Answer
    ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitor plus calcium channel blocker or diuretic. ACE inhibitor plus calcium channel blocker plus diuretic
  • 21. 

    A 73-year-old white gentleman is diagnosed with chronic hypertension. He has no known history of MI. What are the 1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment options?

    Correct Answer
    calcium channel blocker or diuretic. ACE inhibitor plus calcium channel blocker or diuretic. ACE inhibitor plus calcium channel blocker plus diuretic
  • 22. 

    A 47-year-old black gentleman is diagnosed with chronic hypertension. He has a past medical history of MI. What are the 1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment options?

    Correct Answer
    calcium channel blocker or diuretic. beta blocker plus calcium channel blocker or diuretic. beta blocker plus calcium channel blocker plus diuretic
  • 23. 

    Which clinical signs would lead you to a diagnosis of left ventricular failure?

    • A.

      Peripheral oedema and raised JVP

    • B.

      Tapping apex beat, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur at apex

    • C.

      Pulsu paradoxus, inaudible/distant heart sounds, distention of neck veins

    • D.

      Basal crackles, 3rd and 4th heart sound, cough with pink froth, orthopnoea, wheeze

    • E.

      Angina, syncope, plateau pulse, heaving apex beat, 4th heart sound

    Correct Answer
    D. Basal crackles, 3rd and 4th heart sound, cough with pink froth, orthopnoea, wheeze
  • 24. 

    Which clinical signs would lead you to a diagnosis of aortic regurgitation?

    • A.

      Tapping apex beat, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur at apex

    • B.

      Angina, syncope, plateau pulse, heaving apex beat, 4th heart sound

    • C.

      Wide pulse pressure, pulse visible in carotids, apex beat displaced, ejection murmur

    • D.

      Peripheral oedema and raised JVP

    • E.

      Fibrillating pulse, right and left ventricular hypertrophy, high frequency pan systolic murmur best heard in apex and radiating to axilla

    Correct Answer
    C. Wide pulse pressure, pulse visible in carotids, apex beat displaced, ejection murmur
  • 25. 

    Which clinical signs would lead you to a diagnosis of mitral regurgitation?

    • A.

      Fibrillating pulse, right and left ventricular hypertrophy, high frequency pan systolic murmur best heard in apex and radiating to axilla

    • B.

      Wide pulse pressure, pulse visible in carotids, apex beat displaced, ejection murmur

    • C.

      Basal crackles, 3rd and 4th heart sound, cough with pink froth, orthopnoea, wheeze

    • D.

      Pulsu paradoxus, inaudible/distant heart sounds, distention of neck veins

    • E.

      Tapping apex beat, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur at apex

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrillating pulse, right and left ventricular hypertrophy, high frequency pan systolic murmur best heard in apex and radiating to axilla
  • 26. 

    Which clinical signs would lead you to a diagnosis of cardiac tamponade?

    • A.

      Wide pulse pressure, pulse visible in carotids, apex beat displaced, ejection murmur

    • B.

      Fibrillating pulse, right and left ventricular hypertrophy, high frequency pan systolic murmur best heard in apex and radiating to axilla

    • C.

      Tapping apex beat, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur at apex

    • D.

      Angina, syncope, plateau pulse, heaving apex beat, 4th heart sound

    • E.

      Pulsu paradoxus, inaudible/distant heart sounds, distention of neck veins

    Correct Answer
    E. Pulsu paradoxus, inaudible/distant heart sounds, distention of neck veins
  • 27. 

    Which clinical signs would lead you to a diagnosis of mitral stenosis?

    • A.

      Peripheral oedema and raised JVP

    • B.

      Tapping apex beat, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur at apex

    • C.

      Wide pulse pressure, pulse visible in carotids, apex beat displaced, ejection murmur

    • D.

      Fibrillating pulse, right and left ventricular hypertrophy, high frequency pan systolic murmur best heard in apex and radiating to axilla

    • E.

      Basal crackles, 3rd and 4th heart sound, cough with pink froth, orthopnoea, wheeze

    Correct Answer
    B. Tapping apex beat, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur at apex
  • 28. 

    Which 2 substrates are digested by enzymes in the saliva?

    Correct Answer
    starches and triglycerides
  • 29. 

    Pepsin and gastric lipase are produced by which cells?

    Correct Answer
    stomach chief cells
  • 30. 

    'Gastric juice' digests which 2 substrates?

    Correct Answer
    proteins and triglycerides
  • 31. 

    Name the pancreatic enzymes that digest the following: starches, proteins, triglycerides, ribonucleic acid, deoxyribonucleic acid.

    Correct Answer
    pancreatic amylase, trypsin, pancreatic lipase, ribonuclease, deoxyribonuclease
  • 32. 

    Which cells produce the enzymes contained in 'pancreatic juice'?

    Correct Answer
    pancreatic acinar cells
  • 33. 

    Which 4 things are absorbed in the stomach?

    Correct Answer
    small quantity of water, some ions, short chain fatty acids, some drugs
  • 34. 

    Which 5 things are absorbed in the small intestine?

    Correct Answer
    carbs, proteins, lipids, electrolytes, vitamins
  • 35. 

    Which important vitamin is absorbed in the ileum?

    Correct Answer
    B12
  • 36. 

    What 4 things are absorbed in the large intestine?

    Correct Answer
    small amount of remaining protein, vitamin K, water, ions
  • 37. 

    Where would the protrusion present with an indirect inguinal hernia?

    Correct Answer
    above and medial to pubic tubercle
  • 38. 

    Where would the protrusion present with a direct inguinal hernia?

    Correct Answer
    above and lateral to pubic tubercle
  • 39. 

    This condition can present from early childhood to late adulthood, with bloody diarrhea. On examination, there are symmetrical shallow ulcers, rarely strictures and never fistulae. What is the condition?

    Correct Answer
    ulcerative colitis
  • 40. 

    This condition presents with acute, severe pain in the left iliac fossa or whole of the lower abdomen (can begin at the centre and move left). There is abdominal distension, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea or constipation, fever, palpable tender sausage-shaped mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the condition?

    Correct Answer
    diverticulitis
  • 41. 

    This condition most commonly affects 15-35-year-olds. May present as acute onset abdominal pain with anorexia, malaise, and fever. Diarrhea. It can present with bloody diarrhea but not ss common. On examination, there are deep ulcers, strictures, and fistulae. What is the condition?

    Correct Answer
    Crohn's disease
  • 42. 

    This condition presents most commonly in the elderly, often with a past medical history of vascular disease or diabetes. Often presents with cramp-like left-sided abdominal pain which lasts for a few hours. This is followed by a dark red rectal bleed, often without feces, and may occur 2-3 times over 12 hours. What is the condition?

    Correct Answer
    ischaemic colitis
  • 43. 

    The patient often presents with abdominal pain relieved by defecation and/or accompanied by a change in bowel habit with constipation, diarrhea or both. Mucus, abdominal bloating, lethargy nausea, and backache. Symptoms often made worse by eating. What is this condition?

    Correct Answer
    irritable bowel syndrome
  • 44. 

    List the class of laxative the following belong to Isphaghula, senna, Arachis oil, lactulose.

    Correct Answer
    bulk forming, stimulant, faecal softner, osmotic

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 27, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Hjproctor
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.