Alterations In Renal Function

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| By Hsams7579
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Hsams7579
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 3,290
Questions: 24 | Attempts: 261

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Renal Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    E. Coli is most causative organism of Urinary Tract Infections

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    E. Coli is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the intestines and is known to be the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It can enter the urinary tract through the urethra and multiply, leading to an infection. E. Coli is responsible for around 80-90% of UTIs, making it the primary causative organism. Other bacteria, such as Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Klebsiella pneumoniae, can also cause UTIs, but E. Coli is the most prevalent and frequently implicated in these infections. Therefore, the statement that E. Coli is the most causative organism of urinary tract infections is true.

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  • 2. 

    UTIs occur more frequently in males than females

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    UTIs, or urinary tract infections, are actually more common in females than males. This is because the female urethra is shorter, making it easier for bacteria to enter the urinary tract. Additionally, certain factors such as sexual activity and hormonal changes during pregnancy can increase the risk of UTIs in females. While males can also develop UTIs, they are generally less common in comparison. Therefore, the statement that UTIs occur more frequently in males than females is false.

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  • 3. 

    One would be much sicker with an Upper UTI (Pyelonephritis) than they would with a Lower UTI (Cystitis)

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An upper urinary tract infection (pyelonephritis) affects the kidneys and can cause more severe symptoms such as high fever, back pain, and nausea. A lower urinary tract infection (cystitis) affects the bladder and urethra, causing symptoms like frequent urination and burning sensation. Since the kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste from the blood, an infection in this area can lead to more serious complications and a higher level of sickness compared to an infection in the lower urinary tract. Therefore, it is true that one would be much sicker with an upper UTI than a lower UTI.

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  • 4. 

    Detergents, soaps, & bubble baths help decrease the occurence of UTIs.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Detergents, soaps, and bubble baths can actually increase the occurrence of urinary tract infections (UTIs). These products can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the urinary tract, making it easier for harmful bacteria to multiply and cause an infection. It is recommended to avoid using these products in the genital area to reduce the risk of UTIs.

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  • 5. 

    It should be generally easy to diagnose when an infant has a UTI when comparing their signs & symptoms to the signs & symptoms of UTIs in infants.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is difficult to tell when an infant has a UTI by signs & symptoms because those signs & symptoms could be present due to any type of infection. There's no way to tell for sure an infant has a UTI without doing tests because they cannot communicate where the pain is coming from.

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  • 6. 

    Costovetebral Tenderness is a tell tale sign of Cystitis. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Costovetebral Tenderness is in the area of the kidneys - showing signs of Pyelonephritis.

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  • 7. 

    Urine Culture vs. Urine Dipstick - Urine Culture shows non-specific bacteria or blood in urine is present where as Urine Dipsticks shows what type of bacteria is present

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Urine Dipstick - shows non-specific bacteria or blood in urine is present
    Urine Culture - shows what type of bacteria is present

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  • 8. 

    48 to 72 hours after giving the febrile client with a UTI their antibiotic, you should repeat the urine culture.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    It is important to repeat the urine culture 48 to 72 hours after giving the febrile client with a UTI their antibiotic because it helps to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. The culture will determine if the antibiotic has successfully eradicated the bacteria causing the infection. If the culture still shows the presence of bacteria, it may indicate that the antibiotic is not working or that the bacteria is resistant to the medication. This information is crucial for the healthcare provider to make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan and ensure the client's recovery.

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  • 9. 

    Pyelonephritis requires IV antibiotics.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pyelonephritis is a severe kidney infection that typically requires intravenous (IV) antibiotics for effective treatment. This is because IV antibiotics can provide a higher concentration of medication directly into the bloodstream, allowing for faster and more efficient delivery to the kidneys. Oral antibiotics may not be as effective in treating pyelonephritis due to their slower absorption and lower concentration in the bloodstream. Therefore, IV antibiotics are necessary to effectively treat pyelonephritis.

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  • 10. 

    Vesicoureteral Reflux is the backflow or reflux of urine from the urethra into the bladder and can cause persistent UTIs

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Backflow or reflux of urine from BLADDER into URETERS (and possibly KIDNEYS)

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  • 11. 

    While on prophylactic antibiotics, the client with Vesicoureteral Reflux may be given an anticholinergic such as "Ditropan" to help decrease bladder pressure

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    While on prophylactic antibiotics, the client with Vesicoureteral Reflux may be given an anticholinergic such as "Ditropan" to help decrease bladder pressure. This is because anticholinergics work by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bladder, which can help reduce the pressure on the bladder caused by Vesicoureteral Reflux. By decreasing bladder pressure, anticholinergics can help prevent urine from flowing back up into the kidneys, reducing the risk of infection and kidney damage. Therefore, it is true that an anticholinergic such as "Ditropan" may be given to a client with Vesicoureteral Reflux while on prophylactic antibiotics.

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  • 12. 

    A client with Vesicoureteral Reflux is being treated surgically with reimplantations. While ordered to take prophylactic antibiotics for 3 months after the surgery, they should also get renal scans 3 and 7 years after the surgery.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Renal scans at 2 and 5 Years post-surgery

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not a characteristic of Nephrotic Syndrome?

    • A.

      Massive amounts of protein in the urine

    • B.

      Decreased albumin in the blood

    • C.

      Decreased protein in the blood

    • D.

      Decreased fats in the blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased fats in the blood
    Explanation
    In lecture on Renal Alterations, at 13:45, Jaime states there was a typo in the PowerPoint lecture. PowerPoint states HYPOLIPEDEMIA & she verbally states it should be corrected to HYPERLIPEDEMIA.

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  • 14. 

    Diabetes and Lupus are examples of Primary Nephrotic Syndrome

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Diabetes and Lupus are examples of SECONDARY Nephrotic Syndrome

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  • 15. 

    A client with "Minimal Change Nephrotic Syndrome" is at risk for blood clots.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    According to PowerPoint Slide 26 in Alterations in Renal Function, physiologically, there are alterations in coagulation factors (hypercoagulability) increasing the risk for clots

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  • 16. 

    Client's with Nephrotic Syndrome show signs of malnourishment such as pale shiny skin & brittle hair due to the decreased amount of protein in their body that was excreted through urine.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Clients with Nephrotic Syndrome exhibit signs of malnourishment, including pale shiny skin and brittle hair. This is because Nephrotic Syndrome causes a decrease in the amount of protein in the body, which is excreted through urine. As a result, the body becomes deficient in protein, leading to these physical manifestations.

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  • 17. 

    In the client with Nephrotic Syndrome, they will be administered corticosteroids (to treat the autoimmune portion of the disease) & will also be administered Albumin & Sodium to help replace what has been lost.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Will be administered Corticosteroids, Albumin to replace what has been lost, & DIURETICS (not sodium) to help rid of the edema

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  • 18. 

    A client who had strep 2 weeks ago is at risk for Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A client who had strep 2 weeks ago is at risk for Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis. This is because Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis is a complication that can occur after a strep infection, usually 1-3 weeks after the initial infection. It is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to symptoms such as hematuria, proteinuria, and edema. Therefore, it is true that a client who had strep 2 weeks ago is at risk for Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis.

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  • 19. 

    The hallmark sign of Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis is protein in the urine.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Hallmark sign for Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis is BLOOD in the urine. Nephrotic Syndrom's hallmark sign is PROTEIN in the urine.

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  • 20. 

    Hypertension is common in client's with Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is indeed common in clients with Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis. This condition is an inflammation of the glomeruli, which are tiny filters in the kidneys. When the glomeruli are damaged due to a streptococcal infection, it can lead to increased blood pressure. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, and when they are not functioning properly, it can result in hypertension. Therefore, the statement "Hypertension is common in clients with Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis" is true.

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  • 21. 

    If the Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis client has large amounts of circulatory congestion or hypertenstion present, they are at huge risk for Encephalopathy inclusive of:
    • Headaches
    • Nausea/Vomiting
    • Irritability
    • Lethargy
    • Seizures

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If the Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis client has large amounts of circulatory congestion or hypertension present, they are at a huge risk for encephalopathy. Encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and can lead to various symptoms such as headaches, nausea/vomiting, irritability, lethargy, and seizures. Therefore, the statement "If the Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis client has large amounts of circulatory congestion or hypertension present, they are at huge risk for encephalopathy" is true.

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  • 22. 

    • Which of the following blood test results doesn't typically follow along with the diagnosis of Acute Postreptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

    • A.

      BUN - 43

    • B.

      Creatinine - 1.4

    • C.

      WBC - 3,000

    • D.

      Hematocrit - 10

    • E.

      Hemoglobin - 7

    Correct Answer
    C. WBC - 3,000
    Explanation
    Serum BUN & Creatinine elevated; Serum Protein Decreased; ELEVATED WBC & ESR; Elevated ASO titer; Anemia: decreased HGB & HCT

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  • 23. 

    An elevated ASO titer MUST  be present in order to diagnose a client with Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Elevated ASO titers show that there was a recent Strep Infection. Without elevated ASO titers, there cannot be a diagnosis of Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following medication regimen would not be included in the treatment for a client diagnosed with Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

    • A.

      Diuretics

    • B.

      Antihypertensives

    • C.

      Sodium Replacement

    • D.

      Antiobiotics

    Correct Answer
    C. Sodium Replacement
    Explanation
    This client is going to be on a SODIUM RESTRICTION due to the nature of the disease. This disease causes the client to retain sodium.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Hsams7579
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