Abnormal Psychology Exam 1

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Abnormal Psychology Exam 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are the criteria for psychological abnormality?

    Explanation
    The criteria for psychological abnormality include deviance, distress, dysfunction, and danger. Deviance refers to behavior that deviates from societal norms. Distress refers to personal suffering or discomfort. Dysfunction refers to impairment in daily functioning. Danger refers to behavior that poses a risk to oneself or others. These criteria are used to determine if a person's behavior or mental state is considered abnormal or outside the range of what is considered normal or healthy.

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  • 2. 

    What were Hippocrates' 4 humors called?

    Explanation
    Hippocrates' 4 humors were called black bile, yellow bile, blood, and phlegm. These humors were believed to be the four bodily fluids that influenced a person's temperament and health. According to the theory, an imbalance in these humors would result in various physical and mental ailments. This concept was widely accepted in ancient Greek medicine and had a significant influence on medical practices for centuries.

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  • 3. 

    Trephining was...

    • A.

      Used during the renaissance era.

    • B.

      Using a stone instrument to cut a piece of skull out.

    • C.

      A means of eliminating people with abnormalities.

    • D.

      Popular amongst African cultures.

    Correct Answer
    B. Using a stone instrument to cut a piece of skull out.
    Explanation
    During the Renaissance era, trephining was a medical procedure that involved using a stone instrument to cut a piece of the skull out. This practice was believed to relieve pressure on the brain and was used to treat various conditions such as head injuries, mental illnesses, and epilepsy. The procedure was performed by making a small hole or removing a circular piece of the skull, allowing access to the brain. Although trephining was used in various cultures throughout history, it was particularly popular during the Renaissance era.

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  • 4. 

    Asylums were meant to be ________ and __________ places.

    Correct Answer
    humance and kind
    kind and humane
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "kind and humane." Asylums were intended to provide a compassionate and caring environment for individuals seeking mental health treatment. They were designed to be places where patients could receive support, understanding, and empathy. By being kind and humane, asylums aimed to promote healing and improve the well-being of those seeking help.

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  • 5. 

    During the middle ages, to treat abnormal behaviors, people...

    • A.

      Performed exorcisms.

    • B.

      Used virtual prisons.

    • C.

      Thought demons were the cause.

    • D.

      Wanted to eliminate the mentally ill.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Performed exorcisms.
    C. Thought demons were the cause.
    Explanation
    During the middle ages, people believed that abnormal behaviors were caused by demons, so they performed exorcisms as a way to treat these behaviors. They believed that by driving out the demons, the person would be cured. This belief in demonic possession was prevalent during this time period and influenced the methods used to treat mental illness.

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  • 6. 

    In state hospitals, the moral treatment of the mentally ill...

    • A.

      Cured thousands of people.

    • B.

      Focused on providing good care.

    • C.

      Ended because of overcrowded (and filthy) hospitals.

    • D.

      Was shocking to most people, so it was destroyed.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Focused on providing good care.
    C. Ended because of overcrowded (and filthy) hospitals.
    Explanation
    The moral treatment of the mentally ill in state hospitals focused on providing good care. However, it eventually ended because of overcrowded (and filthy) hospitals.

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  • 7. 

    The somatogenic perspective began in during the 20th century.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The somatogenic perspective did not begin during the 20th century. This perspective actually emerged in the late 19th century and was popularized by figures like Emil Kraepelin and Wilhelm Wundt. The somatogenic perspective focused on the idea that mental disorders were primarily caused by physical factors, such as genetics or brain abnormalities. This perspective was later challenged by the psychogenic perspective, which emphasized the role of psychological and environmental factors in the development of mental disorders.

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  • 8. 

    Psychoanalysis, hypnotism, and outpatient therapy were formed because of the _________ perspective.

    Correct Answer
    psychogenic
    Explanation
    Psychoanalysis, hypnotism, and outpatient therapy were formed because of the psychogenic perspective. The term "psychogenic" refers to the belief that psychological factors are the root cause of certain disorders or conditions. This perspective suggests that mental and emotional factors can influence physical health and well-being. Therefore, psychoanalysis, hypnotism, and outpatient therapy were developed as approaches to address and treat psychological issues that were believed to be the underlying cause of various symptoms and conditions.

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  • 9. 

    Prevention programs used __________.

    • A.

      Research from various cultures

    • B.

      Information about individual patients

    • C.

      Positive psychology

    • D.

      Managed care techniques

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive psychology
    Explanation
    Prevention programs used positive psychology as a strategy to promote mental health and prevent mental illnesses. Positive psychology focuses on enhancing positive emotions, character strengths, and overall well-being. By incorporating positive psychology principles into prevention programs, individuals can develop resilience, coping skills, and a positive mindset, which can help them better navigate life's challenges and reduce the risk of developing mental health issues.

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  • 10. 

    Positive psychology was aimed at encouraging positive feelings and behaviors.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Positive psychology is a branch of psychology that focuses on understanding and promoting positive feelings, behaviors, and experiences. It emphasizes the importance of cultivating happiness, well-being, and personal growth. Therefore, the statement that positive psychology was aimed at encouraging positive feelings and behaviors is true.

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  • 11. 

    Managed care is...

    • A.

      A type of insurance coverage.

    • B.

      Used to help manage a patients behaviors.

    • C.

      A research procedure used to observe a patient.

    • D.

      The most popular form of behavioral care.

    Correct Answer
    A. A type of insurance coverage.
    Explanation
    Managed care is a type of insurance coverage that focuses on coordinating and managing healthcare services for patients. It involves a network of healthcare providers who agree to provide services to the insured individuals at a negotiated rate. The goal of managed care is to improve quality of care, control costs, and ensure that patients receive appropriate and necessary healthcare services. This type of insurance coverage often includes utilization management, case management, and disease management programs to help manage and coordinate the care provided to patients.

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  • 12. 

    ___________ stated that insurance companies had to provide the same care to patients with mental health and medical health problems.

    Correct Answer
    Parity Laws
    Explanation
    Parity laws are regulations that require insurance companies to provide equal coverage for mental health and medical health conditions. These laws ensure that individuals with mental health issues receive the same level of care and benefits as those with physical health problems. By mandating equal treatment, parity laws aim to eliminate discrimination against individuals seeking mental health services and promote equity in healthcare coverage.

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  • 13. 

    Multiculturism emegered due to more cultures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Multiculturalism emerged as a result of the presence of multiple cultures within a society. It recognizes and respects the diversity of cultures, promoting the coexistence and interaction between different ethnic, religious, and social groups. Multiculturalism aims to foster inclusivity, tolerance, and understanding among individuals from various cultural backgrounds. Therefore, the statement that multiculturalism emerged due to more cultures is true.

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  • 14. 

    ___________ try(ies) to understand how race, gender, ethnicity, and culture affect behaviors.

    • A.

      Somatogenic perspective

    • B.

      Multiculturism

    • C.

      Outpatient therapy

    • D.

      Research analyzers

    Correct Answer
    B. Multiculturism
    Explanation
    Multiculturism is the correct answer because it refers to the study or recognition of multiple cultures and their influence on behaviors. It involves understanding how race, gender, ethnicity, and culture affect behaviors, which aligns with the given statement. The other options, such as somatogenic perspective, outpatient therapy, and research analyzers, do not directly relate to the study of culture and its impact on behaviors.

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  • 15. 

    Pros of case studies...

    • A.

      Is that they pave the way for new discoveries.

    • B.

      Is that they offer a wide range of test subjects, creating a generalized result.

    • C.

      Is that clinicians can learn more about unusual problems and techniques.

    • D.

      Is that they support or challenge theories.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Is that they pave the way for new discoveries.
    C. Is that clinicians can learn more about unusual problems and techniques.
    D. Is that they support or challenge theories.
    Explanation
    Case studies have several advantages. Firstly, they pave the way for new discoveries by providing in-depth analysis and insights into specific cases, which can lead to the development of new theories or approaches. Secondly, case studies offer a wide range of test subjects, allowing researchers to gather data from diverse sources and generate generalized results. Additionally, case studies enable clinicians to learn more about unusual problems and techniques, expanding their knowledge and expertise. Lastly, case studies support or challenge existing theories by providing empirical evidence that either confirms or contradicts them.

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  • 16. 

    Cons of case studies...

    • A.

      Is that observers can be biased.

    • B.

      Is that they rely on subjective evidence.

    • C.

      Is that they display vague results.

    • D.

      Is that participants are not truthful.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Is that observers can be biased.
    B. Is that they rely on subjective evidence.
    Explanation
    Case studies have certain disadvantages, such as observers being biased and relying on subjective evidence. This means that the individuals conducting the study may have preconceived notions or personal opinions that can influence their observations and interpretations of the data. Additionally, the reliance on subjective evidence means that the information gathered may be based on personal experiences or beliefs rather than objective facts. These limitations can affect the reliability and validity of the results obtained from case studies.

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  • 17. 

    Pros of correlational method...

    • A.

      Is that clinicians are able to learn about unusual disorders.

    • B.

      Is that they use statistic analysis to test accuracy.

    • C.

      Is that researchers perform this method on their patient.

    • D.

      Is that results are easily generalized.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Is that they use statistic analysis to test accuracy.
    D. Is that results are easily generalized.
    Explanation
    The pros of the correlational method are that it allows clinicians to learn about unusual disorders and researchers are able to use statistical analysis to test accuracy. Additionally, the results obtained from the correlational method are easily generalized to a larger population.

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  • 18. 

    Cons of correlational method...

    • A.

      Is that they are found to be very inaccurate.

    • B.

      Is that results are significantly different for different ages.

    • C.

      Is that the results are approximate.

    • D.

      Is that the results don't explain the relationship of what was measured.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Is that the results are approximate.
    D. Is that the results don't explain the relationship of what was measured.
    Explanation
    The cons of correlational method are that the results are approximate and they don't explain the relationship of what was measured. Correlational studies can only show a relationship between variables but cannot determine causation. The results obtained from correlational studies are not precise or exact, as they can be influenced by various factors. Additionally, correlational studies cannot provide a clear understanding of the underlying mechanisms or reasons behind the observed relationship.

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  • 19. 

    3 important criteria included in experiments to guard against confounds...

    • A.

      Control group

    • B.

      Experimental design

    • C.

      Random assignment

    • D.

      Blind design

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Control group
    C. Random assignment
    D. Blind design
    Explanation
    Control group, random assignment, and blind design are three important criteria included in experiments to guard against confounds. A control group is a group that does not receive the experimental treatment and serves as a comparison for the experimental group. Random assignment ensures that participants are assigned to different groups randomly, reducing the chance of bias. Blind design refers to keeping the participants or researchers unaware of the group assignments to minimize bias. These criteria help to ensure that any observed effects are due to the experimental treatment rather than other factors.

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  • 20. 

    Matched control participants (experimental participants are matched with the control participants by age, sex, race, socioeconomic status, type of neighborhood, or other characteristics) are used in this type of experiment.

    • A.

      Blind design

    • B.

      Quasi-experimental design

    • C.

      Mixed design

    • D.

      Double-blind design

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Quasi-experimental design
    C. Mixed design
    Explanation
    In this type of experiment, matched control participants are used, meaning that they are selected to have similar characteristics as the experimental participants. This suggests that the experiment is not using a random assignment of participants, which is a characteristic of quasi-experimental design. Additionally, the answer could also be mixed design, as this type of design combines different elements from various experimental designs. However, without more information, it is difficult to determine which design is the most accurate explanation for the given statement.

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  • 21. 

    More then one type of clinical investigation is better to investigate a disorder.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Having more than one type of clinical investigation is beneficial in investigating a disorder because different types of investigations provide different perspectives and insights into the disorder. Each type of investigation may focus on different aspects of the disorder, such as its biological, psychological, or social factors. By utilizing multiple types of investigations, researchers can gather a comprehensive understanding of the disorder, which can lead to more accurate diagnoses, effective treatments, and improved patient outcomes. Therefore, the statement "More than one type of clinical investigation is better to investigate a disorder" is true.

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  • 22. 

    A general understanding of the nature, causes and treatments of abnormal psychological functioning in the form of laws or principles.

    • A.

      Idiographic understanding

    • B.

      Nomothetic understanding

    • C.

      Clinical understanding

    Correct Answer
    B. Nomothetic understanding
    Explanation
    Nomothetic understanding refers to a general understanding of abnormal psychological functioning, focusing on identifying commonalities and patterns across individuals. It aims to establish laws or principles that can be applied to a larger population. This approach allows researchers and clinicians to develop theories and treatments that can be applied to a wide range of individuals with similar symptoms or conditions. In contrast, idiographic understanding focuses on understanding the unique characteristics and experiences of each individual, while clinical understanding refers to the application of knowledge and skills in a clinical setting.

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  • 23. 

    An understanding of the behavior or a particular individual.

    • A.

      Nomothetic understanding

    • B.

      Clinical understanding

    • C.

      Idiographic understanding

    Correct Answer
    C. Idiographic understanding
    Explanation
    Idiographic understanding refers to the study and comprehension of the unique characteristics and behaviors of an individual. It focuses on the specific details and context of a person's life, experiences, and personality traits. This approach aims to gain a deep understanding of an individual's subjective experiences and to explain their behavior based on their personal circumstances and history. It contrasts with the nomothetic approach, which seeks to identify general laws and principles that apply to a group or population. Clinical understanding, on the other hand, refers to the application of psychological knowledge and theories in a therapeutic or clinical setting to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals with mental health issues.

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  • 24. 

    Nomothetic is...

    • A.

      When clinical researchers try to develop broad laws and principles of abnormal functioning.

    • B.

      When researchers attempt to explain certain attributes about a disorder.

    • C.

      When clinical researchers believe that abnormal functioning is due to imbalances of neurotransmitters.

    Correct Answer
    A. When clinical researchers try to develop broad laws and principles of abnormal functioning.
    Explanation
    The term "nomothetic" refers to the approach used by clinical researchers to develop broad laws and principles of abnormal functioning. This approach involves studying a large number of individuals to identify patterns and general principles that can be applied to a larger population. It aims to uncover universal laws and principles that can explain abnormal functioning in a more general sense, rather than focusing on specific attributes or imbalances of neurotransmitters in a disorder.

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  • 25. 

    Idiographic is...

    • A.

      When clinicians seek to learn more about unusual disorders.

    • B.

      How researchers determine if a certain trait is abnormal.

    • C.

      When clinicians use individual information about a client to understand their behaviors.

    Correct Answer
    C. When clinicians use individual information about a client to understand their behaviors.
    Explanation
    The term "idiographic" refers to the approach used by clinicians when they gather and analyze individual information about a client in order to understand their behaviors. This approach focuses on the unique characteristics and experiences of the client, rather than generalizing findings from a larger population. By considering the specific context and circumstances of the client, clinicians can gain a deeper understanding of their behaviors and tailor interventions and treatments accordingly.

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  • 26. 

    Clinical Interviews are usually very valid and reliable.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Clinical interviews are not always very valid and reliable. While they can provide valuable information, the validity and reliability of the information obtained through clinical interviews can be influenced by various factors such as the interviewer's biases, the patient's willingness to disclose information, and the subjective interpretation of the interviewer. Therefore, it is important to consider other sources of information and use standardized assessment measures to ensure a more comprehensive and objective evaluation.

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  • 27. 

    The value of clinical interviews depends on...

    • A.

      Standardization.

    • B.

      The validity.

    • C.

      The reliability.

    • D.

      The type of interview.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Standardization.
    B. The validity.
    C. The reliability.
    Explanation
    The value of clinical interviews depends on standardization, validity, and reliability. Standardization ensures consistency in the interview process, making it easier to compare results across different individuals or settings. Validity refers to the accuracy of the interview in measuring what it intends to measure, such as symptoms or psychological constructs. Reliability indicates the consistency and stability of the interview results over time and across different interviewers. All three factors are crucial in ensuring the effectiveness and usefulness of clinical interviews in gathering accurate and reliable information for assessment and diagnosis.

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  • 28. 

    Limitations of clinical interviews...

    • A.

      The information is usually vague.

    • B.

      The client may intentionally be misleading.

    • C.

      They may lack validity.

    • D.

      Interviewers may be biased.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The client may intentionally be misleading.
    C. They may lack validity.
    D. Interviewers may be biased.
    Explanation
    Clinical interviews have limitations due to various factors. One limitation is that the information obtained during interviews is often vague, making it difficult to draw accurate conclusions. Additionally, clients may intentionally mislead interviewers, providing false or incomplete information. This can further hinder the validity of the interview findings. Another limitation is the potential for interviewer bias, where personal beliefs or preconceptions may influence the interpretation of the client's responses. These limitations highlight the need for additional assessment methods to ensure a comprehensive and accurate understanding of the client's situation.

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  • 29. 

    Mental status exam measures a client's...

    • A.

      Awareness, attention span, and memory.

    • B.

      Orientation with regard to time and place, judgement, and insight.

    • C.

      Intellectual capacity and ability to retain information.

    • D.

      Personal history, family history, and current symptoms.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Awareness, attention span, and memory.
    B. Orientation with regard to time and place, judgement, and insight.
    Explanation
    The mental status exam is a diagnostic tool used by healthcare professionals to assess a client's cognitive and emotional functioning. It includes evaluating the client's awareness, attention span, and memory, as well as their orientation with regard to time and place. Additionally, the exam assesses the client's judgement and insight, which can provide valuable information about their decision-making abilities and self-awareness. This comprehensive evaluation helps healthcare professionals gain a better understanding of the client's mental health and can guide treatment planning.

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  • 30. 

    Disadvantages of unstructured interviews...

    • A.

      Asks detailed questions, leaving opportunity to miss important information.

    • B.

      Makes it difficult to get other pieces of information.

    • C.

      Has several questions, causing distraction to clients.

    • D.

      Client's usually deny having any problems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Makes it difficult to get other pieces of information.
    Explanation
    Unstructured interviews can be disadvantageous because they ask detailed questions, which may cause the interviewer to miss important information. Additionally, the lack of structure makes it difficult to gather other pieces of information that may be relevant to the interview. The presence of several questions can also be distracting to clients, potentially affecting their responses. Furthermore, clients may often deny having any problems, making it challenging to obtain accurate and comprehensive information during the interview.

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  • 31. 

    Psychodynamic and humanistic clinicians tend to use...

    • A.

      Mental status exams.

    • B.

      Structured interviews.

    • C.

      Observations.

    • D.

      Unstructured interviews.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Mental status exams.
    D. Unstructured interviews.
    Explanation
    Psychodynamic and humanistic clinicians tend to use mental status exams because they provide a structured framework for assessing a client's cognitive and emotional functioning. These exams help clinicians gather information about the client's current mental state, including their mood, thought processes, and level of distress. On the other hand, unstructured interviews are also favored by these clinicians as they allow for a more open and exploratory approach, enabling a deeper understanding of the client's subjective experiences, motivations, and unconscious processes. This approach aligns with the psychodynamic and humanistic emphasis on gaining insight into the individual's unique inner world.

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  • 32. 

    Behavioral and cognitive clinicians tend to use...

    • A.

      Structured interviews.

    • B.

      Unstructured interviews.

    • C.

      Mental status exam.

    • D.

      Observations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Structured interviews.
    Explanation
    Behavioral and cognitive clinicians tend to use structured interviews because they provide a standardized and systematic approach to gathering information about a client's symptoms, behaviors, and thoughts. Structured interviews use a predetermined set of questions that cover specific areas of assessment, allowing clinicians to gather comprehensive and reliable data. This approach helps ensure consistency across assessments and improves the accuracy of diagnosis and treatment planning. Unstructured interviews may lack consistency and may not cover all relevant areas, while mental status exams and observations are additional assessment tools that may be used in conjunction with structured interviews but are not the primary method used by behavioral and cognitive clinicians.

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  • 33. 

    Clinical interviews are generally good at gathering information about a client to assist in diagnoses and treatment plans.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Clinical interviews are an effective method for gathering information about a client's background, symptoms, and experiences. These interviews involve direct interaction between the clinician and the client, allowing for a comprehensive understanding of the client's concerns. Through open-ended questions and active listening, clinicians can gather valuable information that aids in making accurate diagnoses and developing appropriate treatment plans. The personal nature of clinical interviews also helps establish rapport and trust between the clinician and client, facilitating a more collaborative and effective therapeutic relationship.

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  • 34. 

    __________: A test consisting of ambiguous material that people interpret or respond to.

    • A.

      Inventory test

    • B.

      Projective test

    • C.

      Personality test

    Correct Answer
    B. Projective test
    Explanation
    A projective test is a type of test that presents ambiguous material to individuals, such as images or incomplete sentences, and asks them to interpret or respond to it. This type of test is designed to reveal unconscious thoughts, feelings, or motivations of the person being tested. It allows individuals to project their own thoughts and emotions onto the ambiguous stimuli, providing insights into their personality traits or psychological state.

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  • 35. 

    The advantages of projective tests are...

    • A.

      Client's are thought to "project" themselves onto the test.

    • B.

      They make diagnoses.

    • C.

      They provide answers to unasked questions needed for a diagnoses.

    • D.

      They are used as supplementary insights.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Client's are thought to "project" themselves onto the test.
    D. They are used as supplementary insights.
    Explanation
    Projective tests are advantageous because clients are believed to "project" themselves onto the test. This means that their responses to ambiguous stimuli can reveal subconscious thoughts, feelings, and motivations. These tests provide valuable insights into the client's inner world and can help uncover underlying issues that may not be easily accessible through other assessment methods. Additionally, projective tests are used as supplementary tools in the diagnostic process, providing additional information and perspectives to aid in the formulation of a diagnosis.

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  • 36. 

    The disadvantages of projective tests are...

    • A.

      They are not very valid.

    • B.

      They are not very reliable.

    • C.

      They are not very interactive.

    • D.

      They focus too much on the client's personal information.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They are not very valid.
    B. They are not very reliable.
    C. They are not very interactive.
    Explanation
    Projective tests have several disadvantages. Firstly, they are not very valid, meaning that they may not accurately measure what they are intended to assess. Secondly, they are not very reliable, indicating that the results may not be consistent or stable over time. Lastly, they are not very interactive, suggesting that they do not actively engage the individual being tested. These limitations make projective tests less effective in providing accurate and consistent information about the client.

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  • 37. 

    Personality inventories compared to projective tests...

    • A.

      They have objective scoring, and shot time to administer.

    • B.

      Most are standardized.

    • C.

      Projective tests are greater validity.

    • D.

      They have better test-retest reliability.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They have objective scoring, and shot time to administer.
    B. Most are standardized.
    D. They have better test-retest reliability.
    Explanation
    Personality inventories are different from projective tests in several ways. Firstly, personality inventories have objective scoring, meaning that the answers are evaluated based on predetermined criteria, while projective tests rely on subjective interpretation by the examiner. Additionally, personality inventories are usually quicker to administer compared to projective tests. Most personality inventories are standardized, which means that they have been tested on a large sample to establish norms and ensure consistency. Lastly, personality inventories tend to have better test-retest reliability, meaning that they produce consistent results when administered to the same individual multiple times.

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  • 38. 

    Personality inventories are not highly valid and have cultural limitations.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Personality inventories are not highly valid because they may not accurately measure an individual's personality traits or characteristics. Additionally, these inventories may have cultural limitations, meaning that they may not be applicable or relevant to individuals from different cultural backgrounds. Therefore, the statement that personality inventories are not highly valid and have cultural limitations is true.

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  • 39. 

    _________ inventories are not tested for accuracy and consistency because they are mostly used when need arises.

    Correct Answer
    Response
    Explanation
    Inventories that are used when a need arises, such as emergency supplies or backup stock, are not regularly tested for accuracy and consistency because they are not constantly in use. These inventories are typically kept on hand for unexpected situations or to meet sudden demands, so there is less emphasis on regularly validating their accuracy. Instead, they are relied upon only when necessary, making frequent testing unnecessary.

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  • 40. 

    Tests are more likely to be reliable or valid if they...

    • A.

      Have support validity.

    • B.

      Have predictive validity.

    • C.

      Have high test-retest reliability.

    • D.

      Are administered 2 weeks apart.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Have predictive validity.
    C. Have high test-retest reliability.
    D. Are administered 2 weeks apart.
    Explanation
    Tests are more likely to be reliable or valid if they have predictive validity, which means that they can accurately predict future outcomes or behaviors. Additionally, tests with high test-retest reliability are more likely to be reliable, as this indicates that the results are consistent over time. Lastly, administering the tests 2 weeks apart can also increase their reliability, as it allows for potential changes or fluctuations in the variables being measured to be accounted for.

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  • 41. 

    Standardization is important because...

    • A.

      It provides detailed data to specify the type of disorder.

    • B.

      It ensures consistency across different measurements.

    • C.

      It is always consistent and accurate for treating people.

    • D.

      It uses norms and normative samples.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. It ensures consistency across different measurements.
    D. It uses norms and normative samples.
    Explanation
    Standardization is important because it ensures consistency across different measurements. This means that when using standardized measures, the results obtained can be compared and interpreted reliably. Standardization also involves the use of norms and normative samples, which provide a reference point for evaluating an individual's scores or performance. By using these norms, professionals can assess whether an individual's scores fall within the expected range for their age, gender, or other relevant factors. This helps in diagnosing and treating disorders accurately and consistently.

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  • 42. 

    Accurate tests must have reliability and validity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Reliability and validity are two different concepts in testing. Reliability refers to the consistency and stability of test results, while validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure. While accurate tests should ideally have both reliability and validity, it is possible for a test to be reliable but not valid, or valid but not reliable. Therefore, the statement that accurate tests must have reliability and validity is false.

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  • 43. 

    MRI, CT scan, PET scan, CAT scan, and fMRI are all forms of...

    • A.

      Biopsy.

    • B.

      X-ray.

    • C.

      Electroencephalogram

    • D.

      Neuroimaging.

    Correct Answer
    D. Neuroimaging.
    Explanation
    MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging), CT scan (Computed Tomography), PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography), CAT scan (Computerized Axial Tomography), and fMRI (functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging) are all medical imaging techniques used to visualize the structure and function of the brain and other parts of the body. These techniques provide detailed images that help in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is neuroimaging, which refers to the use of imaging techniques to study the nervous system.

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  • 44. 

    _____________: neurological test that takes pictures of brain structure or brain activity.

    Correct Answer
    neuroimaging, brain scans
    Explanation
    Neuroimaging refers to the use of various techniques to obtain images of the brain's structure or activity. One common method is through brain scans, which can provide detailed pictures of the brain and its functions. These scans are often used in neurological tests to diagnose and study various brain disorders or abnormalities. Therefore, neuroimaging and brain scans are closely related and can be used interchangeably in the context of this question.

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  • 45. 

    A _________ test detects brain impairment by measuring a person's cognitive, perceptual, and motor performance, when a brain scan can't detect the subtle impairments.

    Correct Answer
    neuropsychological
    Explanation
    A neuropsychological test is used to detect brain impairment by evaluating a person's cognitive, perceptual, and motor abilities. This type of test is employed when a brain scan is unable to identify subtle impairments.

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  • 46. 

    Intelligence tests...

    • A.

      Are only measured directly.

    • B.

      Have high validity and reliability.

    • C.

      May contain cultural biases.

    • D.

      Answers may be influenced by factors having nothing to do with intelligence.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Have high validity and reliability.
    C. May contain cultural biases.
    D. Answers may be influenced by factors having nothing to do with intelligence.
    Explanation
    Intelligence tests are considered to have high validity and reliability because they are designed to accurately measure intelligence. However, these tests may also contain cultural biases, meaning that they may favor certain cultural groups over others. Additionally, the answers on intelligence tests can be influenced by factors that are unrelated to intelligence, such as test anxiety or personal biases. Therefore, it is important to consider these factors when interpreting the results of intelligence tests.

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  • 47. 

    ___________ is a system used to rate a person's psychological, social, and occupational functioning.

    Correct Answer(s)
    global assessment of functioning
    Explanation
    Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) is a widely used system that evaluates an individual's overall psychological, social, and occupational functioning. It provides a numerical rating on a scale of 0 to 100, with higher scores indicating better functioning. GAF takes into account various factors such as the person's ability to cope with daily life stressors, maintain relationships, and perform tasks at work or school. This assessment tool is commonly used in mental health settings to help clinicians understand the individual's level of functioning and determine appropriate treatment interventions.

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  • 48. 

    Empirically supported treatment is...

    • A.

      Devoted to helping clinicians become more familiar with research findings.

    • B.

      Evidence-based treatment.

    • C.

      Decreasing in popularity throughout the US.

    • D.

      One of the most effective treatments that is currently offered.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Devoted to helping clinicians become more familiar with research findings.
    B. Evidence-based treatment.
    Explanation
    Empirically supported treatment refers to treatment approaches that have been proven effective through scientific research. It is devoted to helping clinicians become more familiar with research findings, as they are encouraged to use evidence-based treatment methods in their practice. This means that clinicians should rely on treatments that have been shown to be effective through empirical studies rather than relying solely on personal beliefs or anecdotal evidence. By using evidence-based treatment, clinicians can provide the most effective and up-to-date care to their clients.

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  • 49. 

    Therapy is generally more effective then no therapy.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Therapy is generally more effective than no therapy because it provides individuals with professional guidance and support to address their mental or emotional challenges. Therapists are trained to help individuals understand their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors, and develop healthier coping mechanisms. Through therapy, individuals can gain insights, learn new skills, and receive appropriate treatment for their specific needs. Without therapy, individuals may struggle to manage their difficulties on their own, leading to prolonged distress and potential worsening of symptoms. Therefore, seeking therapy is often a beneficial step towards improving mental well-being.

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  • 50. 

    Excessive worry or ongoing anxiety for at least 6 months, difficulty controlling the worry, restlessness, irritability, muscle tension, and significant distress or impairment are symptoms of...

    • A.

      Social phobia.

    • B.

      Generalized anxiety disorder.

    • C.

      Panic disorder.

    Correct Answer
    B. Generalized anxiety disorder.
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, such as excessive worry, difficulty controlling the worry, restlessness, irritability, muscle tension, and significant distress or impairment, are characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder. Social phobia refers to a fear of social situations, while panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks. Therefore, the correct answer is generalized anxiety disorder.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Danikarasov
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