4a151 Volume 4

72 Questions

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4a151 Volume 4

Specialized Medical materiel Operations


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    How much must medical equipment cost to be considered "expense equipment?"
    • A. 

      Less than $3,000.

    • B. 

      More than $5,000.

    • C. 

      More than $300, but less than $250,000.

    • D. 

      More than $2,500, but less than $250,000.

  • 2. 
    How much must medical equipment cost to be considered "investment equipment?"
    • A. 

      $2,500 or more, but less than $250,000.

    • B. 

      $50,000 or more, but less than $250,000.

    • C. 

      $250,000 or more.

    • D. 

      $1,000,000 or more.

  • 3. 
    Who is the final authority for approving purchases of expense equipment?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      Medical logistics flight commander (MLFC).

    • C. 

      Medical tratment facility (MTF) commander.

    • D. 

      Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) officer.

  • 4. 
    Which individual or office reviews all equipment requests to determine if utility or structural changes are required?
    • A. 

      Facility manager.

    • B. 

      Property custodian.

    • C. 

      Base civil engineer.

    • D. 

      Medical equipment maintenance activity.

  • 5. 
    What computer product is used by a new equipment custodian when he or she assumes responsibilty for an equipment account?
    • A. 

      Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL).

    • B. 

      Custodian Actions List (CAL).

    • C. 

      Equipment Account Report.

    • D. 

      Equipment Balance Report.

  • 6. 
    What equipment must be accounted for on Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) records?
    • A. 

      Medical equipment used in Air Force activities.

    • B. 

      Medical equipment used by non-Air Force units.

    • C. 

      Nonmedical centrally managed equipment (CME).

    • D. 

      Equipment items, such as medical war reserve materiel (WRM), accounted for on the records of a medical stock record account.

  • 7. 
    The Medical Equipment Office must transfer the property to an authorized successor if a property custodian will be absent from the account for more than how many days?
    • A. 

      45.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      120.

    • D. 

      180.

  • 8. 
    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) equipment management (EM) module allows you to record "orientation date" to serve as proof you provided training to the custodian on his or her responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Equipment Record.

    • B. 

      Equipment Balance.

    • C. 

      Custodian Management.

    • D. 

      Equipment Classification.

  • 9. 
    Which allowance source (ASC) is assigned to gifts or donations of medical equipment?
    • A. 

      001.

    • B. 

      041.

    • C. 

      044.

    • D. 

      048.

  • 10. 
    What Air Force Form is the primary document property custodians prepare to initiate equipment changes?
    • A. 

      2005, Issue/Turn-In Request.

    • B. 

      601, Equipment Action Request.

    • C. 

      338, Personal Clothing and Equipment Record.

    • D. 

      126, Custodian Request Log.

  • 11. 
    Who has final approval authority for requests for medical communications equipment that costs more than the current investment threshold?
    • A. 

      Medical systems officer.

    • B. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    • C. 

      Major command visual information manager.

    • D. 

      Communications-Computer Systems Requirements Board (CSRB)

  • 12. 
    To obtain a purchase authorization for a request for carpet, with whom should the Medical Equipment Management Office coordinate?
    • A. 

      Facility manager and base civil engineer.

    • B. 

      Facility manager and base contracting office.

    • C. 

      Chief of base and base civil engineer.

    • D. 

      Chief of base and base contracting office.

  • 13. 
    Who has approval authority for all nonmedical furniture and furnishing requests submitted to the base Medical Equipment Management Office?
    • A. 

      Facility manager.

    • B. 

      Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.

    • C. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA).

    • D. 

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC).

  • 14. 
    In the Defense Medical Logistics Standard system, what tab of the EQUIPMENT REQUEST DETAIL window allows you to indicate whether transportation for the equipment will be paid by the source of supply (SOS) or the requesting activity?
    • A. 

      Main.

    • B. 

      Options.

    • C. 

      Summary Costs.

    • D. 

      Suggested Sources.

  • 15. 
    What agency/position is the final approval for all investment requests?
    • A. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    • B. 

      Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.

    • C. 

      Air Force Medical Service (AFMS).

    • D. 

      Major Command.

  • 16. 
    What pending action appears in the "Advisory Notices" section of the EM INBOX?
    • A. 

      Equipment pending issue.

    • B. 

      Inventory due within thirty days.

    • C. 

      Customer equipment request submitted.

    • D. 

      Blank acquisition date in capital equipment record.

  • 17. 
    When can the Custodian Actions List (CAL) be destroyed?
    • A. 

      After processing the end-of-month.

    • B. 

      After processing the end-of-fiscal-year.

    • C. 

      Upon receipt of an Equipment Account Report that incorporates all changes.

    • D. 

      Upon receipt of a new Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL) that incorporates all changes.

  • 18. 
    When can warranty and guarantee date be disposed of?
    • A. 

      When the equipment item is determined to be over 4 years old.

    • B. 

      Upon expiration or when it no longer serves a useful purpose.

    • C. 

      After equipment items are placed under maintenance contract.

    • D. 

      Upon approval of the base contracting office.

  • 19. 
    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support product is created when you transfer equipment between organizations supported by the same equipment manager?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice.Shipping Socument.

    • B. 

      Potential Custodian Inventory List.

    • C. 

      Equipment Gain and Loss Report.

    • D. 

      Custodian Actions List (CAL).

  • 20. 
    What reason for processing an equipment loss can only be used when directed by higher authority?
    • A. 

      Return of lease.

    • B. 

      Turn-in to supply.

    • C. 

      Transfer of equipment to another medical tratment facility (MTF).

    • D. 

      Turn-in to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

  • 21. 
    Which form is used to account for equipment that is found on base?
    • A. 

      Air Force Form 601, Equipment Action Request.

    • B. 

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In request.

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Form 250, Materiel Inspection and Receiving Report.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document.

  • 22. 
    What Defense Logistics Medical Standard Support product is created when you process a gain for an equipment item that requires maintenance?
    • A. 

      Inspection work order.

    • B. 

      Equipment Transfer Report.

    • C. 

      Potential Custodian Inventory List.

    • D. 

      Equipment Inventory Adjustment Document.

  • 23. 
    What form is used by property custodians to document the turn-in of equipment items?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Form 1348-6, DOD SIngle Requisition System Document.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1348-1A, DOD Issue Release/Receipt Document.

    • C. 

      Air Force (AF) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request.

    • D. 

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request.

  • 24. 
    What condition must exist for an equipment item before the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system will allow you to report it as excess?
    • A. 

      It must have an active excess report.

    • B. 

      It must be marked as potential excess.

    • C. 

      The condition code equals "A" only.

    • D. 

      The condition code equals "A" or "C" only.

  • 25. 
    At least how often must all equipment maintained on Medical Equipment Management Office records be inventoried?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Biennially.

  • 26. 
    In the EQUIPMENT INVENTORY LISTING window of the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support System, what option is used to adjust any overages or shortages found in the Medical Equipment Office inventory?
    • A. 

      Sort an inventory list.

    • B. 

      Complete an inventory.

    • C. 

      Reconcile an inventory.

    • D. 

      Open an inventory detail record.

  • 27. 
    Who approves an inventory certificate of justification?
    • A. 

      Medical Equipment Management Office officer.

    • B. 

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC).

    • C. 

      Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.

    • D. 

      Hospital administrator.

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for maintaining a war reserve materiel (WRM) continuity file for each assigned WRM assemblage?
    • A. 

      WRM Crew Chief.

    • B. 

      Medical Readiness Officer.

    • C. 

      Base medical WRM project offier.

    • D. 

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC).

  • 29. 
    What war reserve materiel assemblage is considered the leading edge of the expeditionary medical support (EMEDS)?
    • A. 

      Air transportable clinic (ATC).

    • B. 

      Critical care air transport (CCAT).

    • C. 

      Aeromedical staging facility (ASF).

    • D. 

      Small portable expeditionary aeromedical rapid response (SPEARR).

  • 30. 
    The last module of the small portable expeditionary aeromedical rapid response (SPEARR) is the
    • A. 

      Mobile field surgical team (MFST).

    • B. 

      Expeditionary critical care team (ECCT).

    • C. 

      Preventice and aerospace medicine (PAM) team.

    • D. 

      Expanded capability and infrastructure module (ECIM).

  • 31. 
    What war reserve materiel program does Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) allowance strandard code (ASC) BA1 identify?
    • A. 

      Biological warfare/chemical warfare (BW/CW).

    • B. 

      Anti-malaria/hepatitis prophylaxis.

    • C. 

      Wartime expansion.

    • D. 

      Buddy care/self-aid.

  • 32. 
    What type of unit does "FF" in the first two positions of a unit type code (UTC) identify?
    • A. 

      Medical.

    • B. 

      Security Forces.

    • C. 

      Communications.

    • D. 

      Civil engineering.

  • 33. 
    How many total 4A1 personnel taskings are associated with the expeditionary medical support (EMEDS) basic, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25 packages?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Five.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 34. 
    What document provides specific measurement standards for the unit C-level reporting?
    • A. 

      Disaster Casualty Control Plan (DCCP)

    • B. 

      USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    • C. 

      Designed Operational Capabilities (DOC) Statement.

    • D. 

      War Reserve Materiel (WRM) stock Status Report.

  • 35. 
    Which rated area (or areas) of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting are provided by Medical Logistics?
    • A. 

      Training.

    • B. 

      Personnel.

    • C. 

      Supplies and equipment on-hand (WRM).

    • D. 

      Training, personnel, and supplies and equipment on-hand (WRM).

  • 36. 
    Which Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-rating identifies a unit is fully trained and ready to undertake its full wartime mission?
    • A. 

      C-1.

    • B. 

      C-2.

    • C. 

      C-3.

    • D. 

      C-4.

  • 37. 
    What is a responsibility of a pilot unit?
    • A. 

      Provide training and exercise schedule updates.

    • B. 

      Submit and coordinate unit type code (UTC)/allowance standard (AS) changes.

    • C. 

      Provide total materiel availability percentages to agencies having a need to know.

    • D. 

      Establish a baseline for communication among the manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK)-responsible commands.

  • 38. 
    Which types of disasters are categorized as "wartime disasters?"
    • A. 

      Accidental release of nuclear, biological, or chemical (NBC) agents.

    • B. 

      Blizzards, tornadoes, and hurricanes.

    • C. 

      Fires, floods, and earthquakes.

    • D. 

      Use of NBC weapons.

  • 39. 
    What automated information system (AIS) allows you to organize your projects by specifying your materiel requirements, including weight, dimension, and cube?
    • A. 

      Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS).

    • B. 

      DMLSS Assemblage Management (AM) stand-alone.

    • C. 

      Mobile Medical Logistics (MOMEDLOG).

    • D. 

      Logistics module (LOGMOD).

  • 40. 
    Under the clinician-administered billogical warfare (BW)/chemical warfare (CW) war reserve materiel (WRM) program, how many grams of pralidoxime chloride are stored per eligible individual for chemical warfare?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      16.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 41. 
    Under the self-administered biological warfare (BW)/chemical warfare (CW) war reserve materiel (WRM) program, how many milligrams of atropine are authorized per eligible individual for chemical warefare?
    • A. 

      2.8.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      16.

  • 42. 
    When can you physically issue billogical warfare/chemical warfare assets?
    • A. 

      You have excess assets available.

    • B. 

      In cases of actual deployment only.

    • C. 

      Only if a courier is available to sign for the assets.

    • D. 

      If directed by the troop commander during an exercise.

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Prime item does not have a WRM level, and substitute item does have a WRM level for the specific detachment and project.

    • B. 

      Prime item does have a WRM level, and substitute item does not have a WRM level for the specific detachment and project.

    • C. 

      A substitute item can be used for two different prime items in the same detachment and project.

    • D. 

      An item can be both a prime and substitute inthe same detachment and project.

  • 44. 
    Minimally, how often should you compute war reserve materiel requirements and levels for each assemblage?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Biannually.

  • 45. 
    What items are included in the budget funding request for war reserve materiel assemblages?
    • A. 

      Investment equipment.

    • B. 

      Centrally managed items.

    • C. 

      Approved deferred procurement (DP) items.

    • D. 

      WRM requirements for a satellite medical treatment facility (MTF).

  • 46. 
    What type of war reserve materiel project items should be reviewed for immediate funding?
    • A. 

      Peacetime operating stock (POS).

    • B. 

      Deferred procurement (DP).

    • C. 

      Critical items.

    • D. 

      Dated items.

  • 47. 
    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support appication fo you use to control funding for war reserve materiel (WRM) assemblages?
    • A. 

      Assemblage Management (AM).

    • B. 

      Inventory management (IM).

    • C. 

      Customer Support (CS).

    • D. 

      System Services (SS).

  • 48. 
    The Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system calculates replenishment quantities to meet a target dollar amount by
    • A. 

      Sorting all critical shortage items from highest cost to lowest.

    • B. 

      Sorting all critical shortage items from lowest cost to highest.

    • C. 

      Ordering the entire shortage quantity of each item from highest cost to lowest.

    • D. 

      Ordering the entire shortage quantity of each item until the cost exceeds the available balance.

  • 49. 
    What type of assemblage requirements is processed from the Defense Modical Logical Logistics Standard Suppot (DMLSS) REPLENISHMENT LIST window?
    • A. 

      Other procurement (OP).

    • B. 

      Non-critical item shortages.

    • C. 

      Vendor-managed inventory (VMI).

    • D. 

      Centrally managed equipment (CME).

  • 50. 
    What category(ies) of deferred procurement (DP) is available in the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system?
    • A. 

      Air Force Medical Logistics Operation Center (AFMLOC), vendor-managed inventory (VMI), and locally deferred.

    • B. 

      VMI and locally deferred.

    • C. 

      Locally deferred.

    • D. 

      VMI.

  • 51. 
    What agency centrally manages the Air Force vendor-managed inventory (VMI) program?
    • A. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA).

    • B. 

      Defense Supply Center Philadelphia (DSCP).

    • C. 

      General Services Administration (GSA).

    • D. 

      Prime Vendor (PV).

  • 52. 
    What action do you take when centrally managed war reserve materiel items are received?
    • A. 

      Process the receipt and send a copy of the receipt to the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA).

    • B. 

      Process the receipt and send a copy of the receipt to the major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      Send a copy of the receipt to the MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      Process the receipt.

  • 53. 
    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support applicatioin and window allows you to set the "AM Location Delete Indicator" to automatically delete location codes when the on-hand quantity for an assemblage data record for a line item is zero?
    • A. 

      System Services (SS); DCM MONITOR.

    • B. 

      SS; MM SERVICE DETAIL.

    • C. 

      Assemblage Management (AM); MASS UPDATE ASSEMBLAGE.

    • D. 

      AM; LOCATION/SUBLOCATION MAINTENANCE.

  • 54. 
    What method available in the ASSEMBLAGE RECORD DATA window do you use to make changes to the location of an item in an assemblage when a location exceeded its storage capacity?
    • A. 

      ADD LOC.

    • B. 

      SPLIT LOC.

    • C. 

      MERGE LOC.

    • D. 

      DELETE LOC.

  • 55. 
    What action will the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system take when it identifies an item in the quality assurance (QA) process and the item is coded as war reserve materiel (WRM)?
    • A. 

      Updates the status in the master QA file.

    • B. 

      Automatically displays the QA DETAILS tab.

    • C. 

      Posts a pending action and transaction date to the AM INBOX.

    • D. 

      Enters a quantity in the "Notify Quantity" field to record action completed.

  • 56. 
    Normally, when are war reserve materiel (WRM) expiration-dated items destroyed?
    • A. 

      When replacement stocks are received.

    • B. 

      When the expired materiel is a Type I item.

    • C. 

      When the total amount is valued at less than $500.

    • D. 

      When the total amount is valued at less than $1000.

  • 57. 
    What items are eligible for the Department of Defense/Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Shelf-Life Extension Program (SLEP)?
    • A. 

      Only drugs in Federal Supply Class (FSC) 6505.

    • B. 

      Water purification tablets.

    • C. 

      Nutritional products.

    • D. 

      Biological products.

  • 58. 
    What is a criterion for requesting a Food and Drug Adminstration (FDA) expiration date extension under the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA) extension program?
    • A. 

      Item is not military-unique and the minimum dollar value is $500 or more per lot, per location.

    • B. 

      Item is not military-unique and the minimum dollar value is $1000 or more per lot, per location.

    • C. 

      Item is military-unique and the minimum dollar value value is $500 or more per lot, per location.

    • D. 

      Item is military-unique and the minimum dollar value is $1000 or more per lot, per location.

  • 59. 
    What is an option for re-labeling items extended under the Shelf-Life Extension Program (SLEP)?
    • A. 

      Re-label all items within 30 days of receipt of the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)-procured commercially printed labels.

    • B. 

      Defer re-labeling the materiel if it is not maintained under centralized control in medical logistics.

    • C. 

      Re-label all items within 60 days of receipt of the AFMSA-procured commercially printed labels.

    • D. 

      Defer re-labeling the materiel if it is needed for imminent deployent or contingency.

  • 60. 
    What return status code does the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system initally assign to all war reserve materiel (WRM) items processed for commercial return?
    • A. 

      P - Disposition Pending.

    • B. 

      R - Ready for Pick-up.

    • C. 

      X - Check Pending.

    • D. 

      Y - Credit Pending.

  • 61. 
    Within how many days of a war reserve materiel assemblage's deployment return date must you conduct a physical inventory of the assets?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 62. 
    Who do you contact to take appropriate actions to load funds against a project/expense center when processing a war reserve materiel (WRM) issue and funds are not available?
    • A. 

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA).

    • B. 

      Resource management officer (RMO).

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Supply custodian.

  • 63. 
    What existing condition will preclude you from initiating an inventory for an assemblage?
    • A. 

      The assemblage was inventoried within the last 12 months.

    • B. 

      The "Date of last inventory" field for the assemblage is blank.

    • C. 

      There are already multiple assemblage inventories in progress.

    • D. 

      An assemblage component has a source of supply (SOS) type of "UNK" loaded in the project.

  • 64. 
    What criteria must be met before you can process an assemblage outshipment (loss) transfer?
    • A. 

      Funds for transfer are associated with the assemblage.

    • B. 

      Commingled quantities exist in the assemblage.

    • C. 

      Commingled codes have been removed.

    • D. 

      The assemblage is in inventory status.

  • 65. 
    A customer-owned assemblage is an assemblage that
    • A. 

      Was purchased with the customer's operations and maintenance (O&M) funds.

    • B. 

      Is limited to allowance standard (AS) assemblages.

    • C. 

      Cannot have items coded for deferred procurement.

    • D. 

      Cannot have prime/sub relationships.

  • 66. 
    What Assemblage Management (AM) report identifies the number and type of assemblages owned by all organizations?
    • A. 

      Assemblages Managed.

    • B. 

      Assemblage Stratus Report.

    • C. 

      Assemblage Status Rollup.

    • D. 

      Assemblage Status Summary.

  • 67. 
    What term defines the process of obtaining products, services, applications or forces, and equipment or materiel from the Air Force organizations that are not forward deployed?
    • A. 

      Lead Unit.

    • B. 

      Reachback.

    • C. 

      In-Transit visibility.

    • D. 

      Time-phased force and deployment.

  • 68. 
    What term defines the concept of how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains itself to meet the national security challenges of the 21st Century?
    • A. 

      Total Force.

    • B. 

      Lead Mobilty Wings.

    • C. 

      Air Expeditionary Wings (AEW).

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).

  • 69. 
    What is the purpose of cold-chain management?
    • A. 

      Minimize risk by measuring and understanding thermal exposure in the incontrolled segments of the distribution system.

    • B. 

      Use validated shipping containers to keep products chilled at proper temperature and prevent freezing.

    • C. 

      Inclusion of temperture-monitoring devices.

    • D. 

      Rapid movement of products.

  • 70. 
    Blood services in a theater of operations containing actual combat operations consist of a combination of operational capabilities with importance on
    • A. 

      Limited potency periods.

    • B. 

      Inventory management constraints.

    • C. 

      Planning for blood and other transfusion products.

    • D. 

      Collecting and processing blood in the theater of operations.

  • 71. 
    What is the primary objective of Air Force Theater Medical Information Program (TMIP) infrasturcture?
    • A. 

      Automate medical information functional processes.

    • B. 

      Imbed TMIP within equipment assemblages.

    • C. 

      Integrate software systems.

    • D. 

      Command and control.

  • 72. 
    The principle means of informing holders of classified information about the specific protection requirements for the information is the type of
    • A. 

      Markings used.

    • B. 

      Access control used.

    • C. 

      Storage containers used.

    • D. 

      Information system media used.