Specialized Medical Material Operations 4a151 CDC Ure Volume IV Practice Test

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Specialized Medical Material Operations 4a151 CDC Ure Volume IV Practice Test - Quiz

Specialized Medical materiel Operations


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How much must medical equipment cost to be considered "expense equipment?"

    • A.

      Less than $3,000.

    • B.

      More than $5,000.

    • C.

      More than $300, but less than $250,000.

    • D.

      More than $2,500, but less than $250,000.

    Correct Answer
    D. More than $2,500, but less than $250,000.
    Explanation
    Medical equipment is considered "expense equipment" if it falls within a certain price range. The given answer states that the cost must be more than $2,500, but less than $250,000. This means that any medical equipment that costs less than $2,500 or more than $250,000 would not be considered "expense equipment."

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  • 2. 

    How much must medical equipment cost to be considered "investment equipment?"

    • A.

      $2,500 or more, but less than $250,000.

    • B.

      $50,000 or more, but less than $250,000.

    • C.

      $250,000 or more.

    • D.

      $1,000,000 or more.

    Correct Answer
    C. $250,000 or more.
    Explanation
    Medical equipment is considered "investment equipment" if its cost is $250,000 or more. This means that any medical equipment that costs less than $250,000 would not be considered as investment equipment.

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  • 3. 

    Who is the final authority for approving purchases of expense equipment?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B.

      Medical logistics flight commander (MLFC).

    • C.

      Medical tratment facility (MTF) commander.

    • D.

      Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) officer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical logistics flight commander (MLFC).
    Explanation
    The final authority for approving purchases of expense equipment is the Medical logistics flight commander (MLFC). This individual is responsible for overseeing the logistics and procurement of medical equipment within the organization. They have the authority to review and approve purchases based on budgetary constraints and operational needs. The MLFC ensures that the equipment being purchased meets the necessary standards and requirements for the medical treatment facility.

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  • 4. 

    Which individual or office reviews all equipment requests to determine if utility or structural changes are required?

    • A.

      Facility manager.

    • B.

      Property custodian.

    • C.

      Base civil engineer.

    • D.

      Medical equipment maintenance activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility manager.
    Explanation
    The facility manager is responsible for reviewing all equipment requests to determine if utility or structural changes are required. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the impact of new equipment on the facility and ensure that any necessary changes are made to accommodate it. The property custodian is responsible for the care and maintenance of the property, not equipment requests. The base civil engineer is responsible for infrastructure and construction projects, not equipment requests. The medical equipment maintenance activity is responsible for maintaining and repairing medical equipment, not reviewing equipment requests.

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  • 5. 

    What computer product is used by a new equipment custodian when he or she assumes responsibilty for an equipment account?

    • A.

      Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL).

    • B.

      Custodian Actions List (CAL).

    • C.

      Equipment Account Report.

    • D.

      Equipment Balance Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL).
    Explanation
    When a new equipment custodian takes responsibility for an equipment account, they use a Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL). This list helps the custodian keep track of the equipment they are responsible for and its location. It serves as a receipt for the equipment received and provides a record of where the equipment is located. The CR/LL is an important tool for the custodian to ensure accountability and proper management of the equipment under their care.

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  • 6. 

    What equipment must be accounted for on Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) records?

    • A.

      Medical equipment used in Air Force activities.

    • B.

      Medical equipment used by non-Air Force units.

    • C.

      Nonmedical centrally managed equipment (CME).

    • D.

      Equipment items, such as medical war reserve materiel (WRM), accounted for on the records of a medical stock record account.

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical equipment used in Air Force activities.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Medical equipment used in Air Force activities." This means that the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) records should include all medical equipment that is used specifically in Air Force activities. This would involve keeping track of the inventory, maintenance, and distribution of medical equipment within the Air Force. It does not include medical equipment used by non-Air Force units or nonmedical centrally managed equipment. Additionally, equipment items like medical war reserve materiel (WRM) should be accounted for on the records of a medical stock record account, but this is not the main focus of the MEMO records.

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  • 7. 

    The Medical Equipment Office must transfer the property to an authorized successor if a property custodian will be absent from the account for more than how many days?

    • A.

      45.

    • B.

      90.

    • C.

      120.

    • D.

      180.

    Correct Answer
    A. 45.
    Explanation
    If a property custodian will be absent from the account for more than 45 days, the Medical Equipment Office must transfer the property to an authorized successor. This ensures that the property is properly managed and accounted for in the custodian's absence. It helps to prevent any potential loss or misuse of the equipment during that time period.

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  • 8. 

    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) equipment management (EM) module allows you to record "orientation date" to serve as proof you provided training to the custodian on his or her responsibilities?

    • A.

      Equipment Record.

    • B.

      Equipment Balance.

    • C.

      Custodian Management.

    • D.

      Equipment Classification.

    Correct Answer
    C. Custodian Management.
    Explanation
    The Custodian Management module in the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) equipment management (EM) allows you to record an "orientation date" as proof that training has been provided to the custodian regarding their responsibilities. This module helps in managing and tracking the custodian's role in equipment management and ensures that they are adequately trained and informed about their duties.

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  • 9. 

    Which allowance source (ASC) is assigned to gifts or donations of medical equipment?

    • A.

      001.

    • B.

      041.

    • C.

      044.

    • D.

      048.

    Correct Answer
    C. 044.
  • 10. 

    What Air Force Form is the primary document property custodians prepare to initiate equipment changes?

    • A.

      2005, Issue/Turn-In Request.

    • B.

      601, Equipment Action Request.

    • C.

      338, Personal Clothing and Equipment Record.

    • D.

      126, Custodian Request Log.

    Correct Answer
    B. 601, Equipment Action Request.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 601, Equipment Action Request. This form is used by property custodians in the Air Force to initiate equipment changes. It allows them to request actions such as equipment transfers, turn-ins, issues, and disposals. By completing this form, custodians can ensure proper documentation and accountability for equipment changes within their units.

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  • 11. 

    Who has final approval authority for requests for medical communications equipment that costs more than the current investment threshold?

    • A.

      Medical systems officer.

    • B.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    • C.

      Major command visual information manager.

    • D.

      Communications-Computer Systems Requirements Board (CSRB)

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA) has final approval authority for requests for medical communications equipment that costs more than the current investment threshold. This means that AFMSA has the power to make the final decision on whether or not to approve requests for expensive medical communications equipment. The other options, such as the Medical Systems Officer, Major Command Visual Information Manager, and Communications-Computer Systems Requirements Board (CSRB), do not have the same level of authority as AFMSA in this matter.

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  • 12. 

    To obtain a purchase authorization for a request for carpet, with whom should the Medical Equipment Management Office coordinate?

    • A.

      Facility manager and base civil engineer.

    • B.

      Facility manager and base contracting office.

    • C.

      Chief of base and base civil engineer.

    • D.

      Chief of base and base contracting office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility manager and base civil engineer.
    Explanation
    The Medical Equipment Management Office should coordinate with the facility manager and base civil engineer to obtain a purchase authorization for a request for carpet. These individuals are responsible for managing the facility and ensuring that any changes or additions, such as carpet installation, meet the necessary requirements and regulations. By coordinating with both the facility manager and base civil engineer, the Medical Equipment Management Office can ensure that the purchase authorization process is completed smoothly and in compliance with the necessary standards.

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  • 13. 

    Who has approval authority for all nonmedical furniture and furnishing requests submitted to the base Medical Equipment Management Office?

    • A.

      Facility manager.

    • B.

      Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.

    • C.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA).

    • D.

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.
    Explanation
    The Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander has approval authority for all nonmedical furniture and furnishing requests submitted to the base Medical Equipment Management Office. This makes sense as the MTF commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the medical treatment facility, including the procurement and approval of necessary equipment and supplies. The facility manager, Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA), and Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC) may have other responsibilities within the base, but they do not have the specific authority to approve nonmedical furniture and furnishing requests for the MTF.

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  • 14. 

    In the Defense Medical Logistics Standard system, what tab of the EQUIPMENT REQUEST DETAIL window allows you to indicate whether transportation for the equipment will be paid by the source of supply (SOS) or the requesting activity?

    • A.

      Main.

    • B.

      Options.

    • C.

      Summary Costs.

    • D.

      Suggested Sources.

    Correct Answer
    C. Summary Costs.
    Explanation
    In the Defense Medical Logistics Standard system, the Summary Costs tab of the EQUIPMENT REQUEST DETAIL window allows you to indicate whether transportation for the equipment will be paid by the source of supply (SOS) or the requesting activity. This tab provides a summary of the costs associated with the equipment request, including transportation costs. By selecting the appropriate option in this tab, you can indicate who will be responsible for paying for the transportation of the equipment.

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  • 15. 

    What agency/position is the final approval for all investment requests?

    • A.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)

    • B.

      Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.

    • C.

      Air Force Medical Service (AFMS).

    • D.

      Major Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)
    Explanation
    The final approval for all investment requests in the Air Force Medical Service is given by the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA). This agency is responsible for overseeing and coordinating medical support activities within the Air Force. They have the authority to review and approve investment requests to ensure that they align with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force Medical Service. The AFMSA plays a crucial role in ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently to support medical operations and services.

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  • 16. 

    What pending action appears in the "Advisory Notices" section of the EM INBOX?

    • A.

      Equipment pending issue.

    • B.

      Inventory due within thirty days.

    • C.

      Customer equipment request submitted.

    • D.

      Blank acquisition date in capital equipment record.

    Correct Answer
    C. Customer equipment request submitted.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Customer equipment request submitted." The "Advisory Notices" section of the EM INBOX displays pending actions or tasks that need to be addressed. Out of the given options, the only one related to a pending action is a customer equipment request being submitted. This suggests that there is a request from a customer for specific equipment, and it is currently pending and requires attention.

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  • 17. 

    When can the Custodian Actions List (CAL) be destroyed?

    • A.

      After processing the end-of-month.

    • B.

      After processing the end-of-fiscal-year.

    • C.

      Upon receipt of an Equipment Account Report that incorporates all changes.

    • D.

      Upon receipt of a new Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL) that incorporates all changes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Upon receipt of a new Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL) that incorporates all changes.
    Explanation
    The Custodian Actions List (CAL) can be destroyed upon receipt of a new Custodian Receipt/Location List (CR/LL) that incorporates all changes. This means that once all the changes in custodian receipts and locations have been updated in the new CR/LL, the CAL is no longer needed and can be disposed of. The CAL serves as a record of custodian actions and is used to track changes until they are incorporated into the CR/LL. Once all the changes have been properly recorded in the new CR/LL, there is no longer a need to keep the CAL.

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  • 18. 

    When can warranty and guarantee date be disposed of?

    • A.

      When the equipment item is determined to be over 4 years old.

    • B.

      Upon expiration or when it no longer serves a useful purpose.

    • C.

      After equipment items are placed under maintenance contract.

    • D.

      Upon approval of the base contracting office.

    Correct Answer
    B. Upon expiration or when it no longer serves a useful purpose.
    Explanation
    The warranty and guarantee date can be disposed of when it expires or when the equipment no longer serves a useful purpose. This means that once the warranty or guarantee period is over, or if the equipment becomes obsolete or non-functional, there is no need to keep track of the warranty or guarantee date.

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  • 19. 

    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support product is created when you transfer equipment between organizations supported by the same equipment manager?

    • A.

      DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice.Shipping Socument.

    • B.

      Potential Custodian Inventory List.

    • C.

      Equipment Gain and Loss Report.

    • D.

      Custodian Actions List (CAL).

    Correct Answer
    D. Custodian Actions List (CAL).
    Explanation
    When equipment is transferred between organizations supported by the same equipment manager, a Custodian Actions List (CAL) is created. The CAL is a document that lists the actions taken by the custodian, such as transferring equipment, updating inventory records, and ensuring proper documentation. It serves as a record of the transfer and helps maintain accountability for the equipment. The other options listed, such as DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice, Shipping Document, Potential Custodian Inventory List, and Equipment Gain and Loss Report, are not specifically related to transferring equipment between organizations supported by the same equipment manager.

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  • 20. 

    What reason for processing an equipment loss can only be used when directed by higher authority?

    • A.

      Return of lease.

    • B.

      Turn-in to supply.

    • C.

      Transfer of equipment to another medical tratment facility (MTF).

    • D.

      Turn-in to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    Correct Answer
    C. Transfer of equipment to another medical tratment facility (MTF).
    Explanation
    The reason for processing an equipment loss that can only be used when directed by higher authority is the transfer of equipment to another medical treatment facility (MTF). This suggests that transferring equipment to another MTF requires authorization from higher authorities, indicating that it is not a decision that can be made independently. The other options, such as return of lease, turn-in to supply, and turn-in to DRMO, do not explicitly require higher authority approval in the same way.

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  • 21. 

    Which form is used to account for equipment that is found on base?

    • A.

      Air Force Form 601, Equipment Action Request.

    • B.

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In request.

    • C.

      Department of Defense Form 250, Materiel Inspection and Receiving Report.

    • D.

      DD Form 1348-1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document.

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 1348-1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 1348-1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document. This form is used to account for equipment that is found on base. It is used to document the issue and receipt of equipment, ensuring proper tracking and accountability. This form is commonly used in the Department of Defense for inventory management purposes.

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  • 22. 

    What Defense Logistics Medical Standard Support product is created when you process a gain for an equipment item that requires maintenance?

    • A.

      Inspection work order.

    • B.

      Equipment Transfer Report.

    • C.

      Potential Custodian Inventory List.

    • D.

      Equipment Inventory Adjustment Document.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspection work order.
    Explanation
    When you process a gain for an equipment item that requires maintenance, an inspection work order is created. This work order is generated to ensure that the equipment item is thoroughly inspected and any necessary maintenance or repairs are carried out. It helps in maintaining the equipment's functionality and ensuring that it meets the required standards.

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  • 23. 

    What form is used by property custodians to document the turn-in of equipment items?

    • A.

      Department of Defense Form 1348-6, DOD SIngle Requisition System Document.

    • B.

      DD Form 1348-1A, DOD Issue Release/Receipt Document.

    • C.

      Air Force (AF) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request.

    • D.

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request.

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request. This form is used by property custodians to document the turn-in of equipment items. It is specifically an Air Force form that is used to request actions related to equipment, such as turn-ins, issues, transfers, or disposals. The AF Form 601 serves as a record of the equipment transaction and provides documentation for accountability and tracking purposes.

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  • 24. 

    What condition must exist for an equipment item before the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system will allow you to report it as excess?

    • A.

      It must have an active excess report.

    • B.

      It must be marked as potential excess.

    • C.

      The condition code equals "A" only.

    • D.

      The condition code equals "A" or "C" only.

    Correct Answer
    B. It must be marked as potential excess.
    Explanation
    Before the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system allows you to report an equipment item as excess, it must be marked as potential excess. This means that the item has been identified as potentially no longer needed or required, and can be reported as excess for disposal or redistribution. The system requires this marking to ensure that only items that meet the criteria for excess are reported and processed accordingly.

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  • 25. 

    At least how often must all equipment maintained on Medical Equipment Management Office records be inventoried?

    • A.

      Quarterly.

    • B.

      Semiannually.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Biennially.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually.
    Explanation
    All equipment maintained on Medical Equipment Management Office records must be inventoried at least once a year. This ensures that all equipment is properly accounted for and allows for any necessary maintenance or repairs to be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Quarterly, semiannual, and biennial inventories would not provide the same level of oversight and may result in equipment being overlooked or maintenance being delayed. Therefore, the correct answer is annually.

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  • 26. 

    In the EQUIPMENT INVENTORY LISTING window of the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support System, what option is used to adjust any overages or shortages found in the Medical Equipment Office inventory?

    • A.

      Sort an inventory list.

    • B.

      Complete an inventory.

    • C.

      Reconcile an inventory.

    • D.

      Open an inventory detail record.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reconcile an inventory.
    Explanation
    In the EQUIPMENT INVENTORY LISTING window of the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support System, the option used to adjust any overages or shortages found in the Medical Equipment Office inventory is to reconcile an inventory. This process involves comparing the actual inventory with the recorded inventory and making necessary adjustments to correct any discrepancies. It ensures that the inventory records are accurate and up to date.

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  • 27. 

    Who approves an inventory certificate of justification?

    • A.

      Medical Equipment Management Office officer.

    • B.

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC).

    • C.

      Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.

    • D.

      Hospital administrator.

    Correct Answer
    C. Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander.
    Explanation
    The Medical treatment facility (MTF) commander is responsible for approving an inventory certificate of justification. This individual holds the highest authority within the medical treatment facility and has the final say in approving any inventory-related documents. They ensure that the inventory is justified and aligns with the needs and requirements of the facility.

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  • 28. 

    Who is responsible for maintaining a war reserve materiel (WRM) continuity file for each assigned WRM assemblage?

    • A.

      WRM Crew Chief.

    • B.

      Medical Readiness Officer.

    • C.

      Base medical WRM project offier.

    • D.

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC).

    Correct Answer
    A. WRM Crew Chief.
    Explanation
    The WRM Crew Chief is responsible for maintaining a war reserve materiel (WRM) continuity file for each assigned WRM assemblage. This means that they are in charge of keeping track of the necessary materials and supplies needed for wartime operations. The other options, such as the medical Readiness Officer, Base medical WRM project officer, and Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC), are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for maintaining the WRM continuity file. Therefore, the WRM Crew Chief is the correct answer.

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  • 29. 

    What war reserve materiel assemblage is considered the leading edge of the expeditionary medical support (EMEDS)?

    • A.

      Air transportable clinic (ATC).

    • B.

      Critical care air transport (CCAT).

    • C.

      Aeromedical staging facility (ASF).

    • D.

      Small portable expeditionary aeromedical rapid response (SPEARR).

    Correct Answer
    D. Small portable expeditionary aeromedical rapid response (SPEARR).
    Explanation
    The Small Portable Expeditionary Aeromedical Rapid Response (SPEARR) is considered the leading edge of the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) because it is designed to provide rapid and portable medical support in austere environments. It is specifically tailored for forward-deployed medical teams and can be quickly set up and dismantled. The SPEARR includes medical equipment, supplies, and facilities necessary for initial medical care and stabilization of patients before they can be transported to a higher level of care. Its compact size and mobility make it an essential component of expeditionary medical support in war zones or disaster areas.

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  • 30. 

    The last module of the small portable expeditionary aeromedical rapid response (SPEARR) is the

    • A.

      Mobile field surgical team (MFST).

    • B.

      Expeditionary critical care team (ECCT).

    • C.

      Preventice and aerospace medicine (PAM) team.

    • D.

      Expanded capability and infrastructure module (ECIM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Expanded capability and infrastructure module (ECIM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the expanded capability and infrastructure module (ECIM). This module is the last component of the small portable expeditionary aeromedical rapid response (SPEARR) system. The ECIM provides additional capabilities and resources to support medical operations in remote and austere environments. It includes facilities for surgical procedures, advanced medical equipment, and infrastructure for medical personnel to operate effectively. The ECIM is crucial in ensuring that the SPEARR system can provide comprehensive medical care in challenging conditions.

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  • 31. 

    What war reserve materiel program does Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) allowance strandard code (ASC) BA1 identify?

    • A.

      Biological warfare/chemical warfare (BW/CW).

    • B.

      Anti-malaria/hepatitis prophylaxis.

    • C.

      Wartime expansion.

    • D.

      Buddy care/self-aid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Biological warfare/chemical warfare (BW/CW).
    Explanation
    The Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) allowance standard code (ASC) BA1 identifies the war reserve materiel program for Biological warfare/chemical warfare (BW/CW). This means that the ASC BA1 is specifically used to track and manage the stockpile of medical supplies and equipment necessary for responding to and treating casualties in the event of a biological or chemical warfare situation.

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  • 32. 

    What type of unit does "FF" in the first two positions of a unit type code (UTC) identify?

    • A.

      Medical.

    • B.

      Security Forces.

    • C.

      Communications.

    • D.

      Civil engineering.

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Medical. In the first two positions of a unit type code (UTC), "FF" identifies the unit as belonging to the Medical category. This means that the unit is associated with medical services, such as healthcare, hospitals, or medical support.

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  • 33. 

    How many total 4A1 personnel taskings are associated with the expeditionary medical support (EMEDS) basic, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25 packages?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      Five.

    • D.

      Seven.

    Correct Answer
    B. Three.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is three because the question asks for the total number of 4A1 personnel taskings associated with three different packages: EMEDS basic, EMEDS +10, and EMEDS +25. Since each package has one personnel tasking, the total number of taskings is three.

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  • 34. 

    What document provides specific measurement standards for the unit C-level reporting?

    • A.

      Disaster Casualty Control Plan (DCCP)

    • B.

      USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    • C.

      Designed Operational Capabilities (DOC) Statement.

    • D.

      War Reserve Materiel (WRM) stock Status Report.

    Correct Answer
    C. Designed Operational Capabilities (DOC) Statement.
    Explanation
    The Designed Operational Capabilities (DOC) Statement provides specific measurement standards for C-level reporting. This document outlines the operational capabilities that an organization must have in order to achieve its objectives. It includes specific metrics and benchmarks that are used to assess the organization's performance and progress towards its goals. C-level reporting refers to the reporting done by top-level executives, such as the CEO or CFO, and the DOC Statement provides the standards and criteria against which their performance is evaluated.

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  • 35. 

    Which rated area (or areas) of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting are provided by Medical Logistics?

    • A.

      Training.

    • B.

      Personnel.

    • C.

      Supplies and equipment on-hand (WRM).

    • D.

      Training, personnel, and supplies and equipment on-hand (WRM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Supplies and equipment on-hand (WRM).
    Explanation
    Medical Logistics is responsible for providing information on the supplies and equipment on-hand (WRM) in the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting. This means that they are responsible for reporting the availability and inventory of medical supplies and equipment that are currently in stock and ready for use. They do not provide information on training or personnel in the SORTS reporting.

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  • 36. 

    Which Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-rating identifies a unit is fully trained and ready to undertake its full wartime mission?

    • A.

      C-1.

    • B.

      C-2.

    • C.

      C-3.

    • D.

      C-4.

    Correct Answer
    A. C-1.
    Explanation
    The C-1 rating in the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) indicates that a unit is fully trained and prepared to undertake its full wartime mission. This rating suggests that the unit has met all training requirements and possesses the necessary resources to effectively carry out its assigned tasks during wartime operations.

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  • 37. 

    What is a responsibility of a pilot unit?

    • A.

      Provide training and exercise schedule updates.

    • B.

      Submit and coordinate unit type code (UTC)/allowance standard (AS) changes.

    • C.

      Provide total materiel availability percentages to agencies having a need to know.

    • D.

      Establish a baseline for communication among the manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK)-responsible commands.

    Correct Answer
    B. Submit and coordinate unit type code (UTC)/allowance standard (AS) changes.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of a pilot unit is to submit and coordinate unit type code (UTC)/allowance standard (AS) changes. This means that the pilot unit is responsible for proposing and managing changes to the unit type code and allowance standard, which are important for determining the resources and equipment needed for a particular unit. By submitting and coordinating these changes, the pilot unit ensures that the unit has the necessary resources and equipment to fulfill its mission effectively.

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  • 38. 

    Which types of disasters are categorized as "wartime disasters?"

    • A.

      Accidental release of nuclear, biological, or chemical (NBC) agents.

    • B.

      Blizzards, tornadoes, and hurricanes.

    • C.

      Fires, floods, and earthquakes.

    • D.

      Use of NBC weapons.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use of NBC weapons.
    Explanation
    Wartime disasters refer to disasters that occur during times of war or armed conflict. The use of NBC weapons, which stands for nuclear, biological, or chemical weapons, is categorized as a wartime disaster because it involves deliberate and intentional actions to cause harm and destruction. The accidental release of NBC agents may also be disastrous, but it is not specifically categorized as a wartime disaster as it does not involve intentional use of weapons during armed conflict. Blizzards, tornadoes, hurricanes, fires, floods, and earthquakes are natural disasters and are not directly related to warfare.

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  • 39. 

    What automated information system (AIS) allows you to organize your projects by specifying your materiel requirements, including weight, dimension, and cube?

    • A.

      Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS).

    • B.

      DMLSS Assemblage Management (AM) stand-alone.

    • C.

      Mobile Medical Logistics (MOMEDLOG).

    • D.

      Logistics module (LOGMOD).

    Correct Answer
    D. Logistics module (LOGMOD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logistics module (LOGMOD). LOGMOD is an automated information system (AIS) that allows you to organize your projects by specifying your materiel requirements, including weight, dimension, and cube. It helps in managing and tracking logistics information related to projects and ensures efficient allocation of resources.

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  • 40. 

    Under the clinician-administered billogical warfare (BW)/chemical warfare (CW) war reserve materiel (WRM) program, how many grams of pralidoxime chloride are stored per eligible individual for chemical warfare?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      16.

    • D.

      30.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
  • 41. 

    Under the self-administered biological warfare (BW)/chemical warfare (CW) war reserve materiel (WRM) program, how many milligrams of atropine are authorized per eligible individual for chemical warefare?

    • A.

      2.8.

    • B.

      6.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      16.

    Correct Answer
    B. 6.
    Explanation
    Under the self-administered biological warfare (BW)/chemical warfare (CW) war reserve materiel (WRM) program, 6 milligrams of atropine are authorized per eligible individual for chemical warfare.

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  • 42. 

    When can you physically issue billogical warfare/chemical warfare assets?

    • A.

      You have excess assets available.

    • B.

      In cases of actual deployment only.

    • C.

      Only if a courier is available to sign for the assets.

    • D.

      If directed by the troop commander during an exercise.

    Correct Answer
    B. In cases of actual deployment only.
    Explanation
    Physically issuing billogical warfare/chemical warfare assets should only be done in cases of actual deployment. This means that the assets should only be used when there is a real need for them, such as during a war or a situation where their use is necessary for defense or offense. The other options, such as having excess assets available, having a courier to sign for the assets, or being directed by the troop commander during an exercise, do not guarantee the need for the assets and therefore should not be the basis for their physical issuance.

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  • 43. 

    What conditions must be met to establish or revise relationships between war reserve materiel (WRM) prime items and WRM substitute items?

    • A.

      Prime item does not have a WRM level, and substitute item does have a WRM level for the specific detachment and project.

    • B.

      Prime item does have a WRM level, and substitute item does not have a WRM level for the specific detachment and project.

    • C.

      A substitute item can be used for two different prime items in the same detachment and project.

    • D.

      An item can be both a prime and substitute inthe same detachment and project.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prime item does have a WRM level, and substitute item does not have a WRM level for the specific detachment and project.
    Explanation
    To establish or revise relationships between war reserve materiel (WRM) prime items and WRM substitute items, the condition that must be met is that the prime item has a WRM level, while the substitute item does not have a WRM level for the specific detachment and project. This means that the prime item is designated as the primary choice for use in the specific detachment and project, while the substitute item is not considered as part of the WRM inventory for that specific situation.

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  • 44. 

    Minimally, how often should you compute war reserve materiel requirements and levels for each assemblage?

    • A.

      Quarterly.

    • B.

      Semiannually.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Biannually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually.
    Explanation
    War reserve materiel requirements and levels should be computed annually. This means that the calculations and assessments for the necessary reserve materials and their quantities should be done once every year. This ensures that the inventory is regularly updated and maintained to meet the potential demands of a war or emergency situation. Computing these requirements and levels on an annual basis allows for adjustments and updates to be made based on changes in operational needs, technology advancements, and other relevant factors.

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  • 45. 

    What items are included in the budget funding request for war reserve materiel assemblages?

    • A.

      Investment equipment.

    • B.

      Centrally managed items.

    • C.

      Approved deferred procurement (DP) items.

    • D.

      WRM requirements for a satellite medical treatment facility (MTF).

    Correct Answer
    D. WRM requirements for a satellite medical treatment facility (MTF).
    Explanation
    The budget funding request for war reserve materiel assemblages includes WRM requirements for a satellite medical treatment facility (MTF). This means that the funding request includes the necessary resources and equipment needed to support a satellite medical treatment facility in times of war or conflict. This could include medical supplies, equipment, and personnel necessary to provide medical care and treatment in a remote or temporary facility.

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  • 46. 

    What type of war reserve materiel project items should be reviewed for immediate funding?

    • A.

      Peacetime operating stock (POS).

    • B.

      Deferred procurement (DP).

    • C.

      Critical items.

    • D.

      Dated items.

    Correct Answer
    C. Critical items.
    Explanation
    Critical items should be reviewed for immediate funding in a war reserve materiel project. Critical items refer to those that are essential for the success of a military operation or mission. These items are crucial for maintaining operational readiness and ensuring the effectiveness of the armed forces. Therefore, prioritizing funding for critical items is necessary to ensure that the military has the necessary resources to respond to any potential threats or conflicts.

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  • 47. 

    What Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support appication fo you use to control funding for war reserve materiel (WRM) assemblages?

    • A.

      Assemblage Management (AM).

    • B.

      Inventory management (IM).

    • C.

      Customer Support (CS).

    • D.

      System Services (SS).

    Correct Answer
    D. System Services (SS).
    Explanation
    System Services (SS) is the correct answer because it is the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support application used to control funding for war reserve materiel (WRM) assemblages. The other options, such as Assemblage Management (AM), Inventory Management (IM), and Customer Support (CS), do not specifically mention the control of funding for WRM assemblages. Therefore, System Services (SS) is the most appropriate choice for this purpose.

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  • 48. 

    The Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system calculates replenishment quantities to meet a target dollar amount by

    • A.

      Sorting all critical shortage items from highest cost to lowest.

    • B.

      Sorting all critical shortage items from lowest cost to highest.

    • C.

      Ordering the entire shortage quantity of each item from highest cost to lowest.

    • D.

      Ordering the entire shortage quantity of each item until the cost exceeds the available balance.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sorting all critical shortage items from lowest cost to highest.
    Explanation
    The Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system calculates replenishment quantities to meet a target dollar amount by sorting all critical shortage items from lowest cost to highest. This means that the system prioritizes the items with the lowest cost first when determining the quantities to be replenished. By doing so, it ensures that the target dollar amount is met while also addressing the critical shortage items efficiently.

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  • 49. 

    What type of assemblage requirements is processed from the Defense Modical Logical Logistics Standard Suppot (DMLSS) REPLENISHMENT LIST window?

    • A.

      Other procurement (OP).

    • B.

      Non-critical item shortages.

    • C.

      Vendor-managed inventory (VMI).

    • D.

      Centrally managed equipment (CME).

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-critical item shortages.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Non-critical item shortages. This is because the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) Replenishment List window processes the assemblage requirements for non-critical item shortages. It does not handle other procurement (OP), vendor-managed inventory (VMI), or centrally managed equipment (CME) requirements.

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  • 50. 

    What category(ies) of deferred procurement (DP) is available in the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system?

    • A.

      Air Force Medical Logistics Operation Center (AFMLOC), vendor-managed inventory (VMI), and locally deferred.

    • B.

      VMI and locally deferred.

    • C.

      Locally deferred.

    • D.

      VMI.

    Correct Answer
    B. VMI and locally deferred.
    Explanation
    The Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system offers two categories of deferred procurement (DP): vendor-managed inventory (VMI) and locally deferred. VMI refers to a system where the vendor is responsible for managing and replenishing the inventory based on agreed-upon levels, while locally deferred means that the procurement is delayed and handled locally. Therefore, the correct answer is VMI and locally deferred.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Derby126
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