3S071 CDCs Vol 1, 2 & 3 UREs Practice Test

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1. Once an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the

Explanation

Once an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the military personnel section/military personnel flight. This is because the military personnel section/flight is responsible for a wide range of administrative tasks related to personnel management, such as processing personnel actions, maintaining personnel records, and providing support for military assignments and deployments. Reporting to this section/flight ensures that the Airman's arrival is properly documented and their personnel-related needs are addressed.

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3S071 CDCs Vol 1, 2 & 3 UREs Practice Test - Quiz

Practice all three volume URE's all in one.
3S071-01-0911, edit code 01

2. Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced

Explanation

Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced daily to ensure accurate and up-to-date record-keeping of transactions. By generating TRs on a daily basis, businesses can track and monitor their financial activities on a regular basis, allowing them to identify any discrepancies or errors promptly. This frequent production of TRs also enables businesses to have real-time information about their transactions, making it easier for them to make informed decisions and maintain financial transparency. Additionally, daily TRs provide a comprehensive overview of a company's financial health and aid in the preparation of financial statements and reports.

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3. In August 2005, Hurricane Katrina, one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time, hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

Explanation

During the natural disaster of Hurricane Katrina in August 2005, the agency that was activated to provide assistance was the Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau. The Air National Guard is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and is responsible for providing support and assistance during emergencies and disasters. In this case, they would have been mobilized to help with search and rescue operations, transportation of supplies and personnel, and other critical tasks needed to respond to the hurricane and its aftermath.

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4. A transaction register (TR) is a standard product designed and controlled by HQ

Explanation

The correct answer is AFPC. AFPC stands for Air Force Personnel Center, which is responsible for managing the personnel data and transactions of Air Force members. The statement suggests that a transaction register is a standard product that is designed and controlled by HQ (Headquarters), and AFPC is the organization within the Air Force that would be most likely to fulfill this role.

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5. Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move form Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas?

Explanation

The reason why the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) moved from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas is to bring two centers together in order to focus on operationalizing personnel by merging permanent authorizations, wartime requirements, and assignments under a single commander. This move was made to streamline operations and improve efficiency by consolidating the functions of the two centers.

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6. It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because

Explanation

Maintaining a hard copy of the accountability file is imperative because electronic information can be lost at any time due to various reasons such as equipment malfunction, operator error, sabotage, damage, environment, or loss of power source. This highlights the importance of having a physical copy as a backup to ensure that the accountability information is not lost or inaccessible in case of any electronic failures or issues.

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7. The total force is represented by

Explanation

The correct answer is "active duty, guard, and reserves". This answer includes all three components of the total force, which are the active duty personnel, the National Guard, and the reserves. These three components together make up the total force of the military. The other options only include a subset of these components and do not represent the complete total force.

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8. When dealing with classified amterial why is it important to develop and implement control measures?

Explanation

Developing and implementing control measures when dealing with classified material is important to decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. By having control measures in place, such as restricted access, proper storage, and tracking of individuals handling the material, it helps to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the information. This reduces the risk of unauthorized disclosure or theft of classified information, which could have serious consequences for national security or the safety of individuals involved.

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9. If you were providing guidance to an enlisted retraining customer and the customer asked about the duties and responsibilities of a specific Air Force specialty code (AFSC), what reference would you refer to?

Explanation

The Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) would be the appropriate reference to provide guidance on the duties and responsibilities of a specific Air Force specialty code (AFSC). This directory contains detailed information about each AFSC, including job descriptions, qualifications, and career progression. It serves as a comprehensive resource for enlisted personnel and those seeking retraining opportunities. The AFECD is regularly updated to reflect changes in AFSCs and ensure accurate and up-to-date information is available to the enlisted force.

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10. The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is

Explanation

The correct answer is "citizen Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power." This answer accurately reflects the vision of the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), which emphasizes the involvement of citizen Airmen in maintaining global vigilance, reach, and power. The term "Airmen" refers to both officers and enlisted personnel in the Air Force, highlighting the inclusiveness of the AFRC's vision.

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11. When communicating a message, why is it important to have success with your audience?

Explanation

It is important to have success with your audience when communicating a message because it ensures that they will pay attention long enough to receive and understand the message that you are sending. Without their attention and understanding, the message may be lost or misunderstood, leading to ineffective communication. By capturing their attention and ensuring comprehension, you can effectively convey your message and achieve the desired outcome.

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12. Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment

Explanation

Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment overseas. This suggests that the requirement for weapons training is specifically for those who are being sent to locations outside of their home country. The mention of specific Air Force bases in different states further supports the idea that these assignments are not within the United States. Therefore, the correct answer is "overseas."

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13. Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or TDY, in the 623a?

Explanation

The documentation of interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or TDY, is important because if the trainee is having difficulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced. This allows the UTM or AFCFM to review the dates of interruptions and assess if they may have contributed to the trainee's difficulties. By referencing the documentation, they can better understand the trainee's training progress and make any necessary adjustments or provide additional support as needed.

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14. When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the

Explanation

When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the Governor. The Air National Guard is a reserve component of the United States Air Force, and its primary role is to provide support to the states during emergencies and natural disasters. The Governor is the highest-ranking official in the state and is responsible for the overall management and coordination of the state's resources, including the National Guard. Therefore, when the ANG units are not under federal control, they report to the Governor for operational direction and command.

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15. The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve component forces. What does "calling up" do to the active duty's military capability?

Explanation

Calling up Reserve component forces increases the active duty's military capability. This is because mobilization allows for the integration of additional personnel and resources from the Reserve component into active duty operations. By bringing in these reserve forces, the active duty military can enhance its overall capability and capacity to conduct missions and operations.

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16. All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process, except

Explanation

The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable CFETP requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, developing a Master Training Plan (MTP) is not listed as one of the trainee's responsibilities.

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17. Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section?

Explanation

After receiving the assignment rip on a member, the unit commander has a time limit before the rip is required to be returned to the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section. In this case, the correct answer is 14 days.

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18. Air Resereve component members on a man-day tour will comply with the dress and apperance standards of the

Explanation

The correct answer is "active force." This means that Air Reserve component members on a man-day tour will follow the dress and appearance standards of the active force. This implies that they will adhere to the same standards as active duty personnel in terms of how they dress and present themselves.

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19. Which office is responsible to update the reenlistment and extension DJMS transaction?

Explanation

The office responsible for updating the reenlistment and extension DJMS transaction is the reenlistments office. They handle all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to reenlisting or extending a service member's contract. This office ensures that the information is accurately recorded in the DJMS system, which is used to track personnel and their assignments.

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20. During peacetime, the Air National Guard's (ANG) combat-ready units and support units are assigned to most Air Force MAJCOMs to carry out missions compatible with  

Explanation

The correct answer is training, mobilization readiness, and contingency operations. During peacetime, the Air National Guard's combat-ready units and support units are assigned to various Air Force MAJCOMs to carry out missions that are compatible with these three objectives. This means that the ANG is responsible for conducting training exercises, maintaining readiness for mobilization, and being prepared for contingency operations. These tasks ensure that the ANG is prepared to respond effectively in times of crisis or conflict.

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21. If a trainee completes the mandatory CDC's, are signed off on all core tasks identified in their CFEPT and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor, have completed a minimum of 15 months in upgrade training (UGT), and they have been recommended by their supervisor and approved by their commander, this trainee is working towards which level of upgrade training (UGT)?

Explanation

A trainee who completes the mandatory CDC's, is signed off on all core tasks identified in their CFEPT and other duty position tasks, has completed a minimum of 15 months in upgrade training (UGT), and has been recommended by their supervisor and approved by their commander, is considered to be working towards the level of upgrade training known as Journeyman.

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22. When confirming a person's level of access to classified information, why is it imperative to complete the four-step process?

Explanation

The four-step process is imperative to complete when confirming a person's level of access to classified information because each step plays a crucial role in the "checks and balance" process. If any step is skipped or not completed, it can lead to a breakdown in the overall security system. Without completing all the steps, the request cannot be properly processed, resulting in the person being denied access. Additionally, if the process is not followed correctly, it would require starting the entire process over again, causing delays and potential security risks.

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23. What would happen if an individual brought reenlistment paperwork into the reenlistments clerk and the clerk did not update MilPDS?

Explanation

If an individual brought reenlistment paperwork to the reenlistments clerk but the clerk did not update MilPDS, several consequences would occur. Firstly, the reenlistment would not be updated, meaning that the individual's reenlistment status would not be recognized or recorded. Secondly, no DJMS (Defense Joint Military Pay System) action would be produced, indicating that the necessary administrative tasks related to the reenlistment, such as updating the individual's personnel and pay information, would not be carried out. Thirdly, no update would flow to finance, resulting in a lack of communication regarding the individual's pay and financial matters. Lastly, as a result of these failures, the individual's pay would stop, causing a disruption in their income.

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24. The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

Explanation

The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities. This means that the concept aims to distribute the available Air Force UTCs (Unit Type Codes) in a fair and balanced manner across the 10 AEFs. By doing so, each AEF will have the same level of capabilities, ensuring that the Air Force can effectively respond to various missions and tasks in a balanced and efficient manner.

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25. What is the E63 update used for?

Explanation

The E63 update is used to update a reenlistment or extension to DFAS. This means that it is a process or procedure that allows for the necessary changes or updates to be made to a reenlistment or extension record and ensure that the information is accurately reflected in the DFAS (Defense Finance and Accounting Service) system.

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26. Which office does AF/A1 communicate new AF manpower requirements to?

Explanation

AF/A1M is the correct answer because AF/A1 is responsible for manpower requirements and AF/A1M specifically deals with manpower management. Therefore, AF/A1M is the office that AF/A1 communicates new AF manpower requirements to.

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27. American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

Explanation

American military power plays a vital role in peace, crisis, and conflict situations. However, it does not directly influence politics. While military power can indirectly shape political decisions, it is ultimately the politicians and policymakers who determine the direction of the country. Therefore, American military power is not directly involved in politics.

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28. If an individual is showing up on the MAP2-Enhancements-HYT, what conclusion can we make?

Explanation

If an individual is showing up on the MAP2-Enhancements-HYT, it can be concluded that the individual is within 1 year of their HYT (High Year of Tenure) and their reenlistment code does not reflect the correct code. This means that the individual is approaching the maximum allowable length of service and their reenlistment code, which determines their eligibility for continued service, is not accurately reflecting their situation.

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29. The following documents are located in the relocation folder except

Explanation

The correct answer is "decoration citation" because the question asks for the document that is NOT located in the relocation folder. The assignment selection letter, message, or rip, reassignment orders and all amendments, and relocation processing memorandum are all mentioned as being located in the relocation folder. However, the decoration citation is not mentioned as being part of the relocation folder.

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30. If a member's assignment requires a highter or maore current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element forward to the member's commander?

Explanation

The Career Development element forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's commander when their assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the one on file.

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31. Which element/function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status for promotion?

Explanation

The career development element is responsible for identifying all assigned officers and verifying their eligibility status for promotion. This element focuses on the professional growth and advancement of officers within the organization. It ensures that officers meet the necessary criteria and qualifications for promotion, such as completing required training, gaining relevant experience, and meeting performance standards. By overseeing the career development process, this element plays a crucial role in identifying eligible officers for promotion and supporting their professional growth.

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32. When performing the E6C update on tthe Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS), if the individual is in "T" status, why is it important to correct the status to "A" status before completing the update?

Explanation

If the individual is in "T" status and the update is performed without correcting the status to "A" status, it will result in a reject at DFAS. This means that the update will not be accepted or processed by DFAS, causing potential issues or delays in the payment system. It is important to correct the status to "A" before completing the update to ensure that it is successfully processed without any rejections.

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33. If a member is PCSing to a stateside assignment, he/she can outprocess no earlier than

Explanation

A member who is PCSing (permanent change of station) to a stateside assignment can outprocess no earlier than 1 duty day prior to their departure date. This means that they must complete all necessary administrative tasks and paperwork related to their move on the day before they are scheduled to leave. It is important for the member to ensure they have enough time to complete their outprocessing requirements while also allowing for any last-minute preparations or unforeseen circumstances that may arise before their departure.

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34. In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact?

Explanation

In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty representative will first contact the casualty team. This is because the casualty team is responsible for coordinating and managing the response to casualties, including providing medical care, transportation, and communication with other agencies and organizations involved in the response. They are trained and equipped to handle the immediate needs of casualties and ensure an organized and effective response to the incident.

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35. If a member's legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?

Explanation

The personnelist is responsible for providing personal support to the member. This means ensuring that their legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are being met. If any of these needs are not being fulfilled, it indicates that the personnelist is not fulfilling their responsibility of providing personal support.

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36. If a fimily member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment?

Explanation

The correct answer is humanitarian. In the event of a family member's death, the casualty representative's role is to provide support and assistance to the affected member. This includes informing them about the opportunity to apply for a humanitarian assignment, which is a type of assignment that allows military personnel to be relocated to a different location for compassionate reasons such as taking care of family or dealing with personal hardships.

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37. For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, the Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the directorate of

Explanation

HQ AFPC contacts the directorate of Civilian Force Integration for assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders. This suggests that the directorate of Civilian Force Integration is responsible for coordinating and integrating civilian personnel into the Air Force. They likely have the expertise and resources to handle the recruitment and training of interns, ensuring that they are well-prepared to become future leaders in the Air Force.

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38. The personnel readiness function serves as the military personnel flight/military personnel section war planner for personnel for all of the following except

Explanation

The personnel readiness function is responsible for planning personnel for deployments, exercises, and contingencies. However, it does not serve as the war planner for assignment limitation codes. Assignment limitation codes are used to restrict or limit the assignment of military personnel based on various factors such as medical conditions, security clearances, or specific skills. Therefore, the correct answer is assignment limitation codes.

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39. When Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help with information technology, which directorate assists?

Explanation

When Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help with information technology, the directorate that assists is Personnel Data Systems. This directorate is responsible for managing and maintaining the personnel data systems within the Air Force. They provide support and assistance with information technology needs related to personnel data and systems.

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40. The sustainment phase is

Explanation

The sustainment phase is a transition phase from the build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operation force has arrived and completed processing actions. This means that during the sustainment phase, the main force is in place and ready to carry out operations, as they have completed all necessary preparations and processing. It is a crucial phase in the overall operation as it marks the transition from the initial build-up to the full operational capability of the force.

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41. The duties and responsibilities of the craftsman and the superintendent include allof the following except

Explanation

The duties and responsibilities of the craftsman and the superintendent encompass a range of tasks related to personnel management. They are responsible for creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, performing personnel actions, and providing casualty assistance. However, they are not expected to advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs. This task likely falls under the purview of another role or department within the organization.

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42. Whose responsibility is ti to ensure up to date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?

Explanation

The commander is responsible for ensuring that an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post. This is because the commander is in charge of overall unit operations and readiness. They need to have accurate information about the availability and location of their personnel in case of emergencies or recall situations. By maintaining and forwarding the unit recall roster, the commander can ensure that the command post has the necessary information to effectively respond to any situation.

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43. What is the main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the personnel reliabiltiy program?

Explanation

The main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the personnel reliability program is to monitor the reliability of the supervisees and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information. This ensures that the program maintains a high level of personnel reliability and identifies any individuals who may be unfit for their roles due to disqualifying information. Supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring the integrity and effectiveness of the personnel reliability program by actively monitoring and reporting any potential issues.

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44. You have just been notified that you will be working as a master sergeant (MSgt) superintendent (9-level) over a section, and you will supervise two technical sergeants (TSgt) craftsmen and four staff sergeant (SSgt) craftsmen. What reference will tell you how their duties and responsibilityes differ?

Explanation

The Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) would provide information on how the duties and responsibilities of different ranks, such as master sergeant (MSgt), technical sergeant (TSgt), and staff sergeant (SSgt), differ. It is a reference that outlines the various enlisted career fields, their requirements, and the responsibilities associated with each rank. It would be the most appropriate resource to consult in order to understand the specific duties and responsibilities of the individuals under your supervision.

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45. SrA Jones recently got married and her name is showing on MAP5. Why?

Explanation

SrA Jones' name is showing on MAP5 because she married another military member. This is likely because when military members marry each other, their information is updated in the military's database to reflect the change in their marital status. Therefore, SrA Jones' name is now appearing on MAP5 as a result of her marriage to another military member.

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46. For ill or injured casualties, all of the following personal informaion may be released except

Explanation

The personal information that may be released for ill or injured casualties includes name and gender, rank, date of rank, commission source, and promotion number, and date entered active duty. However, the social security number should not be released as it is sensitive and can be used for identity theft or other malicious purposes.

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47. If a reception control center has not been esablished, whose responsibility is it to coordinate with all of the deployed support agencies involved in the processing of personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is the personnel support for contingency operation team. In the absence of a reception control center, it is the responsibility of the personnel support for contingency operation team to coordinate with all the deployed support agencies involved in the processing of personnel. This team is specifically trained and equipped to handle the coordination and support required in contingency operations.

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48. If Lt Smith walkd into your office and askes a question, but you cannot locate his record in MilPDS, what could this mean?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that if Lt Smith is unable to be located in MilPDS, it could mean that he is an AFROTC accession and his personnel record has not been built yet. This means that Lt Smith may have recently joined the Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) program and his official personnel record has not been created or updated in the military personnel database system (MilPDS) yet.

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49. HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air force people and

Explanation

The correct answer is "meet field commander requirements". This answer aligns with the overall purpose of HQ AFPC, which is to integrate and execute personnel operations to develop Air Force personnel and meet the needs of field commanders. By meeting field commander requirements, HQ AFPC ensures that the Air Force has the necessary personnel capabilities to execute both wartime and home station operations effectively. This answer also encompasses the goal of aligning with AF/A1's strategic goals, as meeting field commander requirements is a crucial part of achieving overall strategic objectives.

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50. Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) mission is to provide citizen airmen to defend the US and protect its interests through

Explanation

The correct answer is "air and space power." The Air Force Reserve Command's mission is to provide citizen airmen who are trained and equipped to defend the United States and protect its interests. This includes utilizing air and space power to achieve these objectives.

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51. The duties of the superintendent include all of the following except

Explanation

The duties of the superintendent include advising officers and Airmen on military personnel issues and programs, creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, and providing casualty assistance. However, performing dormitory checks is not listed as one of the duties of the superintendent.

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52. When Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help to faciliate the professional development of all enlisted members an officers below the grade of colonel, which directorate assists?

Explanation

The Assignments directorate assists when HQ AFPC requires help to facilitate the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel. This directorate is responsible for managing and coordinating assignments for Air Force personnel, ensuring they are placed in positions that align with their skills, qualifications, and career goals. They work closely with individuals and their supervisors to ensure a smooth transition and maximize professional development opportunities.

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53. For deceased casualties, all of the following personal information may be released except

Explanation

The correct answer is "any information on the member's family". When dealing with deceased casualties, personal information such as pay date, military base pay, allowances, age, date of birth, and home of record can be released. However, information regarding the member's family should not be disclosed. This is likely done to respect the privacy and confidentiality of the deceased member's family members.

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54. What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

Explanation

The basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces is the unit type code. Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as squadrons, wings, or groups. These codes provide a common language and framework for organizing and deploying forces, allowing for efficient planning and coordination. By using unit type codes, military planners can easily identify the capabilities and requirements of different units, ensuring that the right forces are deployed at the right time and place.

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55. If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AFIMT form mush he/she utilize?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1058. The AFIMT form 1058 is utilized by a commander to initiate removal actions from the control roster. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized process for documenting and initiating the removal actions. It ensures that the necessary information is collected and properly recorded for the removal process to proceed efficiently and accurately.

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56. How many officer and enlisted personnel, who serve 37 flying wings, does Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) have?

Explanation

Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) has a total of 74,000 officer and enlisted personnel who serve 37 flying wings.

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57. How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes her/her final decision?

Explanation

An active duty member, whether enlisted or officer, has a total of 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions and provide relevant information before the commander makes the final decision. This timeframe allows the member sufficient time to review and respond to the intended actions, ensuring that their input is considered before any final decisions are made.

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58. How many aircraft does the Air Foce Reserve Command (AFRC) have assigned to it?

Explanation

The Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) has 440 aircraft assigned to it.

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59. The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?

Explanation

The Reserves bring talent, depth, and experience to the military environment from their civilian employment. This means that they have valuable skills and expertise that they can contribute to their military roles. Additionally, their depth refers to their ability to provide a wider range of capabilities and resources. Lastly, their experience allows them to bring a wealth of knowledge and lessons learned from their civilian jobs, which can be applied to their military service.

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60. Where is tha AF IMT 907 kept?

Explanation

The AF IMT 907 is kept in the relocation folder.

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61. Why is it important to fight for feedback in effective communication?

Explanation

Feedback is important in effective communication because it helps to make the coordination process smoother. By seeking feedback, you are able to identify any areas of improvement or misunderstanding in your communication. Additionally, having a second pair of eyes to review your communication can provide valuable insights and perspectives that you may have missed. This can help to ensure that your message is clear, concise, and easily understandable to others.

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62. Where the Air and Space Expeditionary Task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it will normally organizes as an  

Explanation

The correct answer is "air and expeditionary wing." The air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions. When organizing, it typically forms an air and expeditionary wing.

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63. Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are ocmmonly referred to as

Explanation

The correct answer is "military personnel appropriation man-days" because it accurately describes the days that are allocated for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen. It suggests that these days are specifically set aside for military personnel and are allocated through an appropriation process.

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64. When Headquarters Air force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help with updating new unit type codes (UTC) and posturing, which directorate assists?

Explanation

The directorate that assists Headquarters Air force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with updating new unit type codes (UTC) and posturing is Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.

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65. Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the

Explanation

Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the 1920s and 30s. This is because the Air National Guard was officially established on September 18, 1947, as a separate reserve component of the United States Air Force. However, many of the units that make up the Air National Guard have a history that dates back to the 1920s and 30s when aviation was still in its early stages. During this time, various flying units were formed, which eventually became part of the Air National Guard when it was created in 1947.

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66. If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, what actions can they take?

Explanation

If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request retention on active duty. This means that they can ask to continue serving in the military beyond their initial activation period in order to alleviate the hardship they are facing. This option allows them to maintain their active duty status and continue receiving the benefits and support provided by the military. It provides them with a solution to address the challenges they are experiencing due to their mobilization.

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67. Man-day tours usually include how many travel days?

Explanation

Man-day tours usually include a maximum of one travel day. This means that the tour is designed to be completed within a single day, without any additional travel days. It could involve visiting multiple locations or attractions within that day, but the tour itself does not extend beyond a single day.

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68. The Air National Guard is a very important component of the total force in

Explanation

The Air National Guard plays a crucial role in offensive, defensive, and relief operations. They are responsible for providing support and assistance in offensive operations, such as air strikes and combat missions. They also contribute to defensive operations by protecting airspace and conducting surveillance. Additionally, they play a vital role in relief operations during natural disasters or emergencies, providing aid and support to affected areas. Their involvement in all three types of operations highlights their importance as a component of the total force.

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69. Once the military processing flight receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requesta a report individual person, how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropiate agency?

Explanation

Once the military processing flight receives the hardship package, they are required to review the package and request a report on the individual person. They have a specific timeframe within which they must forward the package to the appropriate agency. In this case, the correct answer is "three duty days," indicating that they have three working days to complete this task.

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70. Which office defines the culture of Airmen, including core standards and values and expectations?

Explanation

AF/A1D is the correct answer because this office is responsible for defining the culture of Airmen, including core standards, values, and expectations. They play a crucial role in shaping the organizational culture and ensuring that Airmen adhere to the established norms and values.

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71. If a member is going contingency TDY, which element will handle their outprocessing relocation procedures?

Explanation

When a member is going contingency TDY (Temporary Duty), their outprocessing relocation procedures will be handled by the personnel readiness element. This element is responsible for ensuring that military personnel are prepared and ready for their assignments, which includes coordinating their movements and processing their paperwork for relocation.

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72. When granting an individual access to classified information why is it important to use the SF 312. Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (NdA)?

Explanation

The SF 312 Nondisclosure Agreement is important when granting access to classified information because it serves as a source document that is signed and dated by the individual. This document reflects the date when the individual completed the attestation, ensuring that there is a record of their commitment to not disclose classified information. This helps to establish accountability and provides a legal basis for taking action if the individual violates the agreement.

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73. If an inbound contacts customer service stating they have not been assigned a sponsor, their name should be reflected on MAP

Explanation

If a customer contacts customer service stating that they have not been assigned a sponsor, their name should be reflected on MAP. This suggests that MAP is a system or platform that keeps track of assigned sponsors for customers. Therefore, if a customer's name is not showing up on MAP, it indicates that they have not been assigned a sponsor. Answer 7A implies that the customer's name should be reflected on MAP if they have not been assigned a sponsor.

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74. In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using the

Explanation

The correct answer is "demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher." This is because when documenting deactivation or demobilization for special orders and travel vouchers, the demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher are used. These documents provide the necessary authorization and proof of the demobilization process.

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75. Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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76. What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions?

Explanation

Assignment availability codes are used in the military to indicate the availability of service members for assignments. Adverse actions refer to disciplinary actions taken against service members for misconduct or poor performance. The correct answer, 12 and 16, suggests that these two assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions. This means that service members with these codes may be restricted or limited in their assignment options due to disciplinary reasons.

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77. The Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct was designed where Airmen should no have to deploy more than once every

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct was designed to minimize the frequency of deployments for Airmen. The correct answer is 20 months, indicating that Airmen should not have to deploy more than once every 20 months. This ensures that Airmen have sufficient time to rest, recover, and spend time with their families between deployments, while still maintaining readiness and operational capabilities.

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78. Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to DCS/A1 by managing workflow and tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, managing personnel programs and maintaining unit level records?

Explanation

AF/A1Z is the office responsible for providing administrative support to DCS/A1 by managing workflow and tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, managing personnel programs, and maintaining unit level records.

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79. When a certifying official is conducting a personal interview of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program, the interview will cover, as a minimum all of the following except

Explanation

During a personal interview for candidates and members of the personnel reliability program, the certifying official will cover several aspects. They will discuss the significance of the PRP assignment and emphasize the need for reliable performance. The interview will also provide an opportunity for individuals to disclose any potentially disqualifying information. However, asking about their marital status, where they were married, and the date of their marriage is not relevant to the interview process and therefore would not be covered.

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80. If the President or Congress would expand the active armed forces not to exceed 1,000,000 forces for not more than 24 consecutive months, they would elect what type of mobilization?

Explanation

If the President or Congress were to increase the active armed forces to a maximum of 1,000,000 forces for a period of 24 consecutive months, it would be considered a partial mobilization. This means that while there is an expansion of the armed forces, it is not a full-scale mobilization involving the entire military. Instead, it is a limited increase in forces for a specific period of time.

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81. When HQ AFPC nedds to communicate with the rest of the AF, how many directorates do tehy have to choose from?

Explanation

HQ AFPC (Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center) needs to communicate with the rest of the Air Force, and they have seven directorates to choose from. This implies that there are seven different departments or divisions within HQ AFPC that handle specific areas of communication and coordination with the rest of the Air Force.

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82. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) alignment is documented in the military personnel data system and each Airman is issued a/an

Explanation

The correct answer is AEF identification card. The explanation for this answer is that the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) alignment is documented in the military personnel data system, and each Airman is issued an AEF identification card to verify their affiliation with a specific AEF. This card serves as a form of identification and allows Airmen to access certain resources and facilities while deployed or on temporary duty assignments. It is an essential document for Airmen to carry during their service.

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83. Which activity is responsible for maintaining accurate strenght data on personnel resources?

Explanation

Personnel accountability is responsible for maintaining accurate strength data on personnel resources. This activity involves keeping track of personnel, their whereabouts, and their status within an organization. By ensuring that accurate records are maintained, personnel accountability helps to ensure that the organization has an up-to-date understanding of its available personnel resources, which is crucial for effective planning and decision-making.

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84. The Air Force organized its total force into how many ari and space expeditionary forces?

Explanation

The Air Force organized its total force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces.

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85. Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name

Explanation

Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This means that commanders can search for enlisted promotions results using various criteria such as the individual's name, the MAJCOM they belong to, the unit they are assigned to, their line number, their AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), their PAS code (Personnel Accounting Symbol code), and their state or country of residence.

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86. The Career Development element at the Military Personnel Setion will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of the following except

Explanation

The Career Development element at the Military Personnel Section will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the board convening date, the name and rank of the most junior officer, and the name and rank of the most senior officer. However, it will not include the name and rank of the board president.

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87. If a new military personnel section (MPS) commander looks at the MPS's file monitor TR and sees an excessive amount of data in overdue status, what cna he/she conclude?

Explanation

The excessive amount of data in overdue status suggests that the Military Personnel Section (MPS) commander did not complete their updates in a timely manner. This means that they did not update the necessary information in the system, leading to transactions being left overdue.

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88. When AF/A1 is looking for the field operating agency (FOA) that measures and manages the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital through an effective performance management system, they contact

Explanation

AF/A1 is looking for an agency that measures and manages the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital through a performance management system. The Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA) is the most suitable option for this role as it focuses on personnel operations and has the responsibility of managing and overseeing the performance management system within the Air Force. The other options, Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA), Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC), and Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC), may have different responsibilities and may not specifically focus on performance management.

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89. When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the member's eligibility?

Explanation

When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, they have 7 days to verify the member's eligibility. This means that they need to review the information and ensure that the member meets all the necessary criteria for the assignment. It is important for them to do this within the given timeframe to ensure that the assignment process runs smoothly and the member is properly qualified for the position.

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90. Local emergencies or overages may be the basis for an airman's prolonged assignment outside of the normal career progression pattern. To negate any career regression, assignments should be rotated between

Explanation

In order to prevent career regression, assignments should be rotated among all airmen in the same CAFSC (Career Air Force Specialty Code). This means that all airmen with the same specialty should have the opportunity to be assigned to different positions or locations, regardless of their specific DAFSC (Duty Air Force Specialty Code) or rank. This ensures that airmen have the chance to gain diverse experiences and continue to progress in their careers, even in cases where there are local emergencies or overages that require them to be assigned outside of the normal career progression pattern.

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91. The wide scope of work activites and functions that the superintendent is responsible for include all of the following except

Explanation

The superintendent is responsible for a wide range of work activities and functions, such as planning, coordinating, and implementing tasks. However, control is not included in their responsibilities. Control typically involves monitoring and regulating the progress and quality of work, which is usually the role of a supervisor or manager. The superintendent focuses more on overseeing the overall operations and ensuring that tasks are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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92. After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military member's?

Explanation

After a casualty, the CAR needs to fax the DD Form 93, SGLV 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI. These documents are necessary for reporting and processing the casualty information and ensuring that the military member's benefits and insurance claims are handled correctly. The DD Form 93 is the Record of Emergency Data, which provides information about the member's personal affairs and beneficiary designations. The SGLV 8286 is the Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Election and Certificate, which outlines the member's life insurance coverage. The DD Form 4 is the Enlistment/Reenlistment Document, which contains important personal and service information. The other VA forms related to SGLI may include additional insurance-related documents that need to be submitted for processing.

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93. AF/A1 utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy, AF/A1P, to communicate all of the following execpt

Explanation

The correct answer is "developing programs that help commanders meet their Airman's needs." This is because AF/A1 utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy, AF/A1P, to communicate various things such as developing objectives, performing analysis, and developing force management policies. However, developing programs that help commanders meet their Airman's needs is not one of the things communicated through AF/A1P.

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94. Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the

Explanation

Joint operations planning is a critical process that involves coordinating and integrating military operations across different branches of the armed forces. It is conducted within the chain of command, which means that it follows a hierarchical structure. The president is the commander-in-chief and holds the highest authority in the chain of command. The Secretary of Defense, as a key member of the president's cabinet, is responsible for overseeing the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in joint operations planning. Therefore, the Secretary of Defense is the correct answer as they hold the position within the chain of command that runs from the president.

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95. Which element/function updates the duty status for all contengency TDYs?

Explanation

The personnel readiness function is responsible for updating the duty status for all contingency TDYs. This element is in charge of ensuring that personnel are ready and available for deployment or temporary duty assignments. They track the status of individuals and make updates as necessary to reflect their availability for duty. This function plays a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and preparedness of personnel for contingency operations.

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96. If a member is projected to PDX and receives a demotion, what MAP can the Career Development Section use in order to ensure database integrity?

Explanation

The Career Development Section can use MAP 6 to ensure database integrity when a member is projected to PDX and receives a demotion. MAP 6 is the highest level of MAP and it provides the most comprehensive and detailed information about a member's career development. By using MAP 6, the Career Development Section can accurately track and update the member's career progression, ensuring that the database remains accurate and up to date.

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97. All of the following are examples of planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders except

Explanation

The correct answer is "reconstitution" because sustainment, employment, and mobilization are all examples of planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders. Reconstitution, on the other hand, refers to the process of rebuilding and restoring a unit to its full operational capability after it has been significantly depleted or damaged, and it is not directly related to the development of these plans.

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98. The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under

Explanation

The correct answer is Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under the Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center. This means that the AEFC reports directly to and operates under the authority of HQ AFPC.

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99. Within how many days os an active duty trainee's initial assignment should a supervisor conduct and document an initial evaluation of trainee qualifications?

Explanation

Within 60 days of an active duty trainee's initial assignment, a supervisor should conduct and document an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications. This evaluation is important to assess the trainee's abilities and determine if they meet the necessary requirements for the assigned duties. Conducting this evaluation within a reasonable timeframe ensures that any necessary adjustments or additional training can be provided to the trainee in a timely manner, allowing them to effectively contribute to their assigned duties.

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100. What is the name of the document that reflects all the positions for a TDY location?

Explanation

The deployed requirements manning document is the name of the document that reflects all the positions for a TDY (Temporary Duty) location. This document outlines the specific staffing requirements and positions needed for a deployment, ensuring that all necessary personnel are accounted for and assigned to their respective roles. It helps to ensure that the deployment is properly staffed and that all essential positions are filled to support the mission effectively.

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101. Which office serves as the program manager for AF/A1 information technology (IT) planning, programming, and development?

Explanation

AF/A1X serves as the program manager for AF/A1 information technology (IT) planning, programming, and development.

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102. Personnel form what organiztion are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations team?

Explanation

The force support squadron is the organization that personnel must belong to in order to be eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations team.

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103. Military personnel appropriation man-days support short-term needs of the active duty force by authorizing no more than

Explanation

Military personnel appropriation man-days support short-term needs of the active duty force by authorizing no more than 139 days annually. This means that the military personnel can be allocated up to 139 days of support per year to meet their short-term needs. This allocation is made to ensure that the active duty force has the necessary manpower and resources to carry out their duties effectively.

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104. Planners use unity type codes to document total funded manpower and fund logistics requirements needed to support the

Explanation

Planners use unity type codes to document total funded manpower and fund logistics requirements needed to support the national military strategy during contingency, crisis action, and rotational planning. This means that the unity type codes are used to track and allocate resources for various planning segments, including both contingency and crisis action planning as well as rotational planning. The unity type codes help ensure that the necessary manpower and logistics support are provided in accordance with the national military strategy.

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105. As of December 2000, how many MAJCOMs are there?

Explanation

As of December 2000, there were a total of 9 MAJCOMs.

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106. What is the disposition of the nondisclosure agreement (NdA) and whyis it so important the NdA be mailed off to the appropriate agency?

Explanation

The correct answer is 50-year disposition date and it may need to be referred to again. This means that the nondisclosure agreement (NdA) will be kept on record for a period of 50 years and may need to be accessed or referred to in the future. This is important because the NdA is a legal document that outlines the terms and conditions of confidentiality, and it is crucial to have a record of it for reference or verification purposes, especially in cases involving security clearances.

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107. Which mission personnel section element manages the unit personnel management documents?

Explanation

The force management operations element is responsible for managing the unit personnel management documents. This includes tasks such as maintaining personnel records, processing promotions and assignments, and ensuring the accuracy and completeness of personnel data. They play a crucial role in managing the personnel needs of the unit and ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly maintained and updated.

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108. Who will the reviewing official work with if they need to review mendical records of canidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions?

Explanation

The reviewing official will work with a competent medical authority if they need to review medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions. The competent medical authority is responsible for evaluating and making decisions based on medical records, ensuring that the information is accurate and reliable. They have the expertise and knowledge to identify any disqualifying conditions that may affect the individual's ability to perform their duties effectively and safely. The reviewing official collaborates with the competent medical authority to make informed decisions regarding the personnel's eligibility and suitability for their roles.

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109. The unit manning document provides all of the following except authorized positions a unit is allowed to

Explanation

The unit manning document is a comprehensive resource that outlines the authorized positions a unit can recruit, train, and promote to in order to fulfill its wartime and peacetime missions. However, it does not provide information on how these positions can be shared with other units. This means that the document does not specify whether or not the unit can lend or transfer its personnel to other units for temporary or permanent assignments.

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110. During the planning phase, what predeployment action is the most important?

Explanation

During the planning phase, training is the most important predeployment action. This is because training ensures that personnel are adequately prepared and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their tasks effectively and safely during deployment. It helps in familiarizing individuals with the operations plan, supply kits, and updated software, enabling them to handle any challenges or contingencies that may arise. Training also promotes teamwork, communication, and coordination among personnel, enhancing overall mission readiness and success.

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111. After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive?

Explanation

After updating a UIF/control roster, the output products that you will receive are transaction registers (TR) reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates. This means that the TRs will contain information about any changes or updates made to the UIF as well as the projected expiration dates for the UIF. The TRs provide a comprehensive record of the updates and expiration dates related to the UIF/control roster.

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112. Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor?

Explanation

Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person who appointed them has 30 days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor. This letter serves as official confirmation of the appointment and outlines the responsibilities and expectations of the UIF monitor. It is important to send this letter within the specified timeframe to ensure clear communication and to establish a proper working relationship with the UIF monitor.

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113. In order to meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the air and space expeditionary force concept was designed to do all of the following except

Explanation

The air and space expeditionary force concept was designed to organize, train, and equip in order to meet the national security challenges of the 21st century. However, managing is not a part of this concept. Managing refers to the coordination and oversight of resources and personnel, which is not explicitly mentioned as a goal of the air and space expeditionary force concept.

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114. All of the following are Customer Support element responsibilities except

Explanation

The given responsibilities are related to customer support elements. However, administering UIF documentation to individuals is not a responsibility of customer support elements.

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115. What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?

Explanation

The promotion eligibility status code associated with adverse actions is G.

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116. How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public?

Explanation

The casualty representative must wait for 24 hours before releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public. This waiting period allows time for the military to properly notify the next of kin and for the family to process the information and grieve privately before it becomes public knowledge.

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117. All of the folllowing are wartime responsibilities of the personnel craftsman except

Explanation

The correct answer is personnel briefings. Personnel briefings are not typically a wartime responsibility of the personnel craftsman. During wartime, personnel craftsman are primarily responsible for personnel reporting, personnel accountability, and preparation for movement. These tasks involve keeping track of personnel, ensuring their safety and readiness, and coordinating their movements during wartime operations. However, personnel briefings are more often conducted by higher-ranking officers or commanders to inform personnel of important information or updates.

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118. What is the purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application?

Explanation

The purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application is to eliminate the delay of notification. This means that the application is designed to provide immediate and timely notifications to individuals who have been promoted, without any unnecessary delays. This ensures that promotees receive the information they need as soon as possible, allowing them to take the necessary steps and make any necessary arrangements related to their promotion in a timely manner.

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119. For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program position, all of these attributes apply except

Explanation

This answer is incorrect because personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program position do not necessarily have a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors. While they may have access to certain areas and control access into areas containing nuclear weapons, being armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons, and having access but no technical knowledge, having a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors is not a requirement for this position.

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120. The personnel readiness function provides all of the following perosnnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except

Explanation

The personnel readiness function is responsible for providing personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training. This includes developing training templates for manpower personnel base level operations, providing the PERSCO team chief with all relevant information, and training the PERSCO teams, personnel readiness center, and the personnel deployment function personnel to operate the MANPER-B operating system. However, the function does not specifically focus on training on the reclama/shortfall process.

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121. What is the name of the system the Career Development element utilizes to manage training rips?

Explanation

The Career Development element utilizes the Oracle Training Administration system to manage training rips.

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122. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures and training fo ractive duty, guard, reserve and civilian perosnnel accountability?

Explanation

Force Operations is the directorate that assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures, and training for active duty, guard, reserve, and civilian personnel accountability.

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123. Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure?

Explanation

The Career Development element typically publishes PCS orders 60 days prior to departure under normal circumstances.

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124. The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active an reserve component forces from

Explanation

Mobilization refers to the process of preparing and transitioning military forces from a peacetime state to a wartime state. This involves various activities such as activating reserve component forces, increasing readiness levels, deploying troops, and mobilizing resources for combat operations. The concept of mobilization can be associated with transitioning forces from a peacetime posture to a wartime posture, as mentioned in the correct answer. This implies that the military is preparing for and transitioning into a state of war, where it will be fully engaged in combat operations.

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125. Deviations to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?

Explanation

The Chief of Staff is responsible for approving deviations to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct on a case-by-case basis. This means that any changes or modifications to the construct can only be made with the approval of the Chief of Staff. The other options, such as the President of the United States and the Secretary of Defense, may have authority over broader military matters, but when it comes to specific deviations to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct, it is the Chief of Staff who has the final say.

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126. If you are looking for ht esource of record for all Air Force PME and formal training, what system would use?

Explanation

Oracle Training Administration would be the system to use if you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force PME and formal training. This system is specifically designed for managing and tracking training activities and records. It provides comprehensive training administration capabilities, including scheduling, enrollment, tracking, and reporting. With Oracle Training Administration, you can easily access and manage personnel data and training records, making it the ideal system for this purpose.

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127. If a planner needed to review a driective that containged general policies and guidance concerning mobilization planningand the support of combatant commands in time of war, which directive wouldt that be?

Explanation

The correct answer is "war and mobilization plan volume 1 (wmp-1)". This directive would contain general policies and guidance concerning mobilization planning and the support of combatant commands in time of war.

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128. Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian, or a 3A0X1 and a UIF monitor?

Explanation

The responsibility to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian, or a 3A0X1 and a UIF monitor lies with the commander.

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129. For personnel assigned to a critical personnel reliability program position, all of these attributes apply except

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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130. The Air Force has organized its toatl force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces and

Explanation

The Air Force has organized its total force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces and one enabler force. This means that out of the total force, there is only one enabler force. The term "enabler force" refers to a group or unit that provides support and resources to the main forces. In this case, the Air Force has determined that one enabler force is sufficient to support the 10 air and space expeditionary forces.

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131. In order to determine if manpoer peronnel base level operations is working a real world deployment or an exercise, what should the personnel readiness function do?

Explanation

The personnel readiness function should hook up, plug in, and turn on the personnel system to determine if manpower personnel base level operations is working in a real-world deployment or an exercise. By activating the personnel system, the function can assess its functionality and determine if it is operational in a practical scenario or a simulated exercise.

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132. Which team provides independent analytical support directly to AF/A1 on all issues affecting Air Force members and their families?

Explanation

AF/A1I is the correct answer because it is the team that provides independent analytical support directly to AF/A1 on all issues affecting Air Force members and their families. The other options, AF/A1D, AF/A1P, and AF/A1X, do not perform this specific role.

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133. When a member is interested in requesting retention on active duty for hardship reasons, the application process must be submitted at least how many days before the established deactivation or demobilization date?

Explanation

When a member is interested in requesting retention on active duty for hardship reasons, they must submit the application process at least 15 days before the established deactivation or demobilization date. This allows sufficient time for the necessary paperwork and approvals to be completed before the member's scheduled departure from active duty.

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134. Airman are not used outside of their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code

Explanation

The correct answer is "O". This means that if an airman has an assignment limitation code, they are not used outside of their CAFSC (Career Air Force Specialty Code). Assignment limitation codes are used to restrict an airman's assignments based on medical, legal, or other administrative reasons. Therefore, if an airman has an assignment limitation code, they are limited to performing duties within their specific career field and cannot be utilized outside of it.

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135. In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an Air Force member, the notigicaiton officer must confirm completed noification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty?

Explanation

The notification officer must confirm completed notification with the servicing Casualty Assistance Representative (CAR) and Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)/Deployment Processing and Family Care Support (DPFCS) before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty.

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136. To ensure training quaotas are managed effectively the formal trainig section is resoponsible to ensure all the following except

Explanation

The formal training section is responsible for managing training quotas effectively. This includes ensuring that individuals have the commander's approval, that individuals filling quotas are qualified, and that individuals follow reporting instructions. However, the section is not responsible for ensuring that individuals are qualified regardless of their active duty service commitment.

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137. All of the following are publications that apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties except

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 36-3002, casualty services. This publication does not specifically relate to releasing information on Air Force casualties. Instead, it likely focuses on providing guidance and procedures for handling casualty services within the Air Force. The other publications listed, AFI 35-101, AFSUPDODR 5400.7, and AFI 33-332, all pertain to public affairs policies, freedom of information act program, and air force privacy act program, respectively, which are more directly related to releasing information on Air Force casualties.

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138. If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, which agency is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers?

Explanation

The career development element is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers, even if the formal training office is located outside of it. This means that the career development element is in charge of overseeing and coordinating the training activities and ensuring that the appropriate line numbers are assigned and managed effectively.

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139. Which group in the air and space expeditionary force construct may be formed to conduct missions that do not involve flying operations?

Explanation

The air and space expeditionary group may be formed to conduct missions that do not involve flying operations. This group is responsible for providing support and coordination for various missions, including those that require command and control, expeditionary combat support, and unit type codes. They work closely with other units and organizations to ensure the success of non-flying operations in the air and space expeditionary force.

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140. If an individual is inquiring about reenlisting, and the reenlistments clerk checks MilPDS and finds that the individual is not eligible to reenlist because they are not a United State citizen, the reenlistments clerk sends the member to custoemr service so the customer service clerk can check MAP

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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141. If you are looking for a system to initiate duty status change applications for confinement, absent, without leave, and deserter status, what system would you use?

Explanation

The correct answer is the case management system. This system is designed to handle various types of applications and processes related to duty status changes, including confinement, absent without leave, and deserter status. It provides a centralized platform for managing and tracking these applications, ensuring efficient and effective handling of personnel matters. The defense integrated military human resource system, military personnel data system, and personnel data system may have other functionalities but may not specifically cater to duty status change applications.

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142. Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements in order to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operation (CONOPS)?

Explanation

The Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA) is responsible for determining requirements in order to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operation (CONOPS). This agency specifically focuses on manpower and personnel needs within the Air Force, ensuring that the necessary resources are available to support operational requirements. As such, they play a critical role in shaping and implementing CONOPS, which are essential for effective military operations. The other options, Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA), Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC), and Headquarters Air Forces Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC), do not have the same level of responsibility for determining requirements in support of CONOPS.

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143. What AFI, AFMAN, or computer systems manual will the Force Development operations element utilize to update an active duty arrival?

Explanation

The Force Development operations element will utilize AFCSM 36-699 to update an active duty arrival.

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144. All of the following are basic instruments of national power except

Explanation

The correct answer is strategic. Strategic is not considered a basic instrument of national power, while diplomatic, economic, and informational are. Strategic refers to the planning and execution of military operations, which is a component of national power but not one of the basic instruments.

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145. All of the following are mobilization principles, execpt

Explanation

Securing resources is not considered a mobilization principle because it does not directly relate to the coordination and organization of efforts towards a common objective. Mobilization principles typically focus on aspects such as setting clear objectives, ensuring unity of effort among team members, and being flexible in adapting to changing circumstances. While securing resources is an important aspect of any project or initiative, it is not inherently a mobilization principle as it does not address the coordination and organization of efforts.

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146. If a member requires a passprot and/or visa, the Career Development element will advise the members to start processing their passports and/or visas no later than how many days after their initial briefing?

Explanation

The Career Development element advises members to start processing their passports and/or visas no later than 15 days after their initial briefing. This allows enough time for the necessary paperwork and procedures to be completed before any travel or assignments.

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147. When units identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document, who will they work with to get the changes completed?

Explanation

Units will work with the functional area manager to get the changes completed when they identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document. The functional area manager is responsible for overseeing and managing the manpower requirements and allocations within their specific functional area. They have the knowledge and authority to make the necessary adjustments and ensure that the unit manning document accurately reflects the staffing needs of the unit.

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148. During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operatios team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the

Explanation

During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the designed operation capability response time. This means that team members need to be able to report to their designated location within the specified timeframe as determined by the designed operation capability response time. This ensures that personnel are ready and available to support contingency operations effectively and efficiently.

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149. Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for liling any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF?

Explanation

The customer support element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF. This element is in charge of providing support and assistance to military personnel, including managing their records and documentation. Filing statements and documents in the UIF is part of their role in ensuring accurate and organized records for each individual.

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150. Once the casualty reresentative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualities, the CAR provides the mortuary services officers and the PA office the member's

Explanation

The correct answer is "name, age, home of record, and race." This is because the casualty representative (CAR) provides the mortuary services officers and the PA office with specific information about the member, including their name, age, home of record, and race. This information is important for documentation and record-keeping purposes.

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151. Once a duty status application has been entered, which agency is the first to review the duty status change application?

Explanation

The correct answer is TFSC. The TFSC (Total Force Service Center) is the first agency to review the duty status change application. They are responsible for managing personnel services and providing support to the military personnel. They review the application to ensure that all necessary information is provided and that the duty status change is appropriate and in accordance with regulations and policies.

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152. All of the following day to day readiness responsibilities listed below belong to the personnel readiness function except

Explanation

The installation deployment plan overview is not a day-to-day readiness responsibility of the personnel readiness function. This responsibility involves planning, manpower personnel base level systems, and accountability. The installation deployment plan overview is likely a higher-level task that is not performed on a daily basis.

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153. Who's responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next of kin?

Explanation

The military personnel section commander is responsible for ensuring that the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next of kin. This is because the military personnel section is typically responsible for handling personnel matters, including casualty affairs. Providing a private office for counseling ensures the privacy and confidentiality of sensitive discussions between the casualty representative and the next of kin.

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154. It si the responsibility of the casualty representative to prepare written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, outlining the responsibilities of all listed below except

Explanation

The casualty representative is responsible for preparing written instructions that outline the responsibilities of various individuals, including the installation command post, unit commanders, and security forces. However, the force support superintendent is not included in these written instructions.

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155. If a war planner needs to document total Air Force manpower and logistics requirements needed to support hte national miliary stategy during operatioanl planning and execution activities, what will they use?

Explanation

The correct answer is "unit type code." Unit type codes are used to identify and categorize different types of military units. They provide information about the size, capabilities, and equipment of each unit, which is essential for planning and executing military operations. By using unit type codes, the war planner can accurately assess the manpower and logistics requirements of the Air Force needed to support the national military strategy.

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156. Once the Career Development element verifies the member's eligibility for an assignment, who do they send the assingment rip to?

Explanation

After verifying the member's eligibility for an assignment, the Career Development element sends the assignment rip to the superintendent of the career development element. This individual is responsible for managing the career development process and ensuring that assignments are properly coordinated and implemented. They have the authority to review and approve assignment rips before forwarding them to the appropriate personnel.

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157. During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Departemnt of the Air Force, nonapproprianted funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal

Explanation

During natural disasters or national emergencies, it is crucial to have accountability for Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families. This means being able to track and locate individuals to ensure their safety and well-being. By having accountability, the necessary resources and support can be provided, and operations can be resumed more efficiently. It also helps in coordinating response efforts and ensuring that everyone is accounted for.

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158. PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the following except

Explanation

PERSTEMPO data is reported to air staff, joint staff, and other DOD agencies. The installation commander is not included in the list of recipients. This suggests that the PERSTEMPO data is not directly shared with the installation commander.

Submit
159. If a permanent party member has a permanent change of station, what system do they use to outprocess?

Explanation

When a permanent party member has a permanent change of station, they use the defense integrated military human resources system to outprocess. This system is specifically designed to handle military personnel data and is used for various HR functions, including managing personnel records, processing promotions, and handling personnel actions related to relocations or transfers. It is a comprehensive system that ensures accurate and efficient management of military personnel data during outprocessing procedures.

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During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for...
Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for...
Once the casualty reresentative (CAR) notifies the family members of...
Once a duty status application has been entered, which agency is the...
All of the following day to day readiness responsibilities listed...
Who's responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative...
It si the responsibility of the casualty representative to prepare...
If a war planner needs to document total Air Force manpower and...
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PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the following except
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