3M071B : Airforce Fitness! Trivia Questions Quiz

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 145

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3M071B : Airforce Fitness! Trivia Questions Quiz

What we have here is a 3M071B: air force fitness trivia questions quiz. When you are in the airforce, you cannot be slacking in your bunker but you are expected to spend some time in the fitness center exercising on daily to ensure that you are ready for any eventuality. Do take it up and see if you know the rules on fitness in the air force.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    At a minimum, how many weekly operating hours are required for a fitness center (FC) at an active duty base?
    • A. 

      70.

    • B. 

      112.

    • C. 

      140.

    • D. 

      224.

  • 2. 
    What are the minimum operating hours of a Satellite Fitness Center?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 3. 
    Who does the fitness center director (FCD) coordinate with when dealing with expenditures for NAF monies?
    • A. 

      Unit commander.

    • B. 

      Finance commander.

    • C. 

      Resource management flight chief.

    • D. 

      Sustainment flight chief.

  • 4. 
    Who is the approval authority in changing the fitness center’s (FC) operating hours?
    • A. 

      Installation commander.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Flight chief.

    • D. 

      Fitness center director.

  • 5. 
    Who validates the need for a unit’s request for a Unit Physical Training Facility (UPTF)?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM.

    • B. 

      AFSVA.

    • C. 

      Installation commander.

    • D. 

      Unit commander.

  • 6. 
    For patron safety, which piece of equipment is a must in fitness facilities at geographically separated units (GSU)?
    • A. 

      Automated external defibrillator.

    • B. 

      Common access card reader.u

    • C. 

      Motion activated lights.

    • D. 

      Electronic hand sanitizer.u

  • 7. 
    What is the priority category for an Armed Forces Retiree to use the fitness center (FC) facilities?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 8. 
    Who is responsible for guests at a fitness center (FC)?
    • A. 

      Any individual.

    • B. 

      The sponsor.

    • C. 

      Fitness center staff.

    • D. 

      Security forces.

  • 9. 
    Which fitness center (FC) area will not require additional cleaning after all peak hours?
    • A. 

      Latrines.

    • B. 

      Offices.

    • C. 

      Showers

    • D. 

      Locker rooms.

  • 10. 
    At a minimum, when should fitness center (FC) steam rooms be disinfected?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Every 2 weeks.

    • D. 

      Once a month..

  • 11. 
    What is the recommended temperature range for a fitness center (FC) steam room?
    • A. 

      75 to 85 degrees.

    • B. 

      85 to 95 degrees.

    • C. 

      90 to 95 degrees.

    • D. 

      100 to 110 degrees

  • 12. 
    What is the maximum temperature for a fitness center (FC) spa or whirlpool?
    • A. 

      105.

    • B. 

      104.

    • C. 

      102.

    • D. 

      100.

  • 13. 
    Within how many hours will the fitness center director (FCD) respond to customer safety comments?
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      24.

    • C. 

      36.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 14. 
    What AF form do we use to request repair work in the fitness center (FC)?
    • A. 

      332.

    • B. 

      988

    • C. 

      1206

    • D. 

      1119

  • 15. 
    How often are free weights and preset weight bars inspected at the fitness center (FC)?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually

    • C. 

      Weekly

    • D. 

      Daily

  • 16. 
    Within how many days of assignment must staff members complete the Fitness Specialist Course?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      180

  • 17. 
    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete customer service training?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      180

  • 18. 
    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete the Physical Training Leader (PTL) course?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      120.

    • D. 

      180.

  • 19. 
    What minimum number of months from being assigned must a fitness staff member meet to be eligible for an Air Force Certified Fitness Specialist nomination?
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      9.

    • C. 

      12.

    • D. 

      15.

  • 20. 
    Within how many months must a newly assigned fitness center director (FCD) attend the Fitness Manager’s Course at the HQ AFSVA?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      9.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 21. 
    How often are fitness center (FC) emergency plans reviewed?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually

    • C. 

      Weekly.

    • D. 

      Daily.

  • 22. 
    At a minimum, the fitness center director (FCD) must document staff training for emergency plans every
    • A. 

      Month.

    • B. 

      4 months.

    • C. 

      8 months.

    • D. 

      12 months..

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not a type of tournament used by the fitness center (FC)?
    • A. 

      Up and down.

    • B. 

      Round robin.

    • C. 

      Double elimination.

    • D. 

      Single elimination.

  • 24. 
    Which type of sporting activity provides an outlet for skilled athletes to compete at a higher level?
    • A. 

      Intramural.

    • B. 

      Extramural.

    • C. 

      Varsity.

    • D. 

      AF Training Camp.

  • 25. 
    Who authorizes Air Force members to participate on higher-level competition conducted by another military service branch?
    • A. 

      Fitness center director (FCD).

    • B. 

      Unit commander (CC).

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) CC.CD).

    • D. 

      Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF).

  • 26. 
    How often does the sports and fitness advisory council meet?
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually..

  • 27. 
    The fitness and sports advisory council chairperson’s responsibilities include all of these except
    • A. 

      Appoint a vice-chairperson.

    • B. 

      Set up and maintain all schedules for fitness center (FC) intramural and extramural games.by

    • C. 

      Select council members to serve as chairpersons of various subcommittees.

    • D. 

      Request approval from the Services commander or director to take action on the advisory committee minutes.

  • 28. 
    Which is not a factor to consider when planning for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale?
    • A. 

      Availability of shipping/transportation.

    • B. 

      Branch of service supported.

    • C. 

      Staff experience level.

    • D. 

      Number of personnel supported.

  • 29. 
    By which day are non-appropriated funds (NAF) resale operations normally established in a deployed location?
    • A. 

      15th.

    • B. 

      30th.

    • C. 

      45th.

    • D. 

      60th.

  • 30. 
    Onto which AF form do we document non-appropriated fund (NAF) training?
    • A. 

      988.

    • B. 

      797.

    • C. 

      79.

    • D. 

      148

  • 31. 
    Which is not a control measure for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale?
    • A. 

      Leave money over night.

    • B. 

      Proper form use.

    • C. 

      Surprise cash count.ht.

    • D. 

      Using a lockable cash box.s

  • 32. 
    Who ensures proper safeguards are in place to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron?
    • A. 

      Group commander.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      First sergeant..

    • D. 

      Activity manager.

  • 33. 
    Who publishes operating instructions (OI) relating to Dram Shop?
    • A. 

      Force Support Squadron commander (FSS CC).

    • B. 

      Flight chiefs.

    • C. 

      Activity manager.

    • D. 

      Shift leader.

  • 34. 
    Who should you notify promptly in an incident involving alcohol that may result in potential claims?
    • A. 

      FSS commander.

    • B. 

      Security forces.

    • C. 

      Legal office.

    • D. 

      Chaplain.

  • 35. 
    What is the markup percentage on resale items in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      5-10.

    • B. 

      10-25.

    • C. 

      20-45.

    • D. 

      30-45.

  • 36. 
    When planning the funding for recreation activities, what is an alternate fund source for resale operations?
    • A. 

      Government Purchase Card.

    • B. 

      Appropriated funds (APF).

    • C. 

      AAFES Imprest.

    • D. 

      Private donations.

  • 37. 
    Who ensures that adequate inventories of equipment and supplies can support the projected wartime population?
    • A. 

      Activity mangers.

    • B. 

      Flight chiefs.

    • C. 

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • D. 

      Force support squadron commander (FSS CC).

  • 38. 
    Which activities require oversight from 3M professionals?
    • A. 

      Self-directed.

    • B. 

      Directed.

    • C. 

      Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE).

    • D. 

      Chaplain.

  • 39. 
    Who is the executive agent for Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE)?
    • A. 

      Deployed commander.

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C. 

      Theater commander.

    • D. 

      The Air Force.

  • 40. 
    When planning for a show, what should you plan for in regards to set-up and tear down?
    • A. 

      Security forces.

    • B. 

      Performers.

    • C. 

      Volunteers.

    • D. 

      Chaplain.

  • 41. 
    How many members are on the learning resource center (LRC) force module?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 42. 
    What is the minimum number of required group exercise classes for a large base?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 43. 
    What is the minimum number of required aerobics classes for a small base?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is not an assessment test performed by fitness center (FC) staff?
    • A. 

      Step.

    • B. 

      Sit and reach.

    • C. 

      Cadiovascular capacity.

    • D. 

      Skin fold.

  • 45. 
    What is the minimum number of required incentive programs that fitness centers (FC) offer per year?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 46. 
    What is the average number of bones in the human body?
    • A. 

      206.

    • B. 

      208.

    • C. 

      210.

    • D. 

      212.

  • 47. 
    Which joint is considered a gliding joint?
    • A. 

      Athrodial.

    • B. 

      Ginglymus.

    • C. 

      Condylodial.

    • D. 

      Enarthrodial.

  • 48. 
    Which connective tissue connects bone to bone?
    • A. 

      Muscles.

    • B. 

      Tendons.

    • C. 

      Ligaments.

    • D. 

      Cartilage.

  • 49. 
    Which is not considered an influence to injury?
    • A. 

      Age.

    • B. 

      Sex.

    • C. 

      Body type.

    • D. 

      Race.

  • 50. 
    A major factor in reducing a member’s risk of injury is proper
    • A. 

      Evaluation.

    • B. 

      Cool down..

    • C. 

      Incentives.

    • D. 

      Dieting.