3M071B : Airforce Fitness! Trivia Questions Quiz

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3M071B : Airforce Fitness! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

What we have here is a 3M071B: air force fitness trivia questions quiz. When you are in the airforce, you cannot be slacking in your bunker but you are expected to spend some time in the fitness center exercising on daily to ensure that you are ready for any eventuality. Do take it up and see if you know the rules on fitness in the air force.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    At a minimum, how many weekly operating hours are required for a fitness center (FC) at an active duty base?

    • A.

      70.

    • B.

      112.

    • C.

      140.

    • D.

      224.

    Correct Answer
    B. 112.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 112 because a fitness center at an active duty base needs to be open for a minimum of 16 hours per day, 7 days a week. Therefore, the minimum weekly operating hours would be 112.

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  • 2. 

    What are the minimum operating hours of a Satellite Fitness Center?

    • A.

      15.

    • B.

      30.

    • C.

      45.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    B. 30.
    Explanation
    The minimum operating hours of a Satellite Fitness Center are 30. This means that the fitness center must be open for at least 30 hours per week.

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  • 3. 

    Who does the fitness center director (FCD) coordinate with when dealing with expenditures for NAF monies?

    • A.

      Unit commander.

    • B.

      Finance commander.

    • C.

      Resource management flight chief.

    • D.

      Sustainment flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource management flight chief.
    Explanation
    The fitness center director (FCD) coordinates with the resource management flight chief when dealing with expenditures for NAF monies. This is because the resource management flight chief is responsible for managing and overseeing the financial resources of the organization, including the NAF monies. They ensure that the expenditures are in line with the budget and financial guidelines, and provide guidance and support to the FCD in managing the financial aspects of the fitness center.

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  • 4. 

    Who is the approval authority in changing the fitness center’s (FC) operating hours?

    • A.

      Installation commander.

    • B.

      Group commander.

    • C.

      Flight chief.

    • D.

      Fitness center director.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is the approval authority for changing the fitness center's operating hours. This individual holds the highest level of authority within the installation and has the final say in decisions related to the operations and management of the fitness center. The group commander, flight chief, and fitness center director do not possess the same level of authority as the installation commander in making such decisions.

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  • 5. 

    Who validates the need for a unit’s request for a Unit Physical Training Facility (UPTF)?

    • A.

      MAJCOM.

    • B.

      AFSVA.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      Unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for validating the need for a unit's request for a Unit Physical Training Facility (UPTF). They have the authority to assess the unit's requirements and determine whether a UPTF is necessary based on factors such as the unit's mission, size, and available resources. The installation commander's decision ensures that the request aligns with the overall goals and priorities of the installation.

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  • 6. 

    For patron safety, which piece of equipment is a must in fitness facilities at geographically separated units (GSU)?

    • A.

      Automated external defibrillator.

    • B.

      Common access card reader.u

    • C.

      Motion activated lights.

    • D.

      Electronic hand sanitizer.u

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated external defibrillator.
    Explanation
    An automated external defibrillator is a must in fitness facilities at geographically separated units (GSU) for patron safety. This equipment is crucial in case of sudden cardiac arrest, as it can analyze the heart rhythm and deliver an electric shock if necessary to restore a normal heartbeat. Having an automated external defibrillator readily available can significantly increase the chances of survival for someone experiencing a cardiac emergency.

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  • 7. 

    What is the priority category for an Armed Forces Retiree to use the fitness center (FC) facilities?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.
    Explanation
    The priority category for an Armed Forces Retiree to use the fitness center facilities is category 5. This means that Armed Forces Retirees have the lowest priority when it comes to accessing the fitness center facilities.

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  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for guests at a fitness center (FC)?

    • A.

      Any individual.

    • B.

      The sponsor.

    • C.

      Fitness center staff.

    • D.

      Security forces.

    Correct Answer
    B. The sponsor.
    Explanation
    The sponsor is responsible for guests at a fitness center because they are the ones who invite and bring the guests to the facility. They are responsible for ensuring that their guests follow the rules and regulations of the fitness center and behave appropriately during their visit. The sponsor also takes on the responsibility of any damages or incidents caused by their guests while they are at the fitness center.

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  • 9. 

    Which fitness center (FC) area will not require additional cleaning after all peak hours?

    • A.

      Latrines.

    • B.

      Offices.

    • C.

      Showers

    • D.

      Locker rooms.

    Correct Answer
    B. Offices.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Offices. Unlike latrines, showers, and locker rooms, offices are not typically used for physical activities or sweating, so they would not require additional cleaning after peak hours.

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  • 10. 

    At a minimum, when should fitness center (FC) steam rooms be disinfected?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Every 2 weeks.

    • D.

      Once a month..

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Fitness center steam rooms should be disinfected daily to maintain cleanliness and hygiene. The high humidity and warm temperatures in steam rooms create an environment where bacteria and germs can thrive. Regular disinfection helps to prevent the spread of infections and ensures the safety and well-being of the users.

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  • 11. 

    What is the recommended temperature range for a fitness center (FC) steam room?

    • A.

      75 to 85 degrees.

    • B.

      85 to 95 degrees.

    • C.

      90 to 95 degrees.

    • D.

      100 to 110 degrees

    Correct Answer
    D. 100 to 110 degrees
    Explanation
    The recommended temperature range for a fitness center steam room is 100 to 110 degrees. This temperature range provides the ideal conditions for a steam room, allowing users to experience the benefits of heat and humidity. It is important to maintain this range to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the steam room experience.

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  • 12. 

    What is the maximum temperature for a fitness center (FC) spa or whirlpool?

    • A.

      105.

    • B.

      104.

    • C.

      102.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    A. 105.
    Explanation
    The maximum temperature for a fitness center spa or whirlpool is 105 degrees. This means that the water in the spa or whirlpool should not exceed this temperature for the safety and comfort of the users. Higher temperatures can pose a risk of burns or overheating for individuals using the facility. Therefore, it is important to adhere to this maximum temperature limit to ensure a safe and enjoyable experience for the users.

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  • 13. 

    Within how many hours will the fitness center director (FCD) respond to customer safety comments?

    • A.

      12.

    • B.

      24.

    • C.

      36.

    • D.

      48.

    Correct Answer
    D. 48.
    Explanation
    The fitness center director (FCD) will respond to customer safety comments within 48 hours.

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  • 14. 

    What AF form do we use to request repair work in the fitness center (FC)?

    • A.

      332.

    • B.

      988

    • C.

      1206

    • D.

      1119

    Correct Answer
    A. 332.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 332. The question is asking for the AF form that is used to request repair work in the fitness center. The form number 332 is the correct answer because it is the specific form used for requesting maintenance and repair work in Air Force facilities.

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  • 15. 

    How often are free weights and preset weight bars inspected at the fitness center (FC)?

    • A.

      Annually.

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Weekly

    • D.

      Daily

    Correct Answer
    D. Daily
    Explanation
    Free weights and preset weight bars are inspected daily at the fitness center to ensure their safety and functionality. Regular inspections help identify any damages or defects that may pose a risk to the users. By inspecting them daily, the fitness center can promptly address any issues and prevent accidents or injuries. This frequent inspection schedule demonstrates the importance placed on maintaining a safe and well-maintained environment for the members of the fitness center.

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  • 16. 

    Within how many days of assignment must staff members complete the Fitness Specialist Course?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      180

    Correct Answer
    D. 180
    Explanation
    Staff members must complete the Fitness Specialist Course within 180 days of assignment.

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  • 17. 

    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete customer service training?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      180

    Correct Answer
    B. 60.
    Explanation
    Fitness center staff members must complete customer service training within 60 days of assignment.

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  • 18. 

    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete the Physical Training Leader (PTL) course?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      120.

    • D.

      180.

    Correct Answer
    C. 120.
    Explanation
    Fitness center staff members must complete the Physical Training Leader (PTL) course within 120 days of assignment.

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  • 19. 

    What minimum number of months from being assigned must a fitness staff member meet to be eligible for an Air Force Certified Fitness Specialist nomination?

    • A.

      6.

    • B.

      9.

    • C.

      12.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    C. 12.
    Explanation
    To be eligible for an Air Force Certified Fitness Specialist nomination, a fitness staff member must meet a minimum requirement of 12 months from being assigned. This means that they need to have been in their position for at least a year before they can be considered for the nomination.

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  • 20. 

    Within how many months must a newly assigned fitness center director (FCD) attend the Fitness Manager’s Course at the HQ AFSVA?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      6.

    • C.

      9.

    • D.

      12.

    Correct Answer
    C. 9.
    Explanation
    A newly assigned fitness center director (FCD) must attend the Fitness Manager's Course at the HQ AFSVA within 9 months. This suggests that there is a requirement or expectation for FCDs to receive training in order to effectively perform their role. Attending this course within 9 months allows the FCD to gain the necessary knowledge and skills to manage a fitness center successfully.

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  • 21. 

    How often are fitness center (FC) emergency plans reviewed?

    • A.

      Annually.

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Weekly.

    • D.

      Daily.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Fitness center emergency plans are reviewed annually. This means that the plans are evaluated and updated once a year to ensure that they are effective and up-to-date. Reviewing the plans annually allows the fitness center to make any necessary changes or improvements to their emergency procedures and protocols. It also ensures that the staff is familiar with the plans and can respond appropriately in the event of an emergency. Regular reviews help to maintain the safety and preparedness of the fitness center in case of any unforeseen circumstances.

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  • 22. 

    At a minimum, the fitness center director (FCD) must document staff training for emergency plans every

    • A.

      Month.

    • B.

      4 months.

    • C.

      8 months.

    • D.

      12 months..

    Correct Answer
    B. 4 months.
    Explanation
    The fitness center director is required to document staff training for emergency plans on a regular basis. The answer of 4 months suggests that the FCD must document the staff training every four months. This ensures that the staff is regularly updated and prepared for emergencies, allowing for a safer environment for the fitness center's members.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a type of tournament used by the fitness center (FC)?

    • A.

      Up and down.

    • B.

      Round robin.

    • C.

      Double elimination.

    • D.

      Single elimination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Up and down.
    Explanation
    The given answer "Up and down" is not a type of tournament used by the fitness center (FC). The other options mentioned, such as round robin, double elimination, and single elimination, are commonly used tournament formats in various sports and games. However, "Up and down" is not a recognized tournament format, making it the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of sporting activity provides an outlet for skilled athletes to compete at a higher level?

    • A.

      Intramural.

    • B.

      Extramural.

    • C.

      Varsity.

    • D.

      AF Training Camp.

    Correct Answer
    C. Varsity.
    Explanation
    Varsity sports provide an outlet for skilled athletes to compete at a higher level. Unlike intramural and extramural sports, which are more casual and recreational, varsity sports are typically played at the collegiate or high school level and involve intense competition among skilled athletes. AF Training Camp is not a type of sporting activity, so it is not the correct answer.

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  • 25. 

    Who authorizes Air Force members to participate on higher-level competition conducted by another military service branch?

    • A.

      Fitness center director (FCD).

    • B.

      Unit commander (CC).

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM) CC.CD).

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF).

    Correct Answer
    D. Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF). This is because the HQ AFSVA/SVPAF is responsible for authorizing Air Force members to participate in higher-level competitions conducted by another military service branch. They oversee fitness and sports activities within the Air Force and have the authority to grant permission for members to participate in these competitions.

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  • 26. 

    How often does the sports and fitness advisory council meet?

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Semi-annually..

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The sports and fitness advisory council meets quarterly, which means they gather every three months. This frequency allows for regular discussions and updates on sports and fitness-related matters, ensuring that the council stays informed and can make timely decisions and recommendations. Meeting quarterly strikes a balance between meeting too frequently, which may not allow for enough progress, and meeting too infrequently, which may result in outdated information and delayed actions.

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  • 27. 

    The fitness and sports advisory council chairperson’s responsibilities include all of these except

    • A.

      Appoint a vice-chairperson.

    • B.

      Set up and maintain all schedules for fitness center (FC) intramural and extramural games.by

    • C.

      Select council members to serve as chairpersons of various subcommittees.

    • D.

      Request approval from the Services commander or director to take action on the advisory committee minutes.

    Correct Answer
    B. Set up and maintain all schedules for fitness center (FC) intramural and extramural games.by
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of the fitness and sports advisory council chairperson include appointing a vice-chairperson, selecting council members for subcommittees, and requesting approval for advisory committee minutes. However, the chairperson is not responsible for setting up and maintaining schedules for fitness center intramural and extramural games.

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  • 28. 

    Which is not a factor to consider when planning for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale?

    • A.

      Availability of shipping/transportation.

    • B.

      Branch of service supported.

    • C.

      Staff experience level.

    • D.

      Number of personnel supported.

    Correct Answer
    C. Staff experience level.
    Explanation
    When planning for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale, factors such as availability of shipping/transportation, branch of service supported, and number of personnel supported are important considerations. However, staff experience level is not directly related to the planning process for NAF resale. While it is important to have experienced staff to efficiently run the resale operations, it is not a factor that needs to be considered during the planning stage.

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  • 29. 

    By which day are non-appropriated funds (NAF) resale operations normally established in a deployed location?

    • A.

      15th.

    • B.

      30th.

    • C.

      45th.

    • D.

      60th.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15th.
    Explanation
    Non-appropriated funds (NAF) resale operations are typically established in a deployed location by the 15th day. This suggests that it is important to have these operations up and running as soon as possible after deployment.

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  • 30. 

    Onto which AF form do we document non-appropriated fund (NAF) training?

    • A.

      988.

    • B.

      797.

    • C.

      79.

    • D.

      148

    Correct Answer
    B. 797.
    Explanation
    We document non-appropriated fund (NAF) training onto AF form 797.

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  • 31. 

    Which is not a control measure for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale?

    • A.

      Leave money over night.

    • B.

      Proper form use.

    • C.

      Surprise cash count.ht.

    • D.

      Using a lockable cash box.s

    Correct Answer
    A. Leave money over night.
    Explanation
    Leaving money overnight is not a control measure for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale because it increases the risk of theft or loss. Proper form use, surprise cash count, and using a lockable cash box are all control measures that help ensure the security and accuracy of funds in NAF resale operations.

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  • 32. 

    Who ensures proper safeguards are in place to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron?

    • A.

      Group commander.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      First sergeant..

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Activity manager.
    Explanation
    The activity manager is responsible for ensuring proper safeguards are in place to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron. They oversee the operations and management of the activity or establishment, which includes enforcing safety measures and policies to ensure the well-being of all patrons. This may involve monitoring alcohol consumption, providing assistance to intoxicated individuals, and implementing measures to prevent harm or accidents. The activity manager plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe environment for all patrons, including those who may be intoxicated.

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  • 33. 

    Who publishes operating instructions (OI) relating to Dram Shop?

    • A.

      Force Support Squadron commander (FSS CC).

    • B.

      Flight chiefs.

    • C.

      Activity manager.

    • D.

      Shift leader.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight chiefs.
    Explanation
    Flight chiefs are responsible for publishing operating instructions (OI) relating to Dram Shop. They have the authority and expertise to ensure that the necessary guidelines and protocols are in place for the responsible service of alcohol. As the individuals in charge of overseeing the day-to-day operations and management of their respective flights, flight chiefs are well-positioned to develop and distribute the necessary OI to ensure compliance with Dram Shop regulations and to promote a safe and responsible drinking environment.

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  • 34. 

    Who should you notify promptly in an incident involving alcohol that may result in potential claims?

    • A.

      FSS commander.

    • B.

      Security forces.

    • C.

      Legal office.

    • D.

      Chaplain.

    Correct Answer
    A. FSS commander.
    Explanation
    In an incident involving alcohol that may result in potential claims, it is important to notify the FSS commander promptly. The FSS commander is responsible for overseeing the Force Support Squadron, which typically handles administrative and support functions including legal matters. By notifying the FSS commander, the incident can be properly documented and necessary actions can be taken to address any potential claims that may arise from the incident.

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  • 35. 

    What is the markup percentage on resale items in a deployed environment?

    • A.

      5-10.

    • B.

      10-25.

    • C.

      20-45.

    • D.

      30-45.

    Correct Answer
    C. 20-45.
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, the markup percentage on resale items can range from 20% to 45%. This means that the price at which the items are sold is 20% to 45% higher than the cost price. This markup percentage allows for a profit margin while considering factors such as operational costs, market demand, and competition.

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  • 36. 

    When planning the funding for recreation activities, what is an alternate fund source for resale operations?

    • A.

      Government Purchase Card.

    • B.

      Appropriated funds (APF).

    • C.

      AAFES Imprest.

    • D.

      Private donations.

    Correct Answer
    C. AAFES Imprest.
    Explanation
    The AAFES Imprest is an alternate fund source for resale operations when planning the funding for recreation activities. The AAFES Imprest is a system used by the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) to provide funds for operational expenses. It allows for the purchase of goods and services for resale operations, ensuring that there is a consistent source of funding available for these activities. Private donations may also be a potential alternate fund source, but the AAFES Imprest is specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 37. 

    Who ensures that adequate inventories of equipment and supplies can support the projected wartime population?

    • A.

      Activity mangers.

    • B.

      Flight chiefs.

    • C.

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • D.

      Force support squadron commander (FSS CC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Force support squadron commander (FSS CC).
    Explanation
    The Force Support Squadron Commander (FSS CC) is responsible for ensuring that adequate inventories of equipment and supplies are available to support the projected wartime population. They oversee the resource management flight and have the authority to allocate resources and make decisions regarding inventory levels. The FSS CC plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary equipment and supplies are in place to support military operations during times of war.

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  • 38. 

    Which activities require oversight from 3M professionals?

    • A.

      Self-directed.

    • B.

      Directed.

    • C.

      Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE).

    • D.

      Chaplain.

    Correct Answer
    B. Directed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Directed." This implies that activities that require oversight from 3M professionals are those that are guided or supervised by these professionals. It suggests that the professionals have a role in providing direction and guidance in these activities, ensuring that they are carried out effectively and efficiently.

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  • 39. 

    Who is the executive agent for Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE)?

    • A.

      Deployed commander.

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C.

      Theater commander.

    • D.

      The Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    D. The Air Force.
    Explanation
    The executive agent for Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE) is the Air Force. This means that the Air Force is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the entertainment activities provided to the armed forces. They are in charge of managing the logistical aspects and ensuring that the entertainment programs are successfully executed for the benefit of the military personnel.

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  • 40. 

    When planning for a show, what should you plan for in regards to set-up and tear down?

    • A.

      Security forces.

    • B.

      Performers.

    • C.

      Volunteers.

    • D.

      Chaplain.

    Correct Answer
    C. Volunteers.
    Explanation
    When planning for a show, it is important to plan for volunteers in regards to set-up and tear down. Volunteers play a crucial role in helping with various tasks such as setting up the stage, arranging props, and dismantling the set after the show. They are often responsible for ensuring that everything is organized and ready before the show begins, as well as assisting with the clean-up process once the show is over. Without volunteers, the logistical aspects of set-up and tear down would be much more challenging to manage effectively.

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  • 41. 

    How many members are on the learning resource center (LRC) force module?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      4.

    • C.

      5.

    • D.

      6.

    Correct Answer
    B. 4.
    Explanation
    There are four members on the learning resource center (LRC) force module.

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  • 42. 

    What is the minimum number of required group exercise classes for a large base?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15.
    Explanation
    The minimum number of required group exercise classes for a large base is 15. This suggests that a large base requires a significant number of group exercise classes in order to cater to the needs and preferences of its members. Having a sufficient number of classes ensures that there is a variety of options available and reduces the likelihood of overcrowding in any single class. It also indicates that the demand for group exercise is high among the members of the large base.

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  • 43. 

    What is the minimum number of required aerobics classes for a small base?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10.
    Explanation
    A small base requires a minimum of 10 aerobics classes. This suggests that the individual needs to attend at least 10 aerobics classes in order to meet the minimum requirement for their fitness goals.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not an assessment test performed by fitness center (FC) staff?

    • A.

      Step.

    • B.

      Sit and reach.

    • C.

      Cadiovascular capacity.

    • D.

      Skin fold.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cadiovascular capacity.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Cardiovascular capacity." This is not an assessment test performed by fitness center staff. Cardiovascular capacity refers to the ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to deliver oxygen to the muscles during exercise. While it is an important aspect of fitness, it is typically assessed through specialized tests such as VO2 max testing, which are not commonly performed by fitness center staff. Instead, fitness center staff may assess other aspects of fitness such as flexibility (sit and reach test) and body composition (skin fold test).

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  • 45. 

    What is the minimum number of required incentive programs that fitness centers (FC) offer per year?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      4.

    • C.

      6.

    • D.

      8.

    Correct Answer
    B. 4.
    Explanation
    Fitness centers need to offer a minimum of four incentive programs per year. This suggests that offering fewer than four programs may not be sufficient to attract and retain customers. On the other hand, offering more than four programs could potentially be overwhelming for both the fitness center and its members. By offering four incentive programs per year, fitness centers can strike a balance between providing enough variety and maintaining a manageable workload.

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  • 46. 

    What is the average number of bones in the human body?

    • A.

      206.

    • B.

      208.

    • C.

      210.

    • D.

      212.

    Correct Answer
    A. 206.
    Explanation
    The average number of bones in the human body is 206. This is the correct answer because the human body is made up of a complex skeletal system consisting of bones that provide support, protection, and enable movement. While the number of bones can vary slightly from person to person, the average adult human body has 206 bones.

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  • 47. 

    Which joint is considered a gliding joint?

    • A.

      Athrodial.

    • B.

      Ginglymus.

    • C.

      Condylodial.

    • D.

      Enarthrodial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Athrodial.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Athrodial. A gliding joint, also known as a plane joint, allows bones to glide past each other in any direction along a flat surface. This type of joint is found in the wrist and ankles, where the bones can slide or glide over each other. The term "athrodial" is another name for a gliding joint, so it is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 48. 

    Which connective tissue connects bone to bone?

    • A.

      Muscles.

    • B.

      Tendons.

    • C.

      Ligaments.

    • D.

      Cartilage.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ligaments.
    Explanation
    Ligaments are the correct answer because they are the connective tissue that connects bone to bone. Ligaments are strong bands of fibrous tissue that provide stability and support to joints by connecting bones together. They help to prevent excessive movement and maintain the proper alignment of bones during joint movement. Muscles, tendons, and cartilage are also connective tissues, but they have different functions. Muscles are responsible for movement, tendons connect muscle to bone, and cartilage provides cushioning and support for joints.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not considered an influence to injury?

    • A.

      Age.

    • B.

      Sex.

    • C.

      Body type.

    • D.

      Race.

    Correct Answer
    D. Race.
    Explanation
    Race is not considered an influence to injury because it does not directly affect an individual's susceptibility to getting injured. Factors such as age, sex, and body type can play a role in determining the likelihood and severity of injuries, but race is not a determining factor in injury risk.

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  • 50. 

    A major factor in reducing a member’s risk of injury is proper

    • A.

      Evaluation.

    • B.

      Cool down..

    • C.

      Incentives.

    • D.

      Dieting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluation.
    Explanation
    Proper evaluation plays a significant role in reducing a member's risk of injury. By conducting a thorough assessment, fitness professionals can identify any existing health conditions or limitations that may increase the likelihood of injury during exercise. This evaluation helps in designing a personalized workout plan, taking into account the individual's fitness level, strengths, and weaknesses. It also ensures that the exercises and intensity are appropriate, minimizing the chances of injury and maximizing the effectiveness of the workout.

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