Air Force Fitness Test 3M071B Volume 2
This is a volume 2 3M071B Airforce trivia quiz on fitness! When one is in the air force, they can never avoid spending sometime in the fitness center as it is actually a requirement. Take up the quiz below and get to see what you know about the fitness center and what is expect of you when it comes to it?
- 1.
As a minimum, how many hours a week will fitness centers remain open on active duty bases?
- A.
110.
- B.
112.
- C.
116.
- D.
120.
Correct Answer
B. 112.Explanation
The correct answer is 112. This means that fitness centers on active duty bases will remain open for at least 112 hours per week.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Hours of operation should be predicated on the
- A.
Customer's needs and demands.
- B.
Staff members' needs and demands.
- C.
Fitness center director's needs and demands.
- D.
Fitness center monitor's needs and demands.
Correct Answer
A. Customer's needs and demands.Explanation
The correct answer is "customer's needs and demands." This means that the hours of operation for a fitness center should be determined based on what the customers require and expect. It is important for the fitness center to be open at times that are convenient for the customers, ensuring that they can access the facility and services when they need them.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who has the authority to alter the fitness center's hours of operation?
- A.
Force support squadron commander.
- B.
Installation commander.
- C.
Fitness center staff.
- D.
Fitness center director.
Correct Answer
B. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander has the authority to alter the fitness center's hours of operation. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the military installation, the installation commander has the power to make decisions regarding the operation and management of various facilities, including the fitness center. This includes determining the opening and closing hours based on factors such as the needs of the personnel on the installation and any operational requirements. The force support squadron commander, fitness center staff, and fitness center director may have input and recommendations, but the final authority lies with the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who can use the fitness center after normal hours of operation?
- A.
No one.
- B.
Youth center programs.
- C.
Fitness center staff members/
- D.
Security forces shift workers.
Correct Answer
A. No one.Explanation
The correct answer is "No one." This means that no one is allowed to use the fitness center after normal hours of operation. This could be due to various reasons such as safety concerns, lack of staff availability, or the need to maintain the facility. It is important to respect the rules and regulations set by the fitness center to ensure the well-being and security of all individuals.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the minimum number of hours of operation for a satellite fitness facility?
- A.
30 hours per week.
- B.
40 hours per week.
- C.
30 hours per month.
- D.
40 hours per month.
Correct Answer
A. 30 hours per week.Explanation
The minimum number of hours of operation for a satellite fitness facility is 30 hours per week. This means that the facility must be open for at least 30 hours every week in order to meet the minimum requirement for operation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who funds and maintains unit physical training facilities?
- A.
The using unit.
- B.
Force support squadron.
- C.
Support group.
- D.
The installation commander.
Correct Answer
A. The using unit.Explanation
The using unit funds and maintains unit physical training facilities. This means that the responsibility for financing and upkeep of these facilities lies with the specific unit that utilizes them.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who may authorize additional categories of participants?
- A.
Force support squadron commander.
- B.
Installation commander.
- C.
Major command.
- D.
Sponsor.
Correct Answer
B. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander has the authority to authorize additional categories of participants. This means that they have the power to grant permission for individuals or groups to participate in certain activities or events within the installation. The force support squadron commander, major command, and sponsor may have their own roles and responsibilities, but in this context, the installation commander holds the ultimate authority in authorizing additional categories of participants.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When should latrines, showers, and locker rooms be cleaned?
- A.
Hourly.
- B.
Daily.
- C.
Twice daily.
- D.
After peak periods.
Correct Answer
D. After peak periods.Explanation
Latrines, showers, and locker rooms should be cleaned after peak periods to ensure cleanliness and hygiene. Cleaning them after peak periods allows for the removal of accumulated dirt, grime, and bacteria that may have built up during busy times. This helps maintain a clean and sanitary environment for users and prevents the spread of germs and infections. Cleaning after peak periods also ensures that these facilities are readily available and clean for the next set of users.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which areas demand constant monitoring to maintain the highest degree of health and sanitation standards?
- A.
Exercise rooms, equipment rooms, and locker rooms.
- B.
Exercise rooms, equipment rooms, and latrines.
- C.
Latrines, locker rooms, and equipment rooms.
- D.
Latrines, locker rooms, and showers.
Correct Answer
D. Latrines, locker rooms, and showers.Explanation
Latrines, locker rooms, and showers demand constant monitoring to maintain the highest degree of health and sanitation standards. These areas are prone to the accumulation of bacteria, germs, and other harmful microorganisms due to the nature of their use. Regular monitoring and cleaning of these areas are necessary to prevent the spread of infections and maintain a clean and healthy environment for the users.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How can you prevent illness associated with whirlpools?
- A.
Drain the water and disinfect daily.
- B.
Drain the water and disinfect weekly.
- C.
Maintain proper temperature control and disinfect weekly.
- D.
Maintain proper temperature control and follow the manufacturer's manual.
Correct Answer
B. Drain the water and disinfect weekly.Explanation
To prevent illness associated with whirlpools, it is important to drain the water and disinfect on a weekly basis. This practice helps to eliminate any potential bacteria or pathogens that may have accumulated in the water over time. By regularly removing the water and disinfecting, the risk of illness transmission is significantly reduced.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How long should it take the water film to dry up after you damp mop a wood floor?
- A.
Half and hour.
- B.
Ten minutes.
- C.
Few seconds.
- D.
One minute.
Correct Answer
C. Few seconds.Explanation
The correct answer is "Few seconds." This is because when you damp mop a wood floor, the water film on the surface of the floor is usually very thin. Due to the porous nature of wood, the water evaporates quickly, resulting in the film drying up in just a few seconds.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who is responsible for developing an annual grounds maintenance plan for the upkeep and maintenance of all outdoor facilities?
- A.
Sports program director.
- B.
Fitness center director.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Base civil engineers.
Correct Answer
B. Fitness center director.Explanation
The fitness center director is responsible for developing an annual grounds maintenance plan for the upkeep and maintenance of all outdoor facilities. This includes ensuring that the grounds are well-maintained and safe for use by the members of the fitness center. The fitness center director is in charge of overseeing the overall operations of the facility, which includes managing the maintenance and upkeep of the outdoor areas. They are also responsible for coordinating with other departments or contractors to ensure that the grounds are properly maintained throughout the year.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who must perform a pre-season and post-season inspection of softball fields?
- A.
Sports program director.
- B.
Fitness center director.
- C.
Base civil engineers and wing safety.
- D.
Base civil engineers, wing safety, and public health.
Correct Answer
D. Base civil engineers, wing safety, and public health.Explanation
Base civil engineers, wing safety, and public health must perform a pre-season and post-season inspection of softball fields. This is because these individuals are responsible for ensuring the safety and maintenance of the fields. Base civil engineers are in charge of the physical infrastructure and maintenance of the fields, wing safety ensures that the fields are safe for use, and public health ensures that the fields meet health and sanitation standards.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How often must the fitness center director provide updated operational information to Headquarters Air Force Service Agency?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semi-annually
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
B. Quarterly.Explanation
The fitness center director must provide updated operational information to Headquarters Air Force Service Agency on a quarterly basis. This means that the director needs to provide the information every three months. Providing updates on a quarterly basis allows the agency to stay informed about the fitness center's operations regularly, ensuring effective communication and coordination between the director and the agency.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What two things does a daily inspection of the fitness center ensure?
- A.
Longevity and that no one will be hurt from using defective equipment.
- B.
There will be no bugs and that equipment is wiped off.
- C.
Proper documentation and the staff is fully utilized.
- D.
Records and statistics.
Correct Answer
A. Longevity and that no one will be hurt from using defective equipment.Explanation
A daily inspection of the fitness center ensures longevity by identifying any potential issues with the equipment that may lead to wear and tear over time. It also ensures that no one will be hurt from using defective equipment by identifying any safety hazards or malfunctions that could cause injury to users.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is involved in the ongoing inspection process of the fitness center?
- A.
Staff members.
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Everyone.
- D.
Guests.
Correct Answer
C. Everyone.Explanation
The correct answer is "Everyone" because the ongoing inspection process of the fitness center involves all individuals present, including staff members, the commander, and guests. This implies that everyone has a role to play and is actively involved in the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When can you use a handwritten "Out of Order" sign for broken equipment?
- A.
Never.
- B.
Anytime the printer is broken.
- C.
When the guest deems necessary.
- D.
As an interim emergency measure only.
Correct Answer
D. As an interim emergency measure only.Explanation
A handwritten "Out of Order" sign for broken equipment can be used as an interim emergency measure only. This means that it should only be used temporarily until the equipment can be properly repaired or replaced. It is not a permanent solution and should not be used as a substitute for proper maintenance or fixing the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What areas of fitness centers are recognized for excellence by the 5-Star Program?
- A.
Training, facilities, and budgets.
- B.
Facilities, budgets, and operations.
- C.
Training, operations, and facilities.
- D.
Facilities, operations, and equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Training, operations, and facilities.Explanation
The areas of fitness centers that are recognized for excellence by the 5-Star Program are training, operations, and facilities. This means that the program acknowledges and values high-quality training programs, efficient and effective operations, and well-maintained and equipped facilities.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the Fitness 5-Star Program?
- A.
Monthly grading of fitness center facilities.
- B.
Mandatory technical and operations system programs.
- C.
Annual recognistion of superior achievement for fitness centers.
- D.
Compliance standards for facilities, operations, and equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Annual recognistion of superior achievement for fitness centers.Explanation
The Fitness 5-Star Program is an annual recognition program that acknowledges superior achievement for fitness centers. It is not related to monthly grading of facilities, mandatory technical and operations system programs, or compliance standards. This program aims to highlight and reward fitness centers that excel in their performance and service, promoting excellence in the industry.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the 5-Star Program used for?
- A.
Training, personnel.
- B.
Training, operations, and facilities.
- C.
A tool used as an incentive to exceed standards and reach excellence.
- D.
A tool used as an incentive to meet standards and ensure checklists are complete.
Correct Answer
C. A tool used as an incentive to exceed standards and reach excellence.Explanation
The 5-Star Program is used as a tool to motivate individuals or organizations to go beyond the required standards and achieve excellence. It serves as an incentive for them to strive for higher levels of performance and continuously improve their operations, personnel, and facilities. By aiming to exceed standards, the program encourages individuals or organizations to reach their full potential and achieve the highest level of quality and excellence in their respective fields.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What establishes mandatory technical material and operational specifications for all Services programs and activities?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan.
- B.
Inspector General inspections.
- C.
Golden Eagle Standards.
- D.
5-Star Program.
Correct Answer
C. Golden Eagle Standards.Explanation
Golden Eagle Standards is the correct answer because it is the set of mandatory technical material and operational specifications that apply to all Services programs and activities. These standards ensure consistency and quality across different programs and activities, providing guidelines and requirements that must be followed. The other options mentioned, such as Career Field Education and Training Plan, Inspector General inspections, and 5-Star Program, are not specifically related to establishing mandatory technical material and operational specifications for all Services programs and activities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What individual must be on duty at all times in the fitness center?
- A.
Basic life support personnel.
- B.
American Red Cross member.
- C.
American Heart Association representative.
- D.
Trained individual that can conduct equipment orientation.
Correct Answer
D. Trained individual that can conduct equipment orientation.Explanation
The correct answer is a trained individual that can conduct equipment orientation. This individual must be on duty at all times in the fitness center to ensure the safety of the users. Conducting equipment orientation is important as it helps users understand how to properly use the fitness equipment, reducing the risk of injuries. The presence of a trained individual also allows for immediate assistance and guidance in case of any emergencies or accidents that may occur during workouts.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Once assigned, within how many days do fitness center staff have to be trained on the equipment.
- A.
180.
- B.
90.
- C.
60.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
D. 30.Explanation
The correct answer is 30. This means that fitness center staff must be trained on the equipment within 30 days of being assigned. This timeframe allows for sufficient time for staff members to familiarize themselves with the equipment and its operation, ensuring their competence and safety when assisting gym-goers. A shorter timeframe could potentially lead to inadequate training, while a longer timeframe may result in unnecessary delays in staff readiness.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Once assigned, within how many days do fitness center staff members have to attend the physical training leader course given by the HAWC fitness program manager?
- A.
180.
- B.
120.
- C.
90.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
B. 120.Explanation
Fitness center staff members have to attend the physical training leader course within 120 days as mandated by the HAWC fitness program manager. This suggests that there is a time limit for staff members to complete the course, and they are expected to do so within four months.Rate this question:
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- 25.
At a minimum, how many members of the fitness center (FC) must successfully complete an enhanced fitness course?
- A.
The fitness center director (FCD) and two civilian volunteers.
- B.
The FCD and one fitness center staff (FCS) military member.
- C.
Two FCS members and the FCD.
- D.
Two fitness center specialists.
Correct Answer
C. Two FCS members and the FCD.Explanation
The question is asking for the minimum number of members of the fitness center that must successfully complete an enhanced fitness course. The correct answer is "Two FCS members and the FCD." This means that at least two fitness center staff (FCS) members and the fitness center director (FCD) must complete the course. The other options do not meet the requirement of having at least two FCS members and the FCD.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What can a good emergency plan do?
- A.
Save money.
- B.
Prevent injuries.
- C.
Support budget requests.
- D.
Detail specific duties of first responders.
Correct Answer
A. Save money.Explanation
A good emergency plan can save money by efficiently allocating resources, minimizing damage and loss, and reducing the need for costly emergency response measures. It helps organizations identify potential risks, develop strategies to mitigate them, and establish protocols for effective response and recovery. By being prepared and having a well-executed plan in place, organizations can minimize financial losses associated with emergencies and ensure that resources are used effectively, ultimately saving money in the long run.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What does a good emergency plan include?
- A.
Evacuation point.
- B.
Fire extinguisher training.
- C.
Detailed specific duties for first responders.
- D.
Checklist detailing specific duties for each staff member.
Correct Answer
D. Checklist detailing specific duties for each staff member.Explanation
A good emergency plan includes a checklist detailing specific duties for each staff member. This ensures that everyone knows their responsibilities and can act efficiently during an emergency situation. By having a detailed checklist, the staff members can follow a structured plan of action, reducing confusion and minimizing potential risks. It also allows for better coordination and communication among the team members, enabling a more effective response to the emergency.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How often should managers document emergency plan and procedures training?
- A.
As mandated by the base fire chief.
- B.
As required by the base operations plan.
- C.
Quarterly and as new members are assigned.
- D.
Semiannually and as new members are assigned.
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly and as new members are assigned.Explanation
Managers should document emergency plan and procedures training quarterly and as new members are assigned. This ensures that training is regularly updated and refreshed to maintain preparedness for emergencies. Additionally, documenting training as new members are assigned helps to ensure that all personnel are properly trained and aware of the emergency procedures.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which tournament is the most desirable tournament if time and facilities are available?
- A.
Double elimination.
- B.
Single elimination.
- C.
Combination.
- D.
Round-robin.
Correct Answer
D. Round-robin.Explanation
In a round-robin tournament, every team or player competes against every other team or player. This ensures a fair and comprehensive competition where all participants have equal opportunities to showcase their skills. It allows for a more accurate determination of the best team or player as they have to consistently perform well against a variety of opponents. Additionally, round-robin tournaments provide more matches and playing time for participants, making it a desirable option when time and facilities are available.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the disadvantage of the single-elimination tournament?
- A.
Every entry must be defeated twice.
- B.
Every entry must place in their respective brackets.
- C.
25 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.
- D.
50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.
Correct Answer
D. 50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.Explanation
In a single-elimination tournament, 50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round. This means that if a player loses just one match, they are immediately eliminated from the tournament. This can be seen as a disadvantage because it does not give players a second chance or an opportunity to recover from a single loss. It can be frustrating for players who have put in a lot of effort and preparation, only to be eliminated after one bad performance. Additionally, it may not accurately determine the true skill level or potential of players, as luck or a single mistake can heavily influence the outcome.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When should you order the awards and prizes for the special sporting events?
- A.
After non-appropriated funds have been approved.
- B.
Immediately after the previous year's competition.
- C.
At least two months prior to the sporting events.
- D.
In the initial planning stages.
Correct Answer
D. In the initial planning stages.Explanation
Ordering the awards and prizes for special sporting events in the initial planning stages is the correct answer because it allows for adequate time to select and customize the awards, ensure availability, and make any necessary arrangements for delivery or pickup. Ordering early also helps to avoid last-minute rush and potential delays in receiving the awards, ensuring that they are ready in time for the event. Waiting until after non-appropriated funds have been approved, immediately after the previous year's competition, or at least two months prior to the sporting events may result in limited options, increased costs, or logistical challenges.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What must you keep in mind when developing schedules for sports tournaments?
- A.
Holidays, exercises, or down-days.
- B.
Special prizes and awards to purchase.
- C.
Amount of participants in the competition.
- D.
Availability of fitness center staff to work the sports tournament.
Correct Answer
A. Holidays, exercises, or down-days.Explanation
When developing schedules for sports tournaments, it is important to keep in mind holidays, exercises, or down-days. This is because these factors can affect the availability and participation of both the athletes and the audience. Scheduling tournaments on holidays or during exercise or down-days may result in lower attendance or conflicts with other events. By considering these factors, organizers can ensure better participation and a more successful tournament.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What program is recreational in nature and usually includes DOD civilians and family members?
- A.
Varsity.
- B.
Intramural.
- C.
Extramural.
- D.
Higher-level competition.
Correct Answer
C. Extramural.Explanation
Extramural programs are recreational in nature and typically involve participation from DOD civilians and their family members. These programs are designed to provide a recreational outlet and promote physical activity for individuals outside of the military. They may involve various sports or activities and are often organized at a local or community level, allowing participants to engage in friendly competition and enjoy leisure time together.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What aspects do bylaws deal with?
- A.
Protests and postponements.
- B.
Make-up days and final remarks.
- C.
Postponements and final remarks.
- D.
Final remarks and uniform requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Protests and postponements.Explanation
Bylaws are rules and regulations that govern the functioning of an organization or group. They typically cover various aspects such as procedures, policies, and responsibilities. Protests and postponements are two specific aspects that can be addressed in bylaws. Protests refer to the process of raising objections or expressing dissent within the organization, while postponements deal with the rescheduling or delay of events or activities. Therefore, the correct answer is "Protests and postponements."Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who serves as nonvoting members on the fitness and sports advisory council?
- A.
Military support flight chief and force support squadron commander.
- B.
Combat support flight commander and fitness center director.
- C.
Chairperson and force support squadron commander.
- D.
Chariperson and subcommittee chairperson.
Correct Answer
B. Combat support flight commander and fitness center director.Explanation
The correct answer is Combat support flight commander and fitness center director. These individuals serve as nonvoting members on the fitness and sports advisory council. They provide expertise and guidance in their respective areas of combat support and fitness center management, contributing to the overall decision-making process of the council.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What merchandise does Service retail operations provide until Army Air Force Exchange Service is able to deploy a direct operation exchange-tactical (DOX- T)
- A.
Emergency items.
- B.
Basic health and hygiene items only.
- C.
Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items.
- D.
No merchandise is sold until a DOT-X is deployed.
Correct Answer
C. Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items.Explanation
Service retail operations provide basic health, hygiene, and personal care items until Army Air Force Exchange Service is able to deploy a direct operation exchange-tactical (DOX-T). This means that during the period before a DOX-T is deployed, the service retail operations will offer these essential items to customers.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Where should you initially consider establishing resale operations?
- A.
Lodging.
- B.
Fitness centers.
- C.
Dining facilities.
- D.
Recreation centers.
Correct Answer
A. Lodging.Explanation
The initial consideration for establishing resale operations should be lodging. This is because lodging facilities typically have a high volume of customers who may require various items or services during their stay. By establishing resale operations in lodging facilities, businesses can cater to the needs and preferences of these customers, increasing the likelihood of sales and profitability. Additionally, lodging facilities often provide a convenient and accessible location for resale operations, making it easier for customers to access and purchase products or services.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What should you implement to monitor your activity's ability to manage resources?
- A.
Hand receipts.
- B.
Security systems.
- C.
Control measures.
- D.
Daily cash counts.
Correct Answer
C. Control measures.Explanation
To monitor an activity's ability to manage resources, implementing control measures is essential. Control measures refer to the processes and procedures put in place to ensure that resources are being effectively utilized and managed. These measures help in identifying any inefficiencies or discrepancies in resource allocation and usage, allowing for timely corrective actions to be taken. Hand receipts, security systems, and daily cash counts may be part of control measures but alone they do not encompass the comprehensive monitoring of resource management.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who can be held liable for damages when alcoholic beverages are served to a customer who appears to be reaching the point of intoxication?
- A.
Force Support commander.
- B.
AAFES commander.
- C.
Flight chiefs.
- D.
Employees.
Correct Answer
D. Employees.Explanation
Employees can be held liable for damages when alcoholic beverages are served to a customer who appears to be reaching the point of intoxication. This is because it is their responsibility to ensure the safety and well-being of the customers. If they continue to serve alcohol to someone who is visibly intoxicated, they can be held accountable for any damages or harm caused by the intoxicated individual. It is important for employees to be aware of the signs of intoxication and to refuse service to customers who are already intoxicated.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who prescribes the Dram Shop statement that is to be signed by all AAFES employees?
- A.
Force Support commander.
- B.
AAFES commander.
- C.
Activity managers.
- D.
Flight chiefs.
Correct Answer
B. AAFES commander.Explanation
The AAFES commander is responsible for prescribing the Dram Shop statement that is to be signed by all AAFES employees. This indicates that the AAFES commander has the authority to establish and enforce the rules and regulations regarding the sale and consumption of alcohol within AAFES establishments. The Force Support commander, activity managers, and flight chiefs may have their own responsibilities within the organization, but they do not have the specific authority to prescribe the Dram Shop statement.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Who is responsible for setting proper safeguards or controls to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron?
- A.
Flight chief
- B.
Activity manager.
- C.
Force Support squadron commander or director.
- D.
AAFES commander.
Correct Answer
B. Activity manager.Explanation
The activity manager is responsible for setting proper safeguards or controls to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron. They are in charge of overseeing the activities and events where alcohol is served, ensuring that measures are in place to prevent any harm or negative consequences for intoxicated individuals. This includes implementing policies, providing adequate staff training, and ensuring compliance with local laws and regulations regarding alcohol consumption.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who plans, coordinates, organizes, and maintains recreational activities throughout the deployment process?
- A.
HQ AFSVA.
- B.
Chaplain's programs.
- C.
Services professionals.
- D.
Morale, welfare, and recreation professionals.
Correct Answer
C. Services professionals.Explanation
Services professionals are responsible for planning, coordinating, organizing, and maintaining recreational activities throughout the deployment process. They ensure that the morale and welfare of the personnel are taken care of by providing various recreational activities and services. This includes organizing events, sports activities, entertainment programs, and other recreational facilities to enhance the overall well-being and morale of the deployed personnel. They work closely with other departments and units to ensure a smooth and enjoyable deployment experience for the personnel.Rate this question:
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- 43.
For what Prime Readiness in Base Services programs does Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Programs, identify appropriated funds to be used at forward-deployed locations?
- A.
Start-up imprest funds.
- B.
Basic recreational programs.
- C.
Initial purchase of resale merchandise.
- D.
Initial purchase of resale food, snacks, and beverages.
Correct Answer
B. Basic recreational programs.Explanation
AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Programs, identifies appropriated funds to be used at forward-deployed locations for basic recreational programs. This means that these funds are allocated specifically for activities and facilities that promote recreation and leisure for service members stationed at these locations. The other options, such as start-up imprest funds and the initial purchase of resale merchandise, food, snacks, and beverages, do not align with the purpose of the identified funds.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Recreation volunteers can literally keep your recreational activities going. As a manager, you should remember to
- A.
Give them free merchandise.
- B.
Give them free food and beverages.
- C.
Give them benefits like front row seats for USO tours or first pick of newly arrived movies.
- D.
Reward your volunteers through recognition programs in the Area of Responsibility.
Correct Answer
D. Reward your volunteers through recognition programs in the Area of Responsibility.Explanation
The correct answer is to reward volunteers through recognition programs in the Area of Responsibility. This means that as a manager, you should acknowledge and appreciate the efforts of your recreation volunteers by implementing programs that recognize their contributions. This could include publicly acknowledging their achievements, providing certificates or awards, or organizing events to honor their dedication. By doing so, you can motivate and encourage volunteers to continue supporting recreational activities, ensuring their continuity and success.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Non-appropriated funds revenues at some deployment locations
- A.
May face numerous restrictions.
- B.
May be used to support other services activities.
- C.
Are limited to profits earned from entertainer ticket sales.
- D.
Are limited to Army Air Force Exchange Service contributions.
Correct Answer
A. May face numerous restrictions.Explanation
The correct answer is "may face numerous restrictions." This means that the revenues generated from non-appropriated funds at certain deployment locations may have certain limitations or restrictions placed on how they can be used or allocated. These restrictions could be due to various factors such as local regulations, military policies, or specific guidelines set by the funding source.Rate this question:
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- 46.
After Action reports provide a
- A.
Procecure for communication with next deployment team.
- B.
Permanent record of how successful the actual deployment was.
- C.
Final accounting data showing overall profit or loss during the operation.
- D.
Method to identify and correct problems and disseminate results to improve the activity.
Correct Answer
D. Method to identify and correct problems and disseminate results to improve the activity.Explanation
After Action reports serve as a method to identify and correct problems that occurred during a deployment. They also allow for the dissemination of results and lessons learned to improve future activities. These reports provide a platform for communication with the next deployment team, ensuring that they are aware of any issues that may arise and can take appropriate measures to address them. Additionally, After Action reports serve as a permanent record of the deployment's success, allowing for analysis and evaluation of overall performance.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which recreation support do we establish during an environment of low hostilities?
- A.
Recreation tent, paperback books, periodical kit, and videos.
- B.
Recreation tent, library, resale, and movie operation.
- C.
Self-directed programs and a fitness center facility.
- D.
Self-directed programs, leagues, and tournaments.
Correct Answer
B. Recreation tent, library, resale, and movie operation.Explanation
In an environment of low hostilities, it is important to establish recreation support that promotes relaxation and entertainment. A recreation tent provides a space for individuals to engage in leisure activities and socialize. A library offers a variety of paperback books and periodicals, allowing people to escape into different worlds through reading. The resale option allows for the exchange or purchase of various items, providing a sense of novelty and variety. Lastly, a movie operation enables individuals to enjoy movies, further enhancing their leisure experience. Together, these options create a well-rounded and enjoyable recreation support system.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A softball league is an example of what type of activity?
- A.
Low hostility environment.
- B.
Hostile environment.
- C.
Self-directed.
- D.
Directed.
Correct Answer
D. Directed.Explanation
A softball league is an example of a directed activity because it is organized and overseen by a league director or manager who sets the rules, schedules games, and assigns teams. The participants in the league follow the direction and guidance provided by the league management, making it a directed activity rather than self-directed. The other options, low hostility environment and hostile environment, do not accurately describe the nature of a softball league as they pertain to the social atmosphere rather than the organization and structure of the activity.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What organization will you coordinate with to schedule distinguished visitor appearances and entertainment?
- A.
Major command.
- B.
Armed Forces entertainment.
- C.
United Services organization.
- D.
Army Morale, Welfare, and recreation.
Correct Answer
B. Armed Forces entertainment.Explanation
Armed Forces Entertainment is the correct answer because they are responsible for coordinating distinguished visitor appearances and entertainment for military personnel. They work closely with major commands, such as the United Services Organization and the Army Morale, Welfare, and Recreation, to organize and schedule performances and events that boost morale and provide entertainment for the armed forces.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Regarding putting on a show, what do deployed Services planners have to be concerned with?
- A.
Content of the show.
- B.
What the entertainers will do in their down time.
- C.
Transportation for entertainers to deployed location.
- D.
Where the entertainers will set-up and stage their show.
Correct Answer
D. Where the entertainers will set-up and stage their show.Explanation
Deployed Services planners have to be concerned with where the entertainers will set up and stage their show. This is important because the planners need to ensure that there is a suitable location available for the entertainers to perform. They need to consider factors such as the size of the stage, the availability of equipment and props, and the logistics of setting up the show in a deployed environment. By addressing this concern, the planners can ensure that the show runs smoothly and that the entertainers have a suitable space to showcase their talent.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 27, 2011Quiz Created by
ShirleyJ
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