3d054 CDC Vol 2

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  • 1/92 Questions

    Regarding Software management, which phrase best defines software lifecycle methodology?

    • Focus of design, build, and disposal procedures of software systems
    • Focus of design, build, and implementation standards of software systems
    • Procedures affecting the design, build, and implementation of software systems
    • Standards and procedures affecting the design, implementation, and disposal of software systems
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About This Quiz

The 3D054 CDC Vol 2 quiz assesses knowledge on software lifecycle methodology, quality assurance, and key software attributes like usability and portability. It's designed for individuals in the Air Force, enhancing skills in software management and development.

3d054 CDC Vol 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What function in the software lifecycle development is recognized by more advanced software producing organizations?

    • Lifecycle methodologies

    • Software quality assurance

    • Software quality attributes

    • Software quality verification and validation

    Correct Answer
    A. Software quality assurance
    Explanation
    Software quality assurance is recognized by more advanced software producing organizations in the software lifecycle development. This function is responsible for ensuring that the software being developed meets the required quality standards. It involves activities such as defining quality metrics, conducting audits, and implementing processes to improve the overall quality of the software. By focusing on quality assurance, organizations can minimize defects, improve customer satisfaction, and enhance the overall success of their software projects.

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  • 3. 

    The ability to learn, operate, prepare input, and interpret output is the definition of which software quality attribute?

    • Usability

    • Portability

    • Reusability

    • Interoperability

    Correct Answer
    A. Usability
    Explanation
    Usability refers to the ease of use and understandability of software. It encompasses the ability to learn how to use the software, operate it efficiently, prepare input for it, and interpret the output it provides. This attribute focuses on making the software user-friendly and accessible to a wide range of users, ensuring that they can easily interact with the software and achieve their desired tasks without confusion or frustration.

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  • 4. 

    The effort required to transfer a program from one hardware configuration to another is the definition of which software quality attribute?

    • Usability

    • Portability

    • Reusability

    • Interoperability

    Correct Answer
    A. Portability
    Explanation
    Portability is the software quality attribute that refers to the ease with which a program can be transferred from one hardware configuration to another. This means that the effort required to move a program from one system to another is minimized, allowing for greater flexibility and adaptability. Portability is important in ensuring that software can be used on different platforms and devices without significant modifications or rework.

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  • 5. 

    Which statement is correct of applying quality assurance to the software lifecycle?

    • The coding phase is checked to see if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished

    • The testing phase is exempt from the quality assurance procedures

    • The design phase is not involved in quality assurance

    • Specifications are checked during the design phase

    Correct Answer
    A. The coding phase is checked to see if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished
    Explanation
    During the software lifecycle, quality assurance is applied to ensure that the software meets the specified requirements and standards. The coding phase is an important part of this process, where the actual implementation of the software takes place. In order to ensure quality, the coding phase is checked to verify if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished. This involves reviewing the code to ensure that it aligns with the design specifications and meets the desired functionality. By checking the coding phase, quality assurance helps in identifying any deviations or errors in the implementation, allowing for necessary corrections to be made.

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  • 6. 

    When applying software quality assurance practices, in which phase do you verify that the implemented system achieves the goals specified during the design phase?

    • Design

    • Coding

    • Testing

    • Standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing
    Explanation
    In the testing phase of software quality assurance practices, the implemented system is verified to ensure that it achieves the goals specified during the design phase. This phase involves executing various tests to identify any defects or issues in the system and to validate that it meets the desired requirements. By conducting thorough testing, the quality and functionality of the software can be assessed, ensuring that it aligns with the initial design goals.

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  • 7. 

    Which quality assurance software engineering principle requires the developer to understand the scope of the development effort?

    • Analyze requirements, including constraints

    • Use capable software processes

    • Follow a disciplined process

    • Explore alternative concepts

    Correct Answer
    A. Use capable software processes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Use capable software processes" because this principle emphasizes the importance of having effective and efficient processes in place for software development. By using capable software processes, developers can better understand the scope of the development effort, ensuring that all requirements and constraints are properly analyzed and addressed. This principle helps in ensuring that the software development is carried out in a systematic and organized manner, leading to higher quality and more reliable software products.

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  • 8. 

    Which quality assurance software engineering principle recommends modeling or prototyping?

    • Analyzing requirements, including constraints

    • Use capable software processes

    • Follow a disciplined process

    • Explore alternative concepts

    Correct Answer
    A. Explore alternative concepts
    Explanation
    The quality assurance software engineering principle of "Explore alternative concepts" recommends modeling or prototyping as a way to explore different ideas and concepts. By creating models or prototypes, software engineers can test and evaluate different approaches to find the most efficient and effective solution. This principle helps in identifying potential issues and refining the requirements before moving forward with the development process.

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  • 9. 

    Which procedure involves looking at an existing software process and breaking it down into steps or areas?

    • Software qualities

    • Procedural models

    • Functions and Procedures

    • Software process improvements

    Correct Answer
    A. Software process improvements
    Explanation
    The procedure that involves looking at an existing software process and breaking it down into steps or areas is software process improvements. This procedure focuses on analyzing and evaluating the current software process in order to identify areas for improvement and make necessary changes to enhance the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the process.

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  • 10. 

    Which capability maturity model level is defined as repeatable?

    • Level 1

    • Level 2

    • Level 3

    • Level 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Level 2
    Explanation
    Level 2 is defined as repeatable in the capability maturity model. This level indicates that the organization has established basic project management processes that are consistent and repeatable. It means that the processes are documented and followed consistently across projects, ensuring a level of predictability and control. At this level, the organization has achieved a higher level of maturity compared to Level 1, where processes are ad hoc and unpredictable. However, Level 2 is still considered a relatively low level of maturity, as it does not yet focus on process optimization and continuous improvement, which are addressed in higher levels of the model.

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  • 11. 

    Which capability maturity model level are processes and products quantitatively measured, understood, and controlled?

    • Level 1

    • Level 2

    • Level 3

    • Level 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Level 4
    Explanation
    At Capability Maturity Model (CMM) Level 4, processes and products are quantitatively measured, understood, and controlled. This means that organizations at this level have established a quantitative understanding of their processes and products, and they use this data to make informed decisions and control their processes effectively. This level signifies a high level of maturity in terms of process management and the ability to make data-driven improvements.

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  • 12. 

    Which function best provides early indications of potential software development problems?

    • Software metrics

    • Software Aquisition

    • Software quality assurance

    • Configuration management

    Correct Answer
    A. Software metrics
    Explanation
    Software metrics provide early indications of potential software development problems by quantitatively measuring various aspects of the software development process. These metrics can include code complexity, code coverage, defect density, and other relevant factors. By analyzing these metrics, developers and project managers can identify potential issues and take corrective actions before they escalate into major problems. This helps in improving the overall quality of the software and ensuring that it meets the desired standards and requirements.

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  • 13. 

    Having only one way to interpret the metric describes which attribute?

    • Timely

    • Unambiguously defined

    • Drives appropriate action

    • Data is economical to collect

    Correct Answer
    A. Unambiguously defined
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unambiguously defined." Having only one way to interpret the metric means that it is clearly and precisely defined, leaving no room for confusion or multiple interpretations. This attribute is important as it ensures that everyone involved understands the metric in the same way, leading to more accurate and reliable data analysis.

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  • 14. 

    Which metric attribute specifies that data needs to be collected on a schedule?

    • Timely

    • Unambiguously defined

    • Drives appropriate action

    • Data is economical to collect

    Correct Answer
    A. Timely
    Explanation
    The metric attribute "Timely" specifies that data needs to be collected on a schedule. This means that the data should be collected at specific intervals or at specific times to ensure that it is up to date and relevant. Collecting data in a timely manner allows for accurate analysis and decision-making based on current information.

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  • 15. 

    Which question would a quality metric ask?

    • How accurate is the navigation algorithm?

    • How much did the first modules cost?

    • How long did it take to fix the errors?

    • How good is the product?

    Correct Answer
    A. How good is the product?
    Explanation
    A quality metric would ask "How good is the product?" because a quality metric is used to measure the overall quality and performance of a product. It evaluates various aspects such as functionality, reliability, usability, and effectiveness. By asking how good the product is, the quality metric aims to assess its overall quality and determine if it meets the desired standards and requirements.

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  • 16. 

    Which quality metric is enhanced with simplified design, simpler data structures, and comments?

    • Portability

    • Reliability

    • Verifiability

    • Maintainability

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintainability
    Explanation
    Maintainability is enhanced with simplified design, simpler data structures, and comments because these practices make the code easier to understand, modify, and debug. Simplified design reduces complexity and makes it easier to identify and fix issues. Simpler data structures improve readability and make it easier to maintain and update the code. Comments provide additional explanations and documentation, making it easier for future developers to understand the code and make changes if needed. Overall, these practices contribute to the maintainability of the codebase.

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  • 17. 

    Which quality metric includes measuring likelihood of unexpected behavior?

    • Portability

    • Reliability

    • Verifiability

    • Maintainability

    Correct Answer
    A. Reliability
    Explanation
    Reliability is the quality metric that includes measuring the likelihood of unexpected behavior. This is because reliability refers to the ability of a system to consistently perform its intended functions without failure or errors. In other words, a reliable system is one that can be trusted to behave as expected and not exhibit any unexpected or unpredictable behavior. Therefore, measuring the likelihood of unexpected behavior falls under the purview of reliability.

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  • 18. 

    Regarding designing automated data systems, in which phase do we analyze the current system in order to understand its deficiencies?

    • Evaluate user requirements

    • Document Flow Analysis

    • Conduct feasibility studies

    • Conduct system studies

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct system studies
    Explanation
    Conducting system studies is the phase where we analyze the current system to understand its deficiencies. This involves examining the existing system, identifying its strengths and weaknesses, and determining areas that need improvement. By conducting system studies, we can gather information about the current system's functionality, performance, and limitations, which helps in designing an automated data system that addresses these deficiencies and meets user requirements effectively.

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  • 19. 

    When conducting a system study, which statement best describes something you look for?

    • Where and how current system fails to meet the present objective

    • The amount of time it takes to manually perform the process

    • The amount of redundant processes that are performed

    • The total amount of processes to perform

    Correct Answer
    A. Where and how current system fails to meet the present objective
    Explanation
    During a system study, the focus is on evaluating the current system and identifying its shortcomings in meeting the present objective. This involves analyzing where and how the current system fails to meet the desired goals and objectives. By understanding the areas of weakness or inefficiency, improvements can be made to enhance the system's performance and align it with the present objectives. The other options provided in the question, such as the time taken to perform the process, the amount of redundant processes, or the total number of processes, may be relevant but do not directly address the main purpose of identifying the current system's failures.

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  • 20. 

    During document flow analysis, what can you use to show particular items in a system that personal interviews cannot achieve?

    • Evaluating user requirements

    • Graphical representation

    • System Studies

    • Flow charts

    Correct Answer
    A. Graphical representation
    Explanation
    Graphical representation can be used during document flow analysis to show particular items in a system that personal interviews cannot achieve. Graphical representation, such as flow charts, can visually depict the flow of documents and information within a system, making it easier to understand and analyze. This visual representation can provide a clear and concise overview of the document flow, highlighting any bottlenecks, inefficiencies, or areas for improvement. Personal interviews may not be able to achieve this level of clarity and understanding, as they rely on verbal communication and may not capture the full complexity of the document flow.

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  • 21. 

    When designing automated data systems, at what point do you evaluate the user requirements?

    • Before the document flow analysis

    • After the document flow analysis

    • After the feasibility studies

    • After the system studies

    Correct Answer
    A. After the document flow analysis
    Explanation
    When designing automated data systems, evaluating user requirements after the document flow analysis is the correct approach. Document flow analysis involves understanding the flow of documents and information within an organization. By conducting this analysis first, designers can gain insights into how data is currently being managed and identify any inefficiencies or areas for improvement. Once this analysis is complete, they can then assess the specific requirements and needs of the users to ensure that the automated data system effectively addresses their needs and aligns with the organization's goals.

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  • 22. 

    When evaluating user requirements separately, which statement do you consider when determining how each requirement will fit into the overall system? 

    • How independent each module is

    • The interdependency of each requirement

    • The length of time it will take to code the module

    • How well each requirement interacts with each other

    Correct Answer
    A. How well each requirement interacts with each other
    Explanation
    When determining how each requirement will fit into the overall system, the statement that needs to be considered is how well each requirement interacts with each other. This means that the requirements should be evaluated based on how they work together and complement each other in order to achieve the desired outcome. The focus is on the integration and synergy between the requirements rather than their individual characteristics or coding considerations.

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  • 23. 

    When planning and designing automated data systems, what is the next step after evaluating user requirements?

    • Conduct system studies

    • Document flow analysis

    • System studies brief

    • Feasibility studies

    Correct Answer
    A. System studies brief
    Explanation
    After evaluating user requirements, the next step would be to conduct system studies. This involves analyzing the current system and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. It helps in understanding the existing processes and technology infrastructure. Once the system studies are conducted, a system studies brief can be prepared, which summarizes the findings and recommendations from the studies. This brief serves as a guide for further planning and designing of the automated data systems. Feasibility studies and document flow analysis may be conducted as part of the system studies process.

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  • 24. 

    What phase of the planning and designing process can expose areas of development process that might present problems during the design and implementation phase?

    • Evaluating user requirements

    • Document flow analysis

    • System studies brief

    • Feasibility studies

    Correct Answer
    A. Feasibility studies
    Explanation
    Feasibility studies in the planning and designing process can expose areas of the development process that might present problems during the design and implementation phase. These studies assess the practicality and viability of a proposed project, helping to identify potential challenges, risks, and limitations. By analyzing factors such as technical feasibility, economic viability, and operational feasibility, feasibility studies provide valuable insights that can inform decision-making and help mitigate potential issues during the subsequent phases of design and implementation.

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  • 25. 

    A composite of subsystems, assemblies, skills, and techniques capable of performing or supporting an operational role best defines a

    • System

    • Segment

    • Computer software component

    • Computer software configuration item

    Correct Answer
    A. System
    Explanation
    A system is a composite of subsystems, assemblies, skills, and techniques capable of performing or supporting an operational role. This definition implies that a system is made up of various components that work together to achieve a specific purpose or function. It can include hardware, software, people, processes, and other elements necessary for its operation. A system is not limited to a specific domain or industry and can be applied in various contexts.

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  • 26. 

    Which component is a distinct part of a Computer Software Configuration Item (CSCI) and may be further broken down?

    • Computer Software Unit (CSU)

    • Hardware Configuration Item (HWCI)

    • Computer Software Component(CSC)

    • CSCI

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Software Component(CSC)
    Explanation
    A Computer Software Component (CSC) is a distinct part of a Computer Software Configuration Item (CSCI) that can be further broken down. This means that within a CSCI, there are individual CSCs that make up the overall software configuration. These CSCs can be separated and analyzed individually, allowing for easier management and understanding of the software.

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  • 27. 

    Which purpose is not a function of software configuration management?

    • To identify the functional and physical characteristics of selected system components

    • To record/report change processing and implementation status

    • To solicit bids for contracts under configuration control

    • To control changes to those characteristics

    Correct Answer
    A. To solicit bids for contracts under configuration control
    Explanation
    The purpose of software configuration management is to identify the functional and physical characteristics of selected system components, record/report change processing and implementation status, and control changes to those characteristics. Soliciting bids for contracts under configuration control is not a function of software configuration management.

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  • 28. 

    What is the purpose of configuration management during acquisition?

    • Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance

    • Document the alternative designs that meet operational requirements

    • Control and account for the functional and physical charateristics

    • Audit the established baselines

    Correct Answer
    A. Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance
    Explanation
    The purpose of configuration management during acquisition is to assist program managers in achieving the required system performance. Configuration management helps in ensuring that the system is properly configured and meets the desired performance standards. It helps in identifying and resolving any configuration issues that may affect the system's performance. By managing the configuration, program managers can ensure that the system is optimized for its intended purpose and can perform as expected.

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  • 29. 

    What is the purpose of configuration management during deployment and operation?

    • Assist the program managers in achieving the required program performance

    • Document the alternative designs that meet operational requirements

    • Control and account for the functional and physical characteristics

    • Audit the established baselines

    Correct Answer
    A. Control and account for the functional and physical characteristics
    Explanation
    Configuration management is essential during deployment and operation to control and account for the functional and physical characteristics of a system. This involves keeping track of the various components, versions, and configurations of the system to ensure that it is operating correctly and in line with the desired specifications. By having proper configuration management in place, organizations can effectively monitor and manage changes, identify and resolve issues, and maintain the integrity and reliability of the system throughout its lifecycle.

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  • 30. 

    Which configuration management goal is based on "Time is Money"

    • Apply configuration management to the software lifecycle

    • Perform functional and physical configuration audits

    • Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes

    • Avoid multiple copies

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes
    Explanation
    The goal of maximizing productivity by minimizing mistakes in configuration management is based on the principle that time is money. By reducing errors and ensuring that the software development process runs smoothly, productivity can be increased, leading to cost savings and efficient use of resources. This goal emphasizes the importance of error prevention and quality control in order to optimize productivity and ultimately save time and money.

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  • 31. 

    What can programmers do to prevent wasting time looking for the right version of a program?

    • Apply configuration management to the software life cycle

    • Perform functional and physical configuration audits

    • Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes

    • Avoid multiple copies

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid multiple copies
    Explanation
    Programmers can prevent wasting time looking for the right version of a program by avoiding multiple copies. This means that they should ensure that there is only one version of the program available, rather than having multiple copies stored in different locations. By doing so, programmers can easily locate and access the correct version of the program, saving time and avoiding confusion.

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  • 32. 

    Which configuration management function is defined as both the selection of the documents which identify and define the configuration baseline characteristics of an item, and as the documents themselves?

    • Configuration status accounting

    • Configuration identification

    • Configuration control

    • Configuration audits

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration identification
    Explanation
    Configuration identification is the correct answer because it refers to the process of selecting the documents that identify and define the configuration baseline characteristics of an item. It also includes the actual documents themselves that serve as the baseline for the configuration management process. This function is crucial in ensuring that the correct configuration of an item is documented and maintained throughout its lifecycle.

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  • 33. 

    In which configuration management function will you find Engineering Change Proposals (ECP)?

    • Configuration Status accounting

    • Configuration identification

    • Configuration control

    • Configuration audits

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration control
    Explanation
    In the configuration control function, Engineering Change Proposals (ECP) can be found. This function is responsible for evaluating and approving any proposed changes to the configuration of a system or product. ECPs are used to document and track proposed changes, ensuring that they are reviewed, evaluated, and implemented in a controlled manner.

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  • 34. 

    Which baseline is the initially approved allocated configuration identification, describing functional characteristics allocated to a configuration item?

    • Product

    • Allocated

    • Document

    • Functional

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional
    Explanation
    The initially approved allocated configuration identification refers to the functional characteristics allocated to a configuration item. This means that it is the baseline that describes how the configuration item should function and what its specific characteristics are. It is not related to the product, the allocated configuration, or any specific document.

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  • 35. 

    An open system architecture means the software is

    • Designed to port to different memory configurations

    • Easily changed to accommodate other hardware platforms

    • Tied closely to the operating system to appear seamless to the user

    • Transferable and not dependent on other hardware platforms or operating systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferable and not dependent on other hardware platforms or operating systems
    Explanation
    An open system architecture refers to software that can be transferred and used on different hardware platforms or operating systems without being dependent on any specific one. This means that the software is not tied closely to any particular operating system and can be easily ported to different memory configurations. It is designed to be easily changed and accommodated to work with other hardware platforms, making it transferable and adaptable to various systems.

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  • 36. 

    What still needs to be the Air Force's major goal to improve flexibility over the life of the system and comply with standards?

    • Engineering

    • Open Architecture

    • Decrease Flexibility

    • Sacrifice a working system

    Correct Answer
    A. Open Architecture
    Explanation
    Open Architecture needs to be the Air Force's major goal to improve flexibility over the life of the system and comply with standards. Open Architecture refers to a system design that allows for interoperability, modularity, and the ability to easily integrate new technologies. By adopting an open architecture approach, the Air Force can ensure that its systems can adapt and evolve over time, keeping up with changing requirements and advancements in technology. This will also enable the Air Force to comply with industry standards and facilitate collaboration with other organizations.

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  • 37. 

    Which statement is not considered useful for a standards-based software infrastructure?

    • Must be controlled

    • Includes provisions for change

    • Must be maintained throughout the lifecycle

    • Must provide for enhancements at predetermined phases in the lifeccycle

    Correct Answer
    A. Must provide for enhancements at predetermined phases in the lifeccycle
    Explanation
    This statement is not considered useful for a standards-based software infrastructure because it implies that enhancements can only be made at predetermined phases in the lifecycle. In a standards-based software infrastructure, it is important to have flexibility and the ability to make enhancements and improvements as needed, rather than being restricted to predetermined phases.

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  • 38. 

    The focus of the tri-service open systems architecture is to 

    • Plot out the different standards each service would adopt

    • Critique the warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model

    • Instruct the different services on the various open systems standards presently in place

    • Adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services

    Correct Answer
    A. Adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services
    Explanation
    The focus of the tri-service open systems architecture is to adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services. This means that the architecture aims to establish a common framework or approach for designing and building these systems, ensuring interoperability and compatibility across the different services. By adopting a unified paradigm, the services can work together more effectively and efficiently in developing and implementing their warfare and warfare support systems.

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  • 39. 

    What impact does open systems architecture have on a re-engineering effort, if any?

    • No impact

    • It will be easier, but more expensive

    • It will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support

    • It will be cheaper, at the expense of hardware maintenance and support

    Correct Answer
    A. It will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support
    Explanation
    Open systems architecture refers to a design approach that allows for interoperability and compatibility between different systems and components. In the context of a re-engineering effort, implementing open systems architecture can have a positive impact on cost reduction. By adopting open standards and protocols, organizations can avoid vendor lock-in and have the flexibility to choose from a wider range of hardware and software options. This increased competition can lead to lower prices for both hardware and ongoing maintenance and support. Therefore, the correct answer is that it will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support.

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  • 40. 

    Which is not one of the advantages of implementing an open system?

    • Reduce system costs

    • Reduce acquisition costs

    • Improve information sharing

    • Reduce the need for standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the need for standards
    Explanation
    Implementing an open system does not reduce the need for standards. In fact, open systems often require more standards to ensure interoperability and compatibility between different components and technologies. The advantages of implementing an open system include reducing system costs, reducing acquisition costs, and improving information sharing.

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  • 41. 

    The warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model (WWSS TRM) is

    • A baseline document that will not be updated to facilitate services reaching the standard

    • An archived document that will be revived as needed

    • A living document that will be periodically updated

    • Being approved by each of the services in turn

    Correct Answer
    A. A living document that will be periodically updated
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a living document that will be periodically updated. This means that the warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model (WWSS TRM) is not a static document but rather a dynamic one that will be revised and updated regularly to keep up with the changing needs and advancements in warfare and warfare support systems. This ensures that the document remains relevant and useful over time.

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  • 42. 

    Which open system standard does the Air Force use for network protocol?

    • Portable Operating System interface for Computer Environment (POSIX)

    • Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP)

    • Structured Query language (SQL)

    • X-Windows

    Correct Answer
    A. Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP)
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP) for network protocol. GOSIP is an open system standard that ensures interoperability and compatibility among different computer systems. It provides guidelines and specifications for networking protocols, allowing different systems to communicate and share information effectively. By using GOSIP, the Air Force can establish a standardized and secure network infrastructure that supports their operations and communication needs.

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  • 43. 

    What Open system standard does the Air Force specify for user interfaces?

    • POSIX

    • GOSIP

    • SQL

    • X-Windows

    Correct Answer
    A. X-Windows
    Explanation
    The Air Force specifies X-Windows as the open system standard for user interfaces. X-Windows is a widely used standard for graphical user interfaces in Unix-like operating systems. It provides a framework for creating and managing windows, menus, and other graphical elements. By specifying X-Windows, the Air Force ensures compatibility and interoperability among different systems and software applications used within their organization.

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  • 44. 

    Regarding acquisition processes and procedures, the definition "uses parts and design practice solid enough to stand up to typical civilian duty, but probably would not stand up on the battlefield" is the best example of

    • Commercial off the shelf

    • Best commercial practice

    • Commercial type

    • Olive drab

    Correct Answer
    A. Best commercial practice
    Explanation
    The given definition, "uses parts and design practice solid enough to stand up to typical civilian duty, but probably would not stand up on the battlefield," best exemplifies the concept of "best commercial practice." This term refers to the use of industry-standard methods, techniques, and practices that are widely accepted and proven to be effective in commercial settings. In this context, it means that the acquisition processes and procedures follow the best practices commonly used in civilian applications but may not meet the rigorous requirements of military or battlefield conditions.

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  • 45. 

    In the Acquisition process, what is the first step in conducting a market investigation?

    • Develop requirements to ensure suppliers are informed on specific equipment of function required

    • Conduct a general survey of market place to determine availability of potential sources

    • Submit a request for proposal (RFP) to current suppliers requesting bids

    • Collect information by contacting the market based on your specific needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a general survey of market place to determine availability of potential sources
    Explanation
    The first step in conducting a market investigation in the Acquisition process is to conduct a general survey of the market place to determine the availability of potential sources. This step involves gathering information about the market, such as the number of suppliers, their capabilities, and the availability of the desired equipment or function. By conducting this survey, the organization can gain insights into the market dynamics and make informed decisions about potential suppliers for the acquisition process.

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  • 46. 

    In the acquisition process, when is the market analysis started?

    • After the preliminary design review (PDR) is completed

    • After the Concept Exploration phase is completed

    • During the PDR

    • During the concept exploration phase

    Correct Answer
    A. After the Concept Exploration phase is completed
    Explanation
    The market analysis is started after the Concept Exploration phase is completed. This is because the Concept Exploration phase involves generating and evaluating different ideas and concepts for the acquisition. Once this phase is completed, the market analysis can begin, which involves researching and analyzing the market conditions, competitors, and customer needs to determine the feasibility and potential success of the acquisition.

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  • 47. 

    What is considered to be the heart of the Visual Basic language?

    • User interface

    • Graphical user interface

    • Integrated Drive electronics

    • Integrated development environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated development environment
    Explanation
    The integrated development environment (IDE) is considered to be the heart of the Visual Basic language. An IDE is a software application that provides a comprehensive set of tools for software development. In the case of Visual Basic, the IDE includes features such as a code editor, a debugger, and a graphical user interface designer. It allows developers to write, test, and debug their code in a single environment, making the development process more efficient and streamlined. The IDE is essential for creating Visual Basic applications and is therefore considered the heart of the language.

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  • 48. 

    What consists of Visual Basic menu bars, toolbars, and form windows?

    • User Interface

    • Graphical user Interface

    • Integrated drive electronics

    • Integrated development environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Graphical user Interface
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Graphical user Interface. This is because the question is asking about what consists of Visual Basic menu bars, toolbars, and form windows, which are all components of a graphical user interface (GUI). The GUI allows users to interact with the software through visual elements such as menus, buttons, and windows, making it easier to navigate and use the program.

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  • 49. 

    What are Visual Basic forms and controls called?

    • Objects

    • Projects

    • Project window

    • Properties window

    Correct Answer
    A. Objects
    Explanation
    Visual Basic forms and controls are referred to as objects. In Visual Basic, an object is a self-contained entity that encapsulates data and behavior. Forms and controls are objects because they have properties, methods, and events associated with them. They can be manipulated and interacted with programmatically to create user interfaces and perform various tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is "Objects".

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Mar 02, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Zgoyer

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