3d054 CDC Vol 2

92 Questions | Total Attempts: 56

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3d054 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Regarding Software management, which phrase best defines software lifecycle methodology?
    • A. 

      Focus of design, build, and disposal procedures of software systems

    • B. 

      Focus of design, build, and implementation standards of software systems

    • C. 

      Procedures affecting the design, build, and implementation of software systems

    • D. 

      Standards and procedures affecting the design, implementation, and disposal of software systems

  • 2. 
    What function in the software lifecycle development is recognized by more advanced software producing organizations?
    • A. 

      Lifecycle methodologies

    • B. 

      Software quality assurance

    • C. 

      Software quality attributes

    • D. 

      Software quality verification and validation

  • 3. 
    The ability to learn, operate, prepare input, and interpret output is the definition of which software quality attribute?
    • A. 

      Usability

    • B. 

      Portability

    • C. 

      Reusability

    • D. 

      Interoperability

  • 4. 
    The effort required to transfer a program from one hardware configuration to another is the definition of which software quality attribute?
    • A. 

      Usability

    • B. 

      Portability

    • C. 

      Reusability

    • D. 

      Interoperability

  • 5. 
    Which statement is correct of applying quality assurance to the software lifecycle?
    • A. 

      The coding phase is checked to see if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished

    • B. 

      The testing phase is exempt from the quality assurance procedures

    • C. 

      The design phase is not involved in quality assurance

    • D. 

      Specifications are checked during the design phase

  • 6. 
    When applying software quality assurance practices, in which phase do you verify that the implemented system achieves the goals specified during the design phase?
    • A. 

      Design

    • B. 

      Coding

    • C. 

      Testing

    • D. 

      Standards

  • 7. 
    Which quality assurance software engineering principle requires the developer to understand the scope of the development effort?
    • A. 

      Analyze requirements, including constraints

    • B. 

      Use capable software processes

    • C. 

      Follow a disciplined process

    • D. 

      Explore alternative concepts

  • 8. 
    Which quality assurance software engineering principle recommends modeling or prototyping?
    • A. 

      Analyzing requirements, including constraints

    • B. 

      Use capable software processes

    • C. 

      Follow a disciplined process

    • D. 

      Explore alternative concepts

  • 9. 
    Which procedure involves looking at an existing software process and breaking it down into steps or areas?
    • A. 

      Software qualities

    • B. 

      Procedural models

    • C. 

      Functions and Procedures

    • D. 

      Software process improvements

  • 10. 
    Which capability maturity model level is defined as repeatable?
    • A. 

      Level 1

    • B. 

      Level 2

    • C. 

      Level 3

    • D. 

      Level 4

  • 11. 
    Which capability maturity model level are processes and products quantitatively measured, understood, and controlled?
    • A. 

      Level 1

    • B. 

      Level 2

    • C. 

      Level 3

    • D. 

      Level 4

  • 12. 
    Which function best provides early indications of potential software development problems?
    • A. 

      Software metrics

    • B. 

      Software Aquisition

    • C. 

      Software quality assurance

    • D. 

      Configuration management

  • 13. 
    Having only one way to interpret the metric describes which attribute?
    • A. 

      Timely

    • B. 

      Unambiguously defined

    • C. 

      Drives appropriate action

    • D. 

      Data is economical to collect

  • 14. 
    Which metric attribute specifies that data needs to be collected on a schedule?
    • A. 

      Timely

    • B. 

      Unambiguously defined

    • C. 

      Drives appropriate action

    • D. 

      Data is economical to collect

  • 15. 
    Which question would a quality metric ask?
    • A. 

      How accurate is the navigation algorithm?

    • B. 

      How much did the first modules cost?

    • C. 

      How long did it take to fix the errors?

    • D. 

      How good is the product?

  • 16. 
    Which quality metric is enhanced with simplified design, simpler data structures, and comments?
    • A. 

      Portability

    • B. 

      Reliability

    • C. 

      Verifiability

    • D. 

      Maintainability

  • 17. 
    Which quality metric includes measuring likelihood of unexpected behavior?
    • A. 

      Portability

    • B. 

      Reliability

    • C. 

      Verifiability

    • D. 

      Maintainability

  • 18. 
    Regarding designing automated data systems, in which phase do we analyze the current system in order to understand its deficiencies?
    • A. 

      Evaluate user requirements

    • B. 

      Document Flow Analysis

    • C. 

      Conduct feasibility studies

    • D. 

      Conduct system studies

  • 19. 
    When conducting a system study, which statement best describes something you look for?
    • A. 

      Where and how current system fails to meet the present objective

    • B. 

      The amount of time it takes to manually perform the process

    • C. 

      The amount of redundant processes that are performed

    • D. 

      The total amount of processes to perform

  • 20. 
    During document flow analysis, what can you use to show particular items in a system that personal interviews cannot achieve?
    • A. 

      Evaluating user requirements

    • B. 

      Graphical representation

    • C. 

      System Studies

    • D. 

      Flow charts

  • 21. 
    When designing automated data systems, at what point do you evaluate the user requirements?
    • A. 

      Before the document flow analysis

    • B. 

      After the document flow analysis

    • C. 

      After the feasibility studies

    • D. 

      After the system studies

  • 22. 
    When evaluating user requirements separately, which statement do you consider when determining how each requirement will fit into the overall system? 
    • A. 

      How independent each module is

    • B. 

      The interdependency of each requirement

    • C. 

      The length of time it will take to code the module

    • D. 

      How well each requirement interacts with each other

  • 23. 
    When planning and designing automated data systems, what is the next step after evaluating user requirements?
    • A. 

      Conduct system studies

    • B. 

      Document flow analysis

    • C. 

      System studies brief

    • D. 

      Feasibility studies

  • 24. 
    What phase of the planning and designing process can expose areas of development process that might present problems during the design and implementation phase?
    • A. 

      Evaluating user requirements

    • B. 

      Document flow analysis

    • C. 

      System studies brief

    • D. 

      Feasibility studies

  • 25. 
    A composite of subsystems, assemblies, skills, and techniques capable of performing or supporting an operational role best defines a
    • A. 

      System

    • B. 

      Segment

    • C. 

      Computer software component

    • D. 

      Computer software configuration item

  • 26. 
    Which component is a distinct part of a Computer Software Configuration Item (CSCI) and may be further broken down?
    • A. 

      Computer Software Unit (CSU)

    • B. 

      Hardware Configuration Item (HWCI)

    • C. 

      Computer Software Component(CSC)

    • D. 

      CSCI

  • 27. 
    Which purpose is not a function of software configuration management?
    • A. 

      To identify the functional and physical characteristics of selected system components

    • B. 

      To record/report change processing and implementation status

    • C. 

      To solicit bids for contracts under configuration control

    • D. 

      To control changes to those characteristics

  • 28. 
    What is the purpose of configuration management during acquisition?
    • A. 

      Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance

    • B. 

      Document the alternative designs that meet operational requirements

    • C. 

      Control and account for the functional and physical charateristics

    • D. 

      Audit the established baselines

  • 29. 
    What is the purpose of configuration management during deployment and operation?
    • A. 

      Assist the program managers in achieving the required program performance

    • B. 

      Document the alternative designs that meet operational requirements

    • C. 

      Control and account for the functional and physical characteristics

    • D. 

      Audit the established baselines

  • 30. 
    Which configuration management goal is based on "Time is Money"
    • A. 

      Apply configuration management to the software lifecycle

    • B. 

      Perform functional and physical configuration audits

    • C. 

      Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes

    • D. 

      Avoid multiple copies

  • 31. 
    What can programmers do to prevent wasting time looking for the right version of a program?
    • A. 

      Apply configuration management to the software life cycle

    • B. 

      Perform functional and physical configuration audits

    • C. 

      Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes

    • D. 

      Avoid multiple copies

  • 32. 
    Which configuration management function is defined as both the selection of the documents which identify and define the configuration baseline characteristics of an item, and as the documents themselves?
    • A. 

      Configuration status accounting

    • B. 

      Configuration identification

    • C. 

      Configuration control

    • D. 

      Configuration audits

  • 33. 
    In which configuration management function will you find Engineering Change Proposals (ECP)?
    • A. 

      Configuration Status accounting

    • B. 

      Configuration identification

    • C. 

      Configuration control

    • D. 

      Configuration audits

  • 34. 
    Which baseline is the initially approved allocated configuration identification, describing functional characteristics allocated to a configuration item?
    • A. 

      Product

    • B. 

      Allocated

    • C. 

      Document

    • D. 

      Functional

  • 35. 
    An open system architecture means the software is
    • A. 

      Designed to port to different memory configurations

    • B. 

      Easily changed to accommodate other hardware platforms

    • C. 

      Tied closely to the operating system to appear seamless to the user

    • D. 

      Transferable and not dependent on other hardware platforms or operating systems

  • 36. 
    What still needs to be the Air Force's major goal to improve flexibility over the life of the system and comply with standards?
    • A. 

      Engineering

    • B. 

      Open Architecture

    • C. 

      Decrease Flexibility

    • D. 

      Sacrifice a working system

  • 37. 
    Which statement is not considered useful for a standards-based software infrastructure?
    • A. 

      Must be controlled

    • B. 

      Includes provisions for change

    • C. 

      Must be maintained throughout the lifecycle

    • D. 

      Must provide for enhancements at predetermined phases in the lifeccycle

  • 38. 
    The focus of the tri-service open systems architecture is to 
    • A. 

      Plot out the different standards each service would adopt

    • B. 

      Critique the warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model

    • C. 

      Instruct the different services on the various open systems standards presently in place

    • D. 

      Adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services

  • 39. 
    What impact does open systems architecture have on a re-engineering effort, if any?
    • A. 

      No impact

    • B. 

      It will be easier, but more expensive

    • C. 

      It will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support

    • D. 

      It will be cheaper, at the expense of hardware maintenance and support

  • 40. 
    Which is not one of the advantages of implementing an open system?
    • A. 

      Reduce system costs

    • B. 

      Reduce acquisition costs

    • C. 

      Improve information sharing

    • D. 

      Reduce the need for standards

  • 41. 
    The warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model (WWSS TRM) is
    • A. 

      A baseline document that will not be updated to facilitate services reaching the standard

    • B. 

      An archived document that will be revived as needed

    • C. 

      A living document that will be periodically updated

    • D. 

      Being approved by each of the services in turn

  • 42. 
    Which open system standard does the Air Force use for network protocol?
    • A. 

      Portable Operating System interface for Computer Environment (POSIX)

    • B. 

      Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP)

    • C. 

      Structured Query language (SQL)

    • D. 

      X-Windows

  • 43. 
    What Open system standard does the Air Force specify for user interfaces?
    • A. 

      POSIX

    • B. 

      GOSIP

    • C. 

      SQL

    • D. 

      X-Windows

  • 44. 
    Regarding acquisition processes and procedures, the definition "uses parts and design practice solid enough to stand up to typical civilian duty, but probably would not stand up on the battlefield" is the best example of
    • A. 

      Commercial off the shelf

    • B. 

      Best commercial practice

    • C. 

      Commercial type

    • D. 

      Olive drab

  • 45. 
    In the Acquisition process, what is the first step in conducting a market investigation?
    • A. 

      Develop requirements to ensure suppliers are informed on specific equipment of function required

    • B. 

      Conduct a general survey of market place to determine availability of potential sources

    • C. 

      Submit a request for proposal (RFP) to current suppliers requesting bids

    • D. 

      Collect information by contacting the market based on your specific needs

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      After the preliminary design review (PDR) is completed

    • B. 

      After the Concept Exploration phase is completed

    • C. 

      During the PDR

    • D. 

      During the concept exploration phase

  • 47. 
    What is considered to be the heart of the Visual Basic language?
    • A. 

      User interface

    • B. 

      Graphical user interface

    • C. 

      Integrated Drive electronics

    • D. 

      Integrated development environment

  • 48. 
    What consists of Visual Basic menu bars, toolbars, and form windows?
    • A. 

      User Interface

    • B. 

      Graphical user Interface

    • C. 

      Integrated drive electronics

    • D. 

      Integrated development environment

  • 49. 
    What are Visual Basic forms and controls called?
    • A. 

      Objects

    • B. 

      Projects

    • C. 

      Project window

    • D. 

      Properties window

  • 50. 
    Which Visual basic window is used to control an objects characteristics?
    • A. 

      Forms

    • B. 

      Controls

    • C. 

      Properties

    • D. 

      Project explorer

  • 51. 
    Which Visual Basic variable type is used to declare new variables?
    • A. 

      Let Statement

    • B. 

      Dim Statement

    • C. 

      Logical operators

    • D. 

      Comparison operators

  • 52. 
    Which Visual basic variable type is used to assign values to variables?
    • A. 

      Let Statement

    • B. 

      Dim Statement

    • C. 

      Logical Operators

    • D. 

      Comparison operators

  • 53. 
    What is also referred to as the subscript of a Visual Basic array?
    • A. 

      Index

    • B. 

      Element

    • C. 

      Data Type

    • D. 

      Data Element

  • 54. 
    How many dimensions can a Visual Basic multidimensional array have?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      80

  • 55. 
    Which Visual Basic components are complete units of code that use expressions to describe an action, make a declaration, or identify an object?
    • A. 

      Statement

    • B. 

      If Statement

    • C. 

      Rem Statement

    • D. 

      Select case Statement

  • 56. 
    Which Visual Basic component tests for a specific condition, range of conditions, or lack of certain conditions based on a truth value?
    • A. 

      Statement

    • B. 

      If Statement

    • C. 

      Rem Statement

    • D. 

      Select Case Statement

  • 57. 
    Which Visual Basic component tests for a specific condition and provides logical choices that are determined by the value of a selector?
    • A. 

      Statement

    • B. 

      If Statement

    • C. 

      Rem Statement

    • D. 

      Select case statement

  • 58. 
    Which visual Basic loop works well when your solutions cannot determine the exact number of repetitions to execute?
    • A. 

      Do loop

    • B. 

      Loop while

    • C. 

      For/Next loop

    • D. 

      Do While loop

  • 59. 
    Which Reference can only be used inside a Do/Loop Statement?
    • A. 

      Exit Do

    • B. 

      Exit For

    • C. 

      Exit Sub

    • D. 

      Exit Function

  • 60. 
    Object components are built using a special Visual Basic module called a/an
    • A. 

      Event

    • B. 

      Property

    • C. 

      Class module

    • D. 

      Maintenance method

  • 61. 
    What Visual basic statement allows you to build class objects and implement features?
    • A. 

      Search

    • B. 

      Properties

    • C. 

      Implement

    • D. 

      Component

  • 62. 
    An advantage of a standard module is that they
    • A. 

      Need to be created and can have multiple instances

    • B. 

      Need to be created and cannot have multiple instances

    • C. 

      Do not need to be created and cannot have multiple instances

    • D. 

      Do not need to be created and can have multiple instances

  • 63. 
    When using forms as reusable components, which is not a likely candidate as an auxiliary form?
    • A. 

      Tabs

    • B. 

      Spell check

    • C. 

      A logon form

    • D. 

      About Information

  • 64. 
    The progress form will normally raise how many events?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 65. 
    What is a key concept that can help you save significant amounts of time and money in future programming projects?
    • A. 

      Calls

    • B. 

      Reuse

    • C. 

      Methods

    • D. 

      Different Programming languages

  • 66. 
    In Visual Basic, it is impossible to
    • A. 

      Divide by zero

    • B. 

      Use the F5 key

    • C. 

      Create an overflow error

    • D. 

      Create an executable version

  • 67. 
    In situations where the possibility of a Visual basic run-time error cannot be eliminated, develop
    • A. 

      New code

    • B. 

      A new menu item

    • C. 

      An executable version

    • D. 

      Effective exception handlers

  • 68. 
    When developing exception handlers and using multiple catch blocks, which one should be put first?
    • A. 

      Any of them

    • B. 

      The least specific

    • C. 

      The most specific

    • D. 

      The most general ones

  • 69. 
    What are the four general purpose registers in the Central processing Unit(CPU)?
    • A. 

      AX, BX, CX, and DX

    • B. 

      DS, ES, CS, and SS

    • C. 

      SI, DI, BP, and SP

    • D. 

      IP, BP, RP, and SP

  • 70. 
    Which segment register in the microprocessor holds the address of the first byte of memory?
    • A. 

      Extra Segment (ES)

    • B. 

      Code Segment (CS)

    • C. 

      Stack Segment (SS)

    • D. 

      Data Segment (DS)

  • 71. 
    Why do programmers prefer using Assembly language over machine language?
    • A. 

      More powerful

    • B. 

      Much easier to write

    • C. 

      Access to more features

    • D. 

      It is a lower level language

  • 72. 
    What are the two types of assembly language statements?
    • A. 

      Comments and labels

    • B. 

      Simple and compound

    • C. 

      Operation and operand

    • D. 

      Executable and directive

  • 73. 
    Assembler executable operations are those that produce machine code. What are interpreted Assembler operations that do not generate machine code called?
    • A. 

      Labels

    • B. 

      Operands

    • C. 

      Directives

    • D. 

      Comments

  • 74. 
    When entering your Assembly program into the computer, consistency enhances program
    • A. 

      Modularity

    • B. 

      Readability

    • C. 

      Changeability

    • D. 

      Maintainability

  • 75. 
    What process is used to convert an Assembler-generated object program into an executable program?
    • A. 

      Linking

    • B. 

      Debugging

    • C. 

      Compiling

    • D. 

      Assembling

  • 76. 
    What is the term used to identify how data is stored on the stack?
    • A. 

      First in, First Out (FIFO)

    • B. 

      First In Last Out (FILO)

    • C. 

      Last in, First in (LIFO)

    • D. 

      Last in Last Out (LILO)

  • 77. 
    Regarding stack management and programming, how many bytes of data are PUSHed onto the stack at a time?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      4

  • 78. 
    How do subroutines make Assembly language programming easier?
    • A. 

      With generics and tasks

    • B. 

      Using stacks and pointers

    • C. 

      By eliminating repetitive code

    • D. 

      By relocating the executable program

  • 79. 
    What do we call the method of communication between the microprocessor and other system devices?
    • A. 

      Priority system

    • B. 

      Interrupt system

    • C. 

      Notification System

    • D. 

      Unit Operating system

  • 80. 
    What are the two types of central processing unit (CPU) interrupts?
    • A. 

      High priority and low priority

    • B. 

      Hardware and software

    • C. 

      Internal and external

    • D. 

      Routine and urgent

  • 81. 
    What are the two types of software interrupts?
    • A. 

      DOS and BIOS

    • B. 

      RAM and ROM

    • C. 

      Operating and Application

    • D. 

      High priority and Low priority

  • 82. 
    What function of interrupt is 10h is the routine that reads the attribute and character from the current position of the cursor
    • A. 

      02

    • B. 

      08

    • C. 

      09

    • D. 

      10

  • 83. 
    What debugging function lets you display data as it appears in memory?
    • A. 

      Tracking

    • B. 

      Dumping

    • C. 

      Popping

    • D. 

      Tracing

  • 84. 
    What advanced programming application process would use a calculative algorithm to produce an outcome?
    • A. 

      Mathematical statement

    • B. 

      Formula interpretation

    • C. 

      Operator precedence

    • D. 

      Expression

  • 85. 
    Regarding interpreting formulas and identifying data variables, which is not one of the variable naming rules?
    • A. 

      May consist of alphanumeric letters, numbers, and underscores

    • B. 

      Must begin with an alphabetic letter

    • C. 

      Must be meaningful

    • D. 

      Cannot use dashes

  • 86. 
    What is the technology combination used to construct web pages and transmit information over the internet?
    • A. 

      HTML, Java, XML, VB, CGI

    • B. 

      HTML, CGI, Javascript, XML

    • C. 

      XML, HTML, Javascript, CGI

    • D. 

      DHTML, XML, Java, CGI, VB

  • 87. 
    What graphical file format is considered as a de facto standard form of image on the Internet
    • A. 

      Graphics Interchange Format (GIF)

    • B. 

      Portable Network Graphics (PNG)

    • C. 

      Tag Image File Format (TIFF)

    • D. 

      Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)

  • 88. 
    Which software security practice ensures that once the individual is identified, they are restricted from accessing any service or information not required for that particular users official duties?
    • A. 

      Identification

    • B. 

      Access Control

    • C. 

      Authentication

    • D. 

      Information System

  • 89. 
    In which phase should the integration of maintaining security of a software system begin?
    • A. 

      Design

    • B. 

      Coding

    • C. 

      Analysis

    • D. 

      Requirements gathering

  • 90. 
    What assumes the use of public key cryptography?
    • A. 

      Public key Infrastructure(PKI)

    • B. 

      Data

    • C. 

      Users

    • D. 

      Components

  • 91. 
    What is a commonly used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?
    • A. 

      Secure Socket layer (SSL)

    • B. 

      Common Access Card (CAC)

    • C. 

      Properties

    • D. 

      Authentication

  • 92. 
    Secure Socket Layer uses strong cryptography to ensure
    • A. 

      Authentication only

    • B. 

      Confidentiality and integrity only

    • C. 

      Authentication and confidentiality only

    • D. 

      Authentication, confidentiality, and integrity