3CX5X Vol. 2 (Operations Security) Quiz
3CX5X VOLUME 2. SECURITY AND DEPLOYABLE COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS QUIZ.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequiently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
- A.
OPSEC
- B.
EMSEC
- C.
COMSEC
- D.
COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
A. OPSECExplanation
OPSEC, which stands for Operations Security, is the correct answer. It is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions related to military operations and other activities. OPSEC aims to prevent potential adversaries from obtaining valuable information that could be used against the organization or mission. EMSEC (Emissions Security), COMSEC (Communications Security), and COMPUSEC (Computer Security) are all important aspects of security but do not specifically focus on the process of identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?
- A.
1955
- B.
1956
- C.
1966
- D.
1967
Correct Answer
C. 1966Explanation
The correct answer is 1966. This means that the first Air Force OPSEC program was introduced in 1966.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In which of the following OPSEC steps that you would inform the AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information?
- A.
Risk assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Apply OPSEC measures
- D.
Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer
B. Threat assessmentExplanation
Threat assessment is the correct answer because it involves identifying potential adversaries and understanding their capabilities, limitations, and intentions in collecting, analyzing, and using critical information. By informing the AFOSI (Air Force Office of Special Investigations) about these potential threats, they can better assess and mitigate risks to ensure the protection of critical information.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders?
- A.
Risk Assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Apply OPSEC measures
- D.
Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer
A. Risk AssessmentExplanation
Program managers and coordinators would recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders based on the results of a risk assessment. A risk assessment helps identify potential threats and vulnerabilities to a program or operation. By conducting a thorough risk assessment, program managers can provide senior decision-makers and commanders with valuable information on the level of risk associated with the program and recommend appropriate actions to mitigate those risks. This allows senior leaders to make informed decisions and allocate resources effectively to protect the program from potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions?
- A.
Risk assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Apply OPSEC measures
- D.
Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer
C. Apply OPSEC measuresExplanation
In dynamic situations, the threat landscape and vulnerabilities may change rapidly. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly reassess and reevaluate the effectiveness of the implemented OPSEC measures. This ensures that the preventive actions taken are still appropriate and adequate to address the evolving risks and threats. By continuously applying OPSEC measures, organizations can adapt and respond effectively to changing circumstances, maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their information and operations.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe
- A.
Vulnerabilities.
- B.
Critical information.
- C.
Operational indicators.
- D.
Operational information.
Correct Answer
B. Critical information.Explanation
The given question is asking for the term that describes specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations that are crucial for adversaries to know in order to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment. The term that best fits this description is "critical information." This term refers to the sensitive and essential information that, if obtained by adversaries, could significantly compromise the success and safety of friendly operations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In which OPSEC indicator would an abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules fall under?
- A.
Operational.
- B.
Administrative.
- C.
Communications
- D.
Logistic and maintenance support.
Correct Answer
A. Operational.Explanation
Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules would fall under the Operational OPSEC indicator. This is because operational security (OPSEC) focuses on protecting information related to military operations, including schedules and plans. Any sudden changes or cancellations in schedules could potentially reveal sensitive information about military operations, making it crucial to protect and control this information to maintain operational security.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator?
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Communications
- D.
Logistic and maintenance support
Correct Answer
D. Logistic and maintenance supportExplanation
Deviating from normal procedures in terms of logistic and maintenance support would be considered an OPSEC indicator. This means that any abnormal or unusual actions taken in the logistical and maintenance processes could potentially reveal sensitive information or vulnerabilities to adversaries. By adhering to normal procedures, organizations can maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their operations and resources.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Data aggregation is defined as the
- A.
Associated data that has no value.
- B.
Assortment of intelligence data on an adversary.
- C.
Collection of loosely associated data and/or information.
- D.
Information that clearly reveals the enemy's operational procedures
Correct Answer
C. Collection of loosely associated data and/or information.Explanation
The correct answer is "collection of loosely associated data and/or information." This answer accurately describes data aggregation as the process of gathering and organizing various types of data and information that may not have a direct relationship or connection. It implies that the collected data may be loosely associated or have varying degrees of relevance, but it is still valuable for analysis and decision-making purposes.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What are among the most problematic OPSEC vunerabilities in the Air Force today?
- A.
Copiers and fax machines
- B.
Telephones and cell phones
- C.
Radio and broadband internet
- D.
Networks and computer systems
Correct Answer
B. Telephones and cell phonesExplanation
Telephones and cell phones are among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today because they are easily accessible and can be used for unauthorized communication or information leakage. These devices can be easily intercepted, hacked, or compromised, leading to potential breaches in security. Additionally, the use of personal cell phones or unsecured communication channels can also pose a threat to OPSEC as they may not have the necessary encryption or security measures in place. Therefore, it is crucial for the Air Force to address these vulnerabilities and implement strict protocols to ensure the protection of sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a privacy act statement?
- A.
Purpose
- B.
Authority
- C.
Disclosure
- D.
Routine use
Correct Answer
A. PurposeExplanation
The reason information is collected is the main focus of the purpose in a privacy act statement. The purpose explains why the information is being collected and how it will be used. It provides transparency to individuals and helps them understand the intentions behind the collection of their personal data. By stating the purpose, organizations can ensure that individuals are aware of how their information will be used and can make informed decisions about providing it.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
- A.
AF Form 2327
- B.
AF Form 3217
- C.
AF Form 3227
- D.
Af Form 3327
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 3227Explanation
AF Form 3227 is the correct answer because it is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material. This form ensures that sensitive information is properly safeguarded and not accessed by unauthorized individuals. It serves as a protective measure to maintain the privacy and confidentiality of the material it covers.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in
- A.
AFI 33-119.
- B.
AFI 33-129.
- C.
AFI 33-219.
- D.
AFI 33-329.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33-129.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 33-129 because this document specifically outlines the guidance for posting information on AF web sites. AFI 33-119, AFI 33-219, and AFI 33-329 may contain other relevant information, but they do not specifically address the topic of posting information on AF web sites.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in
- A.
AFI 31-301
- B.
AFI 31-401
- C.
AFI 31-501
- D.
AFI 31-601
Correct Answer
C. AFI 31-501Explanation
AFI 31-501 is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it provides official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. The other options, AFI 31-301, AFI 31-401, and AFI 31-601, are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect nation security would best be described as
- A.
Secret.
- B.
Confidential.
- C.
For offical use only.
- D.
Sensitive but unclassified
Correct Answer
D. Sensitive but unclassifiedExplanation
The term "sensitive but unclassified" refers to information that, although not classified, still requires protection due to its sensitivity. This type of information may not directly impact national security, but its disclosure could still have negative consequences such as loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification. Therefore, "sensitive but unclassified" is the best description for the disclosure of information that could potentially harm national security.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management?
- A.
AFI 31-301
- B.
AFI 31-401
- C.
AFI 31-501
- D.
AFI 31-601
Correct Answer
B. AFI 31-401Explanation
AFI 31-401 is the correct answer because it provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management. This document outlines the policies and procedures that need to be followed in order to effectively manage the information security program within an organization. It covers topics such as risk management, incident response, and security awareness training. By referring to AFI 31-401, organizations can ensure that they have a comprehensive and well-managed information security program in place.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What specific restrictions can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks?
- A.
Cerify and accredit local systems and networks
- B.
Controls measures to collect accreditation metric data
- C.
Prohibit the use of goverment owned removable storage media
- D.
Create new guidance on system certication to Wing Information Assurance
Correct Answer
C. Prohibit the use of goverment owned removable storage mediaExplanation
A designated approving authority (DAA) can impose the restriction of prohibiting the use of government-owned removable storage media on classified systems or networks. This means that individuals using these systems or networks are not allowed to use any removable storage devices provided by the government, such as USB drives or external hard drives, for storing or transferring data. This restriction helps to prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, or the potential loss of classified information through the use of these removable storage devices.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Before obtaining access to classified material, which document must be signed as a prerequisite?
- A.
SF 213
- B.
SF 231
- C.
SF 312
- D.
SF 321
Correct Answer
C. SF 312Explanation
Before obtaining access to classified material, individuals must sign SF 312.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What form is annotated at the end-of-day secuirty check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately?
- A.
SF 700
- B.
SF 701
- C.
SF 702
- D.
SF 703
Correct Answer
B. SF 701Explanation
The SF 701 form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure that classified material is stored appropriately. This form is used to record the names of individuals conducting the security check, the date and time of the check, and any discrepancies or violations found during the inspection. By completing this form, organizations can maintain a record of the security checks and address any issues or concerns regarding the storage of classified material.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
- A.
Relocate classified material to strengthen security
- B.
Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security
- C.
Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations
- D.
Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
Correct Answer
D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical informationExplanation
The correct answer is "detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information." The COMSEC program is designed to identify and address any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in procedures that could potentially lead to the exposure of sensitive or critical information. It aims to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect classified material and prevent unauthorized access or interception. By detecting and correcting procedural weaknesses, the program helps to enhance the overall security and integrity of critical information.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material?
- A.
AFI 31-201, Vol 1
- B.
AFI 31-202, Vol 1
- C.
AFI 31-301, Vol 1
- D.
AFI 31-302, Vol 1
Correct Answer
A. AFI 31-201, Vol 1Explanation
AFI 31-201, Vol 1 would provide guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
- A.
SF 135
- B.
SF 153
- C.
SF 351
- D.
SF 531
Correct Answer
B. SF 153Explanation
The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
- A.
AF Form 1019
- B.
AF Form 1109
- C.
AF Form 1119
- D.
AF Form 1190
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1109Explanation
AF Form 1109 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for recording visitor information such as name, organization, purpose of visit, and date and time of entry. It helps in maintaining a record of visitors and ensuring security in restricted areas by allowing authorized personnel to monitor and track visitor access.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC
- A.
Insecurity.
- B.
Deviation.
- C.
Incident.
- D.
Report.
Correct Answer
A. Insecurity.Explanation
When an incident is investigated or evaluated and found to compromise the security of COMSEC (Communications Security) material, it is referred to as a COMSEC insecurity. This term implies that there has been a breach or vulnerability in the security measures protecting the COMSEC material, posing a risk to its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It indicates that the incident has resulted in a state of insecurity regarding the protection of sensitive information and communications.Rate this question:
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- 25.
An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
- A.
Insecurity.
- B.
Deviation.
- C.
Incident.
- D.
Report.
Correct Answer
C. Incident.Explanation
An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as an incident. This term refers to any event or situation that could have an impact on the security or integrity of sensitive information. It implies that further investigation or evaluation is needed to determine the extent of the potential threat and take appropriate actions to mitigate it.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What are the three types of COMSEC incidents?
- A.
Physical, incidental, and encryption.
- B.
Physical, personnel, and cryptogrophic
- C.
Personnel, incidental, and encryption.
- D.
Personnel, incidental, and cryptographic.
Correct Answer
B. Physical, personnel, and cryptogrophicExplanation
The three types of COMSEC incidents are physical, personnel, and cryptographic. Physical incidents refer to breaches or compromises of physical security measures, such as unauthorized access to classified information or theft of encryption devices. Personnel incidents involve the mishandling or unauthorized disclosure of classified information by individuals with access to it. Cryptographic incidents pertain to the compromise or failure of encryption systems, leading to the unauthorized access or manipulation of sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What organization assigns COMSEC incident reports case numbers?
- A.
Air Force Communications Agency
- B.
Air Force Office of Record
- C.
Central Office of Records
- D.
National Security Agency
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Communications AgencyExplanation
The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning COMSEC incident reports case numbers.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due
- A.
10 days after the initial report is dated.
- B.
20 days after the initial report is signed.
- C.
30 days after the initial report is issued.
- D.
40 days after the initial report is approved.
Correct Answer
C. 30 days after the initial report is issued.Explanation
The final reports of a COMSEC incident are due 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that after the initial report has been officially released, there is a 30-day period for conducting investigations, gathering additional information, and compiling all the necessary data into a comprehensive final report. This timeframe allows for a thorough analysis of the incident and ensures that all relevant details are included in the final report.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The Air Force Information Assurance(IA) Awareness Program is detailed in
- A.
AFI 33-104.
- B.
AFI 33-140.
- C.
AFI 33-204.
- D.
AFI 33-240.
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33-204. -
- 30.
Which security program applies discipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
- A.
OPSEC
- B.
EMSEC
- C.
COMSEC
- D.
COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
D. COMPUSECExplanation
COMPUSEC, short for computer security, is the correct answer. It refers to the discipline measures and controls implemented to safeguard computer system data from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. This includes measures such as encryption, access controls, firewalls, and antivirus software. COMSEC (communications security) focuses on protecting the confidentiality and integrity of communications, while OPSEC (operational security) deals with protecting sensitive information related to military operations. EMSEC (emission security) pertains to protecting against unauthorized interception of electromagnetic emissions.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What computer software is designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent?
- A.
Spyware
- B.
Cookies
- C.
Shareware
- D.
Web browser
Correct Answer
A. SpywareExplanation
Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information, including passwords and financial details, without the user's consent. It is often installed without the user's knowledge and can track their online activities, monitor keystrokes, and gather sensitive data. This information is then used for various malicious purposes, such as identity theft or unauthorized access to financial accounts.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What best describes an unintended signal or noise appearing External to a piece of communications equipment?
- A.
Emulation
- B.
Emanation
- C.
Signature
- D.
Salutation
Correct Answer
B. EmanationExplanation
An unintended signal or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment is commonly referred to as an "emanation." Emanations can occur due to various factors such as electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference, causing disruptions or distortions in the communication signal. These external signals or noises can negatively impact the quality and reliability of the communication system by introducing unwanted disturbances.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
C. INFOCON 4Explanation
When the INFOCON level is set to 4, it indicates a high risk of attack. In such a situation, increased monitoring of all network system activities is mandated to ensure the detection and prevention of any potential attacks. This is because the higher the risk level, the more important it becomes to closely monitor and analyze the network for any suspicious activities or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
- A.
EMSEC
- B.
COMSEC
- C.
TEMPEST
- D.
COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
C. TEMPESTExplanation
TEMPEST is the correct answer because it refers to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. TEMPEST is a code name for a U.S. government program that studies and controls these compromising emanations, which can potentially reveal classified information. It involves measures to protect against eavesdropping on electromagnetic signals emitted by electronic devices.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
B. INFOCON 3Explanation
When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, the condition that requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected is INFOCON 3. INFOCON (Information Operations Condition) is a system used by the military to assess and communicate the level of threat to computer networks. INFOCON 3 indicates an increased risk of attack, and as a precautionary measure, all unclassified dial-up connections should be disconnected to prevent potential unauthorized access to the network.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
A. INFOCON 2Explanation
INFOCON 2 is the condition that permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication. This means that when the INFOCON level is at 2, it is determined that the situation is serious enough to warrant the shutdown of non-essential networks and the implementation of backup communication methods. This could be due to a potential threat or attack that requires increased security measures.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environment and customers high quality service?
- A.
AFI 33-111, Vol 1
- B.
AFI 33-115, Vol 1
- C.
AFI 33-204, Vol 1
- D.
AFI 33-402, Vol 2
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33-115, Vol 1Explanation
AFI 33-115, Vol 1 provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environment and customers' high-quality service. This document likely contains information on network management practices, customer service standards, and strategies for maintaining a high level of service in a complex network environment. It is the most appropriate choice among the options provided for addressing these specific needs.Rate this question:
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- 38.
At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
- A.
Tier 1
- B.
Tier 2
- C.
Tier 3
- D.
Tier 4
Correct Answer
A. Tier 1Explanation
Tier 1 is responsible for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally. This level is the highest and most central level of management, ensuring that the infrastructure is functioning properly and effectively. Tier 1 is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the activities of lower tiers, ensuring that all systems are working together seamlessly.Rate this question:
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- 39.
At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?
- A.
Tier 1
- B.
Tier 2
- C.
Tier 3
- D.
Tier 4
Correct Answer
C. Tier 3Explanation
At Tier 3, networks are managed at the local level. This means that the management and control of the network infrastructure, including troubleshooting and maintenance, are primarily handled by local network administrators or technicians. This level of management is typically responsible for overseeing and maintaining the network operations within a specific geographical area or location.Rate this question:
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- 40.
An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as
- A.
A full accreditation.
- B.
A type accreditation.
- C.
A major accreditation.
- D.
An interim accreditation
Correct Answer
A. A full accreditation.Explanation
A full accreditation refers to the decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was initially intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and safely in its intended environment. It signifies that the system has undergone a comprehensive evaluation and has successfully demonstrated its capability to operate as intended.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as
- A.
A full accreditation.
- B.
A type accreditation.
- C.
A minor accreditation.
- D.
An interim acreditation
Correct Answer
D. An interim acreditationExplanation
An interim accreditation is a decision that allows an information system to continue operating temporarily until specific steps or requirements can be fulfilled. It is a temporary approval that acknowledges the system's capability to function until full accreditation can be achieved. This type of accreditation is granted when there are certain identified steps or actions that need to be completed before the system can be fully accredited.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
Resource A is designated as the highest priority resource when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts. This means that Resource A is given the most attention, protection, and allocation of resources to ensure its security. The other resources (B, C, and D) may also be important, but they are not considered to require the same level of deterrence against hostile acts as Resource A.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
The correct answer is B. In this question, the resources designated priority refers to the allocation of resources based on their importance or significance. When the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts, it is crucial to prioritize the allocation of resources that can effectively deter such acts. Option B is the correct answer as it suggests that these priority resources are provided in such situations.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
Resource C is designated priority when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'Top Secret' information?
- A.
SF 706
- B.
SF 707
- C.
SF 708
- D.
SF 710
Correct Answer
A. SF 706Explanation
The correct answer is SF 706 because SF 706 is the form used to properly label removable storage media containing 'Top Secret' information. This form ensures that the media is clearly identified and classified according to its level of sensitivity. By using SF 706, individuals handling the media can easily recognize its security classification and take appropriate measures to protect it.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'Secret' information?
- A.
SF 706
- B.
SF 707
- C.
SF 708
- D.
SF 710
Correct Answer
B. SF 707Explanation
The correct form to use for properly labeling removable storage media containing 'Secret' information is SF 707.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'unclassified' material?
- A.
SF 706
- B.
SF 707
- C.
SF 708
- D.
SF 710
Correct Answer
D. SF 710Explanation
The correct form to use for properly labeling removable storage media containing 'unclassified' material is SF 710.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on
- A.
SF 700
- B.
SF 701
- C.
SF 702
- D.
SF 703
Correct Answer
B. SF 701Explanation
The correct answer is SF 701 because it is the form used for recording the end-of-day security checks. This form is specifically designed for documenting the storage of classified material at the close of each working day. The other forms mentioned (SF 700, SF 702, and SF 703) may be used for different purposes or procedures related to security checks, but they are not specifically intended for recording the storage of classified material at the end of the day.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a 'Top secret cover sheet and access' disclosure of record?
- A.
AF Form 114
- B.
AF Form 144
- C.
AF Form 1019
- D.
AF Form 1109
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 144Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 144. The AF Form 144 is used by the top secret control officer (TSCO) for the purpose of a 'Top secret cover sheet and access' disclosure of record.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by
- A.
Using the AEF concept.
- B.
Gathering information on our enemies.
- C.
Making lots of bombs to drop over other countries.
- D.
Asking congress to provide the necessary funding to win wars.
Correct Answer
A. Using the AEF concept.Explanation
The correct answer is using the AEF concept. This answer is the most appropriate because it directly addresses the question by explaining how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains the best air and space force. The AEF concept refers to the Air Expeditionary Force concept, which is a system that allows the Air Force to rapidly deploy forces and capabilities to any location in the world. By using this concept, the Air Force can effectively respond to threats, gather information on enemies, and carry out missions. It focuses on maintaining readiness, flexibility, and efficiency in operations.Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 18, 2009Quiz Created by
Barrym07
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