3CX5X Vol. 2 (Operations Security) Quiz

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  • 1/77 Questions

    What are among the most problematic OPSEC vunerabilities in the Air Force today?

    • Copiers and fax machines
    • Telephones and cell phones
    • Radio and broadband internet
    • Networks and computer systems
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About This Quiz

This 3CX5X Vol. 2 (Operations Security) Quiz assesses knowledge on OPSEC programs, their history, steps, and critical information. It's ideal for learners seeking to understand military operational security and its application in safeguarding sensitive information.

Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    What computer software is designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent?

    • Spyware

    • Cookies

    • Shareware

    • Web browser

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information, including passwords and financial details, without the user's consent. It is often installed without the user's knowledge and can track their online activities, monitor keystrokes, and gather sensitive data. This information is then used for various malicious purposes, such as identity theft or unauthorized access to financial accounts.

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  • 3. 

    How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by

    • Using the AEF concept.

    • Gathering information on our enemies.

    • Making lots of bombs to drop over other countries.

    • Asking congress to provide the necessary funding to win wars.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using the AEF concept.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is using the AEF concept. This answer is the most appropriate because it directly addresses the question by explaining how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains the best air and space force. The AEF concept refers to the Air Expeditionary Force concept, which is a system that allows the Air Force to rapidly deploy forces and capabilities to any location in the world. By using this concept, the Air Force can effectively respond to threats, gather information on enemies, and carry out missions. It focuses on maintaining readiness, flexibility, and efficiency in operations.

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  • 4. 

    An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

    • A full accreditation.

    • A type accreditation.

    • A major accreditation.

    • An interim accreditation

    Correct Answer
    A. A full accreditation.
    Explanation
    A full accreditation refers to the decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was initially intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and safely in its intended environment. It signifies that the system has undergone a comprehensive evaluation and has successfully demonstrated its capability to operate as intended.

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  • 5. 

    Data aggregation is defined as the

    • Associated data that has no value.

    • Assortment of intelligence data on an adversary.

    • Collection of loosely associated data and/or information.

    • Information that clearly reveals the enemy's operational procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Collection of loosely associated data and/or information.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "collection of loosely associated data and/or information." This answer accurately describes data aggregation as the process of gathering and organizing various types of data and information that may not have a direct relationship or connection. It implies that the collected data may be loosely associated or have varying degrees of relevance, but it is still valuable for analysis and decision-making purposes.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?

    • Control

    • Command

    • Dictation

    • Jurisdiction

    Correct Answer
    A. Command
    Explanation
    Command is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment. This means that individuals in positions of command have the power to give orders and expect them to be followed by those under their authority. Command is a fundamental aspect of hierarchical organizations and is necessary for maintaining discipline, coordination, and achieving organizational objectives. It involves both the power to make decisions and the responsibility for the outcomes of those decisions.

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  • 7. 

    The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a privacy act statement?

    • Purpose

    • Authority

    • Disclosure

    • Routine use

    Correct Answer
    A. Purpose
    Explanation
    The reason information is collected is the main focus of the purpose in a privacy act statement. The purpose explains why the information is being collected and how it will be used. It provides transparency to individuals and helps them understand the intentions behind the collection of their personal data. By stating the purpose, organizations can ensure that individuals are aware of how their information will be used and can make informed decisions about providing it.

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  • 8. 

    Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due

    • 10 days after the initial report is dated.

    • 20 days after the initial report is signed.

    • 30 days after the initial report is issued.

    • 40 days after the initial report is approved.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days after the initial report is issued.
    Explanation
    The final reports of a COMSEC incident are due 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that after the initial report has been officially released, there is a 30-day period for conducting investigations, gathering additional information, and compiling all the necessary data into a comprehensive final report. This timeframe allows for a thorough analysis of the incident and ensures that all relevant details are included in the final report.

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  • 9. 

    What best describes an unintended signal or noise appearing External to a piece of communications equipment?

    • Emulation

    • Emanation

    • Signature

    • Salutation

    Correct Answer
    A. Emanation
    Explanation
    An unintended signal or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment is commonly referred to as an "emanation." Emanations can occur due to various factors such as electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference, causing disruptions or distortions in the communication signal. These external signals or noises can negatively impact the quality and reliability of the communication system by introducing unwanted disturbances.

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  • 10. 

    Waves that travel thorugh the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as

    • Sky waves.

    • Direct waves.

    • Ground waves.

    • Atmospheric waves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct waves.
    Explanation
    Direct waves are waves that travel in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna. This means that there are no obstacles or interference in the path of the waves, allowing them to travel directly from the transmitter to the receiver. Sky waves, on the other hand, are waves that are reflected off the ionosphere and can travel long distances. Ground waves are waves that travel along the surface of the Earth and are affected by the terrain. Atmospheric waves are not a recognized term in the context of wave propagation.

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  • 11. 

    An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

    • A full accreditation.

    • A type accreditation.

    • A minor accreditation.

    • An interim acreditation

    Correct Answer
    A. An interim acreditation
    Explanation
    An interim accreditation is a decision that allows an information system to continue operating temporarily until specific steps or requirements can be fulfilled. It is a temporary approval that acknowledges the system's capability to function until full accreditation can be achieved. This type of accreditation is granted when there are certain identified steps or actions that need to be completed before the system can be fully accredited.

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  • 12. 

    Which best describes the definition of a unity type code (UTC)?

    • A COTS product similar to the bar coding system used on commerical products.

    • A database used to store data of force capabilities and crisis action planning.

    • It is a subsystem used to establish initial force communications with commanders.

    • It is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs.
  • 13. 

    Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilities most often delegated to the

    • DAA.

    • ART.

    • UTC.

    • UDM.

    Correct Answer
    A. UDM.
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the responsibilities of deployment execution and unit personnel preparation, which are most often delegated to one of the options: DAA, ART, UTC, or UDM. The correct answer is UDM because the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) is typically responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment process, ensuring that all necessary preparations are made, and ensuring that unit personnel are properly trained and ready for deployment. The other options (DAA, ART, and UTC) do not typically have direct responsibility for these tasks.

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  • 14. 

    Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

    • AF Form 1019

    • AF Form 1109

    • AF Form 1119

    • AF Form 1190

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1109
    Explanation
    AF Form 1109 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for recording visitor information such as name, organization, purpose of visit, and date and time of entry. It helps in maintaining a record of visitors and ensuring security in restricted areas by allowing authorized personnel to monitor and track visitor access.

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  • 15. 

    What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

    • Relocate classified material to strengthen security

    • Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security

    • Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations

    • Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information." The COMSEC program is designed to identify and address any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in procedures that could potentially lead to the exposure of sensitive or critical information. It aims to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect classified material and prevent unauthorized access or interception. By detecting and correcting procedural weaknesses, the program helps to enhance the overall security and integrity of critical information.

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  • 16. 

    What are the three types of COMSEC incidents?

    • Physical, incidental, and encryption.

    • Physical, personnel, and cryptogrophic

    • Personnel, incidental, and encryption.

    • Personnel, incidental, and cryptographic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, personnel, and cryptogrophic
    Explanation
    The three types of COMSEC incidents are physical, personnel, and cryptographic. Physical incidents refer to breaches or compromises of physical security measures, such as unauthorized access to classified information or theft of encryption devices. Personnel incidents involve the mishandling or unauthorized disclosure of classified information by individuals with access to it. Cryptographic incidents pertain to the compromise or failure of encryption systems, leading to the unauthorized access or manipulation of sensitive information.

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  • 17. 

    At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

    • Tier 1

    • Tier 2

    • Tier 3

    • Tier 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Tier 1
    Explanation
    Tier 1 is responsible for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally. This level is the highest and most central level of management, ensuring that the infrastructure is functioning properly and effectively. Tier 1 is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the activities of lower tiers, ensuring that all systems are working together seamlessly.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequiently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

    • OPSEC

    • EMSEC

    • COMSEC

    • COMPUSEC

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC
    Explanation
    OPSEC, which stands for Operations Security, is the correct answer. It is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions related to military operations and other activities. OPSEC aims to prevent potential adversaries from obtaining valuable information that could be used against the organization or mission. EMSEC (Emissions Security), COMSEC (Communications Security), and COMPUSEC (Computer Security) are all important aspects of security but do not specifically focus on the process of identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions.

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  • 19. 

    Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe

    • Vulnerabilities.

    • Critical information.

    • Operational indicators.

    • Operational information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical information.
    Explanation
    The given question is asking for the term that describes specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations that are crucial for adversaries to know in order to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment. The term that best fits this description is "critical information." This term refers to the sensitive and essential information that, if obtained by adversaries, could significantly compromise the success and safety of friendly operations.

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  • 20. 

    Which characteristics hsould proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment strive to have?

    • Survivability, demobility, and security

    • Interoperability, security, and demobility

    • Open system standards, capability, and reliability

    • Open system standards, interoperability, and survivability

    Correct Answer
    A. Open system standards, interoperability, and survivability
    Explanation
    The proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment should strive to have open system standards, interoperability, and survivability. Open system standards ensure that the equipment can work with other systems and technologies, promoting compatibility and ease of integration. Interoperability allows the equipment to communicate and exchange information with different systems and platforms. Survivability ensures that the equipment can withstand and continue functioning in challenging and hostile environments, ensuring reliable communication capabilities in critical situations.

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  • 21. 

    Radio waves travel thorough free space at the speed of light and can be

    • Reflected, rejected, or deflected.

    • Reflected, refracted, or deflected.

    • Rejected, refracted, or diffracted.

    • Reflected, refracted, or diffracted.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflected, refracted, or diffracted.
    Explanation
    Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation that can travel through free space at the speed of light. When radio waves encounter a boundary or an obstacle, they can undergo reflection, which is the bouncing back of the waves, refraction, which is the bending of the waves as they pass through different mediums, or diffraction, which is the bending of waves around obstacles or through small openings. Therefore, the correct answer is reflected, refracted, or diffracted.

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  • 22. 

    One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required

    • Every 10 miles.

    • Every 20 miles.

    • When distances exceeds 30 to 40 miles.

    • When distances do not extend beyond 30 miles.

    Correct Answer
    A. When distances exceeds 30 to 40 miles.
    Explanation
    In line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions, the signal travels in a straight line and requires an unobstructed path between the transmitter and receiver. As the distance increases, the curvature of the Earth and obstacles such as buildings and hills can block the line of sight. Therefore, relay stations are required when distances exceed 30 to 40 miles in order to extend the range of the transmission and maintain a clear signal.

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  • 23. 

    What specific restrictions can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks?

    • Cerify and accredit local systems and networks

    • Controls measures to collect accreditation metric data

    • Prohibit the use of goverment owned removable storage media

    • Create new guidance on system certication to Wing Information Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Prohibit the use of goverment owned removable storage media
    Explanation
    A designated approving authority (DAA) can impose the restriction of prohibiting the use of government-owned removable storage media on classified systems or networks. This means that individuals using these systems or networks are not allowed to use any removable storage devices provided by the government, such as USB drives or external hard drives, for storing or transferring data. This restriction helps to prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, or the potential loss of classified information through the use of these removable storage devices.

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  • 24. 

    Which security program applies discipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

    • OPSEC

    • EMSEC

    • COMSEC

    • COMPUSEC

    Correct Answer
    A. COMPUSEC
    Explanation
    COMPUSEC, short for computer security, is the correct answer. It refers to the discipline measures and controls implemented to safeguard computer system data from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. This includes measures such as encryption, access controls, firewalls, and antivirus software. COMSEC (communications security) focuses on protecting the confidentiality and integrity of communications, while OPSEC (operational security) deals with protecting sensitive information related to military operations. EMSEC (emission security) pertains to protecting against unauthorized interception of electromagnetic emissions.

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  • 25. 

    Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Resource A is designated as the highest priority resource when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts. This means that Resource A is given the most attention, protection, and allocation of resources to ensure its security. The other resources (B, C, and D) may also be important, but they are not considered to require the same level of deterrence against hostile acts as Resource A.

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  • 26. 

    Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)?

    • Sky waves

    • Direct waves

    • Ground waves

    • Atmospheric waves

    Correct Answer
    A. Sky waves
    Explanation
    Sky waves are a type of wave transmission that is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz). These waves are able to propagate by reflecting off the ionosphere, allowing them to travel long distances beyond the horizon. This makes sky waves particularly useful for long-distance radio communications, as they can bounce off the ionosphere and reach receivers located far away. Direct waves, ground waves, and atmospheric waves are not as effective for long-distance communications in this frequency range.

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  • 27. 

    Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect nation security would best be described as

    • Secret.

    • Confidential.

    • For offical use only.

    • Sensitive but unclassified

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but unclassified
    Explanation
    The term "sensitive but unclassified" refers to information that, although not classified, still requires protection due to its sensitivity. This type of information may not directly impact national security, but its disclosure could still have negative consequences such as loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification. Therefore, "sensitive but unclassified" is the best description for the disclosure of information that could potentially harm national security.

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  • 28. 

    What form is annotated at the end-of-day secuirty check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately?

    • SF 700

    • SF 701

    • SF 702

    • SF 703

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 701
    Explanation
    The SF 701 form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure that classified material is stored appropriately. This form is used to record the names of individuals conducting the security check, the date and time of the check, and any discrepancies or violations found during the inspection. By completing this form, organizations can maintain a record of the security checks and address any issues or concerns regarding the storage of classified material.

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  • 29. 

    What organization assigns COMSEC incident reports case numbers?

    • Air Force Communications Agency

    • Air Force Office of Record

    • Central Office of Records

    • National Security Agency

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Communications Agency
    Explanation
    The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning COMSEC incident reports case numbers.

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  • 30. 

    An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

    • EMSEC

    • COMSEC

    • TEMPEST

    • COMPUSEC

    Correct Answer
    A. TEMPEST
    Explanation
    TEMPEST is the correct answer because it refers to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. TEMPEST is a code name for a U.S. government program that studies and controls these compromising emanations, which can potentially reveal classified information. It involves measures to protect against eavesdropping on electromagnetic signals emitted by electronic devices.

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  • 31. 

    At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?

    • Tier 1

    • Tier 2

    • Tier 3

    • Tier 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Tier 3
    Explanation
    At Tier 3, networks are managed at the local level. This means that the management and control of the network infrastructure, including troubleshooting and maintenance, are primarily handled by local network administrators or technicians. This level of management is typically responsible for overseeing and maintaining the network operations within a specific geographical area or location.

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  • 32. 

    Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

    • SF 700

    • SF 701

    • SF 702

    • SF 703

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 701
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 701 because it is the form used for recording the end-of-day security checks. This form is specifically designed for documenting the storage of classified material at the close of each working day. The other forms mentioned (SF 700, SF 702, and SF 703) may be used for different purposes or procedures related to security checks, but they are not specifically intended for recording the storage of classified material at the end of the day.

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  • 33. 

    TDC is composed of which three major components?

    • ICAP, NCC-D, and DCAPES

    • Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, NCC-D

    • Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, and MEFPAK

    • Ground satellite terminals, MEFPAK, and DCAPES

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, NCC-D
    Explanation
    The TDC (Tactical Data Communications) system is composed of three major components: ground satellite terminals, ICAP (Interface Control and Processing), and NCC-D (Network Control Center - Defense). These components work together to facilitate secure and reliable communication and data exchange in a tactical environment.

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  • 34. 

    Which is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communications networks?

    • ICAP

    • NCC-D

    • DCAPES

    • MEFPAK

    Correct Answer
    A. ICAP
    Explanation
    ICAP is the correct answer because it is a suite of modules and accessory kits that are specifically designed to serve as the backbone for deployed communications networks. It provides the necessary infrastructure and support for establishing and maintaining reliable and efficient communication systems in various operational environments. The other options, NCC-D, DCAPES, and MEFPAK, do not have the same purpose or functionality as ICAP in terms of supporting deployed communications networks.

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  • 35. 

    Which airborn platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR?

    • E-3 Sentry

    • RC-135V/W Rivet Joint

    • Global Positioning System

    • Ground Data Processing Stations

    Correct Answer
    A. E-3 Sentry
    Explanation
    The E-3 Sentry is an airborne platform that collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR. It is equipped with radar systems that allow it to detect and track targets, providing valuable information for situational awareness and command and control purposes. The E-3 Sentry is widely used by the military for surveillance and reconnaissance missions.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions?

    • Risk assessment

    • Threat assessment

    • Apply OPSEC measures

    • Vulnerability analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply OPSEC measures
    Explanation
    In dynamic situations, the threat landscape and vulnerabilities may change rapidly. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly reassess and reevaluate the effectiveness of the implemented OPSEC measures. This ensures that the preventive actions taken are still appropriate and adequate to address the evolving risks and threats. By continuously applying OPSEC measures, organizations can adapt and respond effectively to changing circumstances, maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their information and operations.

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  • 37. 

    An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC

    • Insecurity.

    • Deviation.

    • Incident.

    • Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Insecurity.
    Explanation
    When an incident is investigated or evaluated and found to compromise the security of COMSEC (Communications Security) material, it is referred to as a COMSEC insecurity. This term implies that there has been a breach or vulnerability in the security measures protecting the COMSEC material, posing a risk to its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It indicates that the incident has resulted in a state of insecurity regarding the protection of sensitive information and communications.

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  • 38. 

    What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

    • AF Form 2327

    • AF Form 3217

    • AF Form 3227

    • Af Form 3327

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 3227
    Explanation
    AF Form 3227 is the correct answer because it is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material. This form ensures that sensitive information is properly safeguarded and not accessed by unauthorized individuals. It serves as a protective measure to maintain the privacy and confidentiality of the material it covers.

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  • 39. 

    Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

    • SF 135

    • SF 153

    • SF 351

    • SF 531

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 153
    Explanation
    The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.

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  • 40. 

    Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'Secret' information?

    • SF 706

    • SF 707

    • SF 708

    • SF 710

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 707
    Explanation
    The correct form to use for properly labeling removable storage media containing 'Secret' information is SF 707.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution?

    • JOPES

    • TPFDD

    • TUCHA

    • MEFPAK

    Correct Answer
    A. JOPES
    Explanation
    JOPES is the correct answer because it stands for Joint Operation Planning and Execution System. It is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution. JOPES helps in the coordination and synchronization of military operations by providing a common planning and execution framework. It enables the military to plan and execute operations effectively and efficiently by integrating various operational functions and resources.

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  • 42. 

    Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'unclassified' material?

    • SF 706

    • SF 707

    • SF 708

    • SF 710

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 710
    Explanation
    The correct form to use for properly labeling removable storage media containing 'unclassified' material is SF 710.

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  • 43. 

    Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems?

    • AOC netowrk support

    • AOC weapon system help desk

    • Communication focal point

    • Command and control systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Communication focal point
    Explanation
    The Communication focal point is the AOC area support team that provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems. They are responsible for coordinating and managing communication systems within the AOC, ensuring effective communication between various units and personnel. This team plays a crucial role in maintaining smooth communication flow and supporting the Chief in making informed decisions.

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  • 44. 

    An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

    • Insecurity.

    • Deviation.

    • Incident.

    • Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident.
    Explanation
    An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as an incident. This term refers to any event or situation that could have an impact on the security or integrity of sensitive information. It implies that further investigation or evaluation is needed to determine the extent of the potential threat and take appropriate actions to mitigate it.

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  • 45. 

    Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'Top Secret' information?

    • SF 706

    • SF 707

    • SF 708

    • SF 710

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 706
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 706 because SF 706 is the form used to properly label removable storage media containing 'Top Secret' information. This form ensures that the media is clearly identified and classified according to its level of sensitivity. By using SF 706, individuals handling the media can easily recognize its security classification and take appropriate measures to protect it.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs?

    • TUCHA

    • LOGFOR

    • MANFOR

    • MEFPAK

    Correct Answer
    A. LOGFOR
    Explanation
    LOGFOR is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package?

    • JOPES

    • TPFDD

    • TUCHA

    • MEFPAK

    Correct Answer
    A. MEFPAK
    Explanation
    MEFPAK is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package.

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  • 48. 

    In which of the following OPSEC steps that you would inform the AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information?

    • Risk assessment

    • Threat assessment

    • Apply OPSEC measures

    • Vulnerability analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat assessment
    Explanation
    Threat assessment is the correct answer because it involves identifying potential adversaries and understanding their capabilities, limitations, and intentions in collecting, analyzing, and using critical information. By informing the AFOSI (Air Force Office of Special Investigations) about these potential threats, they can better assess and mitigate risks to ensure the protection of critical information.

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  • 49. 

    Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

    • INFOCON 2

    • INFOCON 3

    • INFOCON 4

    • INFOCON 5

    Correct Answer
    A. INFOCON 4
    Explanation
    When the INFOCON level is set to 4, it indicates a high risk of attack. In such a situation, increased monitoring of all network system activities is mandated to ensure the detection and prevention of any potential attacks. This is because the higher the risk level, the more important it becomes to closely monitor and analyze the network for any suspicious activities or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers.

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  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 18, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Barrym07
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