3CX5X Vol. 2 (Operations Security) Quiz

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1. What are among the most problematic OPSEC vunerabilities in the Air Force today?

Explanation

Telephones and cell phones are among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today because they are easily accessible and can be used for unauthorized communication or information leakage. These devices can be easily intercepted, hacked, or compromised, leading to potential breaches in security. Additionally, the use of personal cell phones or unsecured communication channels can also pose a threat to OPSEC as they may not have the necessary encryption or security measures in place. Therefore, it is crucial for the Air Force to address these vulnerabilities and implement strict protocols to ensure the protection of sensitive information.

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About This Quiz
Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

This 3CX5X Vol. 2 (Operations Security) Quiz assesses knowledge on OPSEC programs, their history, steps, and critical information. It's ideal for learners seeking to understand military operational security... see moreand its application in safeguarding sensitive information. see less

2. What computer software is designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent?

Explanation

Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information, including passwords and financial details, without the user's consent. It is often installed without the user's knowledge and can track their online activities, monitor keystrokes, and gather sensitive data. This information is then used for various malicious purposes, such as identity theft or unauthorized access to financial accounts.

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3. How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by

Explanation

The correct answer is using the AEF concept. This answer is the most appropriate because it directly addresses the question by explaining how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains the best air and space force. The AEF concept refers to the Air Expeditionary Force concept, which is a system that allows the Air Force to rapidly deploy forces and capabilities to any location in the world. By using this concept, the Air Force can effectively respond to threats, gather information on enemies, and carry out missions. It focuses on maintaining readiness, flexibility, and efficiency in operations.

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4. An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

Explanation

A full accreditation refers to the decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was initially intended for. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and safely in its intended environment. It signifies that the system has undergone a comprehensive evaluation and has successfully demonstrated its capability to operate as intended.

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5. Data aggregation is defined as the

Explanation

The correct answer is "collection of loosely associated data and/or information." This answer accurately describes data aggregation as the process of gathering and organizing various types of data and information that may not have a direct relationship or connection. It implies that the collected data may be loosely associated or have varying degrees of relevance, but it is still valuable for analysis and decision-making purposes.

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6. Which of the following is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?

Explanation

Command is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment. This means that individuals in positions of command have the power to give orders and expect them to be followed by those under their authority. Command is a fundamental aspect of hierarchical organizations and is necessary for maintaining discipline, coordination, and achieving organizational objectives. It involves both the power to make decisions and the responsibility for the outcomes of those decisions.

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7. The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a privacy act statement?

Explanation

The reason information is collected is the main focus of the purpose in a privacy act statement. The purpose explains why the information is being collected and how it will be used. It provides transparency to individuals and helps them understand the intentions behind the collection of their personal data. By stating the purpose, organizations can ensure that individuals are aware of how their information will be used and can make informed decisions about providing it.

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8. Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due

Explanation

The final reports of a COMSEC incident are due 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that after the initial report has been officially released, there is a 30-day period for conducting investigations, gathering additional information, and compiling all the necessary data into a comprehensive final report. This timeframe allows for a thorough analysis of the incident and ensures that all relevant details are included in the final report.

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9. What best describes an unintended signal or noise appearing External to a piece of communications equipment?

Explanation

An unintended signal or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment is commonly referred to as an "emanation." Emanations can occur due to various factors such as electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference, causing disruptions or distortions in the communication signal. These external signals or noises can negatively impact the quality and reliability of the communication system by introducing unwanted disturbances.

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10. Waves that travel thorugh the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as

Explanation

Direct waves are waves that travel in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna. This means that there are no obstacles or interference in the path of the waves, allowing them to travel directly from the transmitter to the receiver. Sky waves, on the other hand, are waves that are reflected off the ionosphere and can travel long distances. Ground waves are waves that travel along the surface of the Earth and are affected by the terrain. Atmospheric waves are not a recognized term in the context of wave propagation.

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11. An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

Explanation

An interim accreditation is a decision that allows an information system to continue operating temporarily until specific steps or requirements can be fulfilled. It is a temporary approval that acknowledges the system's capability to function until full accreditation can be achieved. This type of accreditation is granted when there are certain identified steps or actions that need to be completed before the system can be fully accredited.

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12. Which best describes the definition of a unity type code (UTC)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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13. Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilities most often delegated to the

Explanation

The question is asking about the responsibilities of deployment execution and unit personnel preparation, which are most often delegated to one of the options: DAA, ART, UTC, or UDM. The correct answer is UDM because the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) is typically responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment process, ensuring that all necessary preparations are made, and ensuring that unit personnel are properly trained and ready for deployment. The other options (DAA, ART, and UTC) do not typically have direct responsibility for these tasks.

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14. Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109 is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for recording visitor information such as name, organization, purpose of visit, and date and time of entry. It helps in maintaining a record of visitors and ensuring security in restricted areas by allowing authorized personnel to monitor and track visitor access.

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15. What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

Explanation

The correct answer is "detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information." The COMSEC program is designed to identify and address any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in procedures that could potentially lead to the exposure of sensitive or critical information. It aims to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect classified material and prevent unauthorized access or interception. By detecting and correcting procedural weaknesses, the program helps to enhance the overall security and integrity of critical information.

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16. What are the three types of COMSEC incidents?

Explanation

The three types of COMSEC incidents are physical, personnel, and cryptographic. Physical incidents refer to breaches or compromises of physical security measures, such as unauthorized access to classified information or theft of encryption devices. Personnel incidents involve the mishandling or unauthorized disclosure of classified information by individuals with access to it. Cryptographic incidents pertain to the compromise or failure of encryption systems, leading to the unauthorized access or manipulation of sensitive information.

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17. At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

Explanation

Tier 1 is responsible for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally. This level is the highest and most central level of management, ensuring that the infrastructure is functioning properly and effectively. Tier 1 is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the activities of lower tiers, ensuring that all systems are working together seamlessly.

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18. Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequiently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

Explanation

OPSEC, which stands for Operations Security, is the correct answer. It is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions related to military operations and other activities. OPSEC aims to prevent potential adversaries from obtaining valuable information that could be used against the organization or mission. EMSEC (Emissions Security), COMSEC (Communications Security), and COMPUSEC (Computer Security) are all important aspects of security but do not specifically focus on the process of identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions.

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19. Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe

Explanation

The given question is asking for the term that describes specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities, or limitations that are crucial for adversaries to know in order to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment. The term that best fits this description is "critical information." This term refers to the sensitive and essential information that, if obtained by adversaries, could significantly compromise the success and safety of friendly operations.

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20. Which characteristics hsould proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment strive to have?

Explanation

The proposed theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment should strive to have open system standards, interoperability, and survivability. Open system standards ensure that the equipment can work with other systems and technologies, promoting compatibility and ease of integration. Interoperability allows the equipment to communicate and exchange information with different systems and platforms. Survivability ensures that the equipment can withstand and continue functioning in challenging and hostile environments, ensuring reliable communication capabilities in critical situations.

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21. Radio waves travel thorough free space at the speed of light and can be

Explanation

Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation that can travel through free space at the speed of light. When radio waves encounter a boundary or an obstacle, they can undergo reflection, which is the bouncing back of the waves, refraction, which is the bending of the waves as they pass through different mediums, or diffraction, which is the bending of waves around obstacles or through small openings. Therefore, the correct answer is reflected, refracted, or diffracted.

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22. One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required

Explanation

In line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions, the signal travels in a straight line and requires an unobstructed path between the transmitter and receiver. As the distance increases, the curvature of the Earth and obstacles such as buildings and hills can block the line of sight. Therefore, relay stations are required when distances exceed 30 to 40 miles in order to extend the range of the transmission and maintain a clear signal.

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23. What specific restrictions can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks?

Explanation

A designated approving authority (DAA) can impose the restriction of prohibiting the use of government-owned removable storage media on classified systems or networks. This means that individuals using these systems or networks are not allowed to use any removable storage devices provided by the government, such as USB drives or external hard drives, for storing or transferring data. This restriction helps to prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, or the potential loss of classified information through the use of these removable storage devices.

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24. Which security program applies discipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

Explanation

COMPUSEC, short for computer security, is the correct answer. It refers to the discipline measures and controls implemented to safeguard computer system data from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. This includes measures such as encryption, access controls, firewalls, and antivirus software. COMSEC (communications security) focuses on protecting the confidentiality and integrity of communications, while OPSEC (operational security) deals with protecting sensitive information related to military operations. EMSEC (emission security) pertains to protecting against unauthorized interception of electromagnetic emissions.

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25. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

Resource A is designated as the highest priority resource when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts. This means that Resource A is given the most attention, protection, and allocation of resources to ensure its security. The other resources (B, C, and D) may also be important, but they are not considered to require the same level of deterrence against hostile acts as Resource A.

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26. Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)?

Explanation

Sky waves are a type of wave transmission that is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz). These waves are able to propagate by reflecting off the ionosphere, allowing them to travel long distances beyond the horizon. This makes sky waves particularly useful for long-distance radio communications, as they can bounce off the ionosphere and reach receivers located far away. Direct waves, ground waves, and atmospheric waves are not as effective for long-distance communications in this frequency range.

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27. Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect nation security would best be described as

Explanation

The term "sensitive but unclassified" refers to information that, although not classified, still requires protection due to its sensitivity. This type of information may not directly impact national security, but its disclosure could still have negative consequences such as loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification. Therefore, "sensitive but unclassified" is the best description for the disclosure of information that could potentially harm national security.

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28. What form is annotated at the end-of-day secuirty check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately?

Explanation

The SF 701 form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure that classified material is stored appropriately. This form is used to record the names of individuals conducting the security check, the date and time of the check, and any discrepancies or violations found during the inspection. By completing this form, organizations can maintain a record of the security checks and address any issues or concerns regarding the storage of classified material.

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29. What organization assigns COMSEC incident reports case numbers?

Explanation

The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning COMSEC incident reports case numbers.

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30. An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

Explanation

TEMPEST is the correct answer because it refers to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. TEMPEST is a code name for a U.S. government program that studies and controls these compromising emanations, which can potentially reveal classified information. It involves measures to protect against eavesdropping on electromagnetic signals emitted by electronic devices.

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31. At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?

Explanation

At Tier 3, networks are managed at the local level. This means that the management and control of the network infrastructure, including troubleshooting and maintenance, are primarily handled by local network administrators or technicians. This level of management is typically responsible for overseeing and maintaining the network operations within a specific geographical area or location.

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32. Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 701 because it is the form used for recording the end-of-day security checks. This form is specifically designed for documenting the storage of classified material at the close of each working day. The other forms mentioned (SF 700, SF 702, and SF 703) may be used for different purposes or procedures related to security checks, but they are not specifically intended for recording the storage of classified material at the end of the day.

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33. TDC is composed of which three major components?

Explanation

The TDC (Tactical Data Communications) system is composed of three major components: ground satellite terminals, ICAP (Interface Control and Processing), and NCC-D (Network Control Center - Defense). These components work together to facilitate secure and reliable communication and data exchange in a tactical environment.

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34. Which is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communications networks?

Explanation

ICAP is the correct answer because it is a suite of modules and accessory kits that are specifically designed to serve as the backbone for deployed communications networks. It provides the necessary infrastructure and support for establishing and maintaining reliable and efficient communication systems in various operational environments. The other options, NCC-D, DCAPES, and MEFPAK, do not have the same purpose or functionality as ICAP in terms of supporting deployed communications networks.

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35. Which airborn platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR?

Explanation

The E-3 Sentry is an airborne platform that collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR. It is equipped with radar systems that allow it to detect and track targets, providing valuable information for situational awareness and command and control purposes. The E-3 Sentry is widely used by the military for surveillance and reconnaissance missions.

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36. Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions?

Explanation

In dynamic situations, the threat landscape and vulnerabilities may change rapidly. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly reassess and reevaluate the effectiveness of the implemented OPSEC measures. This ensures that the preventive actions taken are still appropriate and adequate to address the evolving risks and threats. By continuously applying OPSEC measures, organizations can adapt and respond effectively to changing circumstances, maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their information and operations.

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37. An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC

Explanation

When an incident is investigated or evaluated and found to compromise the security of COMSEC (Communications Security) material, it is referred to as a COMSEC insecurity. This term implies that there has been a breach or vulnerability in the security measures protecting the COMSEC material, posing a risk to its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It indicates that the incident has resulted in a state of insecurity regarding the protection of sensitive information and communications.

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38. What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

Explanation

AF Form 3227 is the correct answer because it is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material. This form ensures that sensitive information is properly safeguarded and not accessed by unauthorized individuals. It serves as a protective measure to maintain the privacy and confidentiality of the material it covers.

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39. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

Explanation

The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.

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40. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'Secret' information?

Explanation

The correct form to use for properly labeling removable storage media containing 'Secret' information is SF 707.

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41. Which of the following is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution?

Explanation

JOPES is the correct answer because it stands for Joint Operation Planning and Execution System. It is a DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution. JOPES helps in the coordination and synchronization of military operations by providing a common planning and execution framework. It enables the military to plan and execute operations effectively and efficiently by integrating various operational functions and resources.

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42. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'unclassified' material?

Explanation

The correct form to use for properly labeling removable storage media containing 'unclassified' material is SF 710.

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43. Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems?

Explanation

The Communication focal point is the AOC area support team that provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems. They are responsible for coordinating and managing communication systems within the AOC, ensuring effective communication between various units and personnel. This team plays a crucial role in maintaining smooth communication flow and supporting the Chief in making informed decisions.

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44. An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

Explanation

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as an incident. This term refers to any event or situation that could have an impact on the security or integrity of sensitive information. It implies that further investigation or evaluation is needed to determine the extent of the potential threat and take appropriate actions to mitigate it.

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45. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing 'Top Secret' information?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 706 because SF 706 is the form used to properly label removable storage media containing 'Top Secret' information. This form ensures that the media is clearly identified and classified according to its level of sensitivity. By using SF 706, individuals handling the media can easily recognize its security classification and take appropriate measures to protect it.

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46. Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs?

Explanation

LOGFOR is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs.

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47. Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package?

Explanation

MEFPAK is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package.

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48. In which of the following OPSEC steps that you would inform the AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information?

Explanation

Threat assessment is the correct answer because it involves identifying potential adversaries and understanding their capabilities, limitations, and intentions in collecting, analyzing, and using critical information. By informing the AFOSI (Air Force Office of Special Investigations) about these potential threats, they can better assess and mitigate risks to ensure the protection of critical information.

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49. Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

Explanation

When the INFOCON level is set to 4, it indicates a high risk of attack. In such a situation, increased monitoring of all network system activities is mandated to ensure the detection and prevention of any potential attacks. This is because the higher the risk level, the more important it becomes to closely monitor and analyze the network for any suspicious activities or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers.

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50. When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1966. This means that the first Air Force OPSEC program was introduced in 1966.

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51. The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a 'Top secret cover sheet and access' disclosure of record?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 144. The AF Form 144 is used by the top secret control officer (TSCO) for the purpose of a 'Top secret cover sheet and access' disclosure of record.

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52. Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission?

Explanation

The Ground Data Processing System is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission. This system is responsible for processing and analyzing the data collected during missions, allowing for the extraction of valuable intelligence and insights. It plays a crucial role in converting raw data into actionable information, enabling decision-making and post-mission analysis. The other options mentioned, such as the E-3 Sentry, RC-135V/W Rivet Joint, and Global Positioning System, are not specifically designed for the analysis of dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data.

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53. In which OPSEC indicator would an abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules fall under?

Explanation

Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules would fall under the Operational OPSEC indicator. This is because operational security (OPSEC) focuses on protecting information related to military operations, including schedules and plans. Any sudden changes or cancellations in schedules could potentially reveal sensitive information about military operations, making it crucial to protect and control this information to maintain operational security.

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54. Which of the following provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environment and customers high quality service?

Explanation

AFI 33-115, Vol 1 provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environment and customers' high-quality service. This document likely contains information on network management practices, customer service standards, and strategies for maintaining a high level of service in a complex network environment. It is the most appropriate choice among the options provided for addressing these specific needs.

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55. Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

Explanation

Deviating from normal procedures in terms of logistic and maintenance support would be considered an OPSEC indicator. This means that any abnormal or unusual actions taken in the logistical and maintenance processes could potentially reveal sensitive information or vulnerabilities to adversaries. By adhering to normal procedures, organizations can maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their operations and resources.

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56. Before obtaining access to classified material, which document must be signed as a prerequisite?

Explanation

Before obtaining access to classified material, individuals must sign SF 312.

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57. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. In this question, the resources designated priority refers to the allocation of resources based on their importance or significance. When the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts, it is crucial to prioritize the allocation of resources that can effectively deter such acts. Option B is the correct answer as it suggests that these priority resources are provided in such situations.

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58. What DOD agencies refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems?

Explanation

Battlefield control systems are responsible for refining tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems. These systems are designed to provide command and control capabilities to DOD agencies in order to effectively coordinate and manage military operations in the battlefield. By refining these tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts, battlefield control systems ensure that the DOD agencies are equipped with the most effective and efficient strategies for combat.

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59. Which is a development program focused on providing exploitable surveillance and reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time?

Explanation

High Altitude Endurance is a development program that focuses on providing exploitable surveillance and reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time. This program aims to enhance the capabilities of the war fighter by providing them with high-quality and timely information from high altitude platforms. The program is designed to improve situational awareness and enable more effective decision-making on the battlefield.

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60. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

Resource C is designated priority when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts.

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61. Which frequency range is used for SHF band designation?

Explanation

The SHF band designation is used for frequencies ranging from 3 to 30 GHz. This range falls within the microwave frequency range and is commonly used for various applications including satellite communication, radar systems, and wireless networks. The other frequency ranges mentioned in the options, such as 30 to 300 MHz and 300 to 3,000 MHz, belong to different frequency bands and are not specifically designated as SHF.

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62. The Air Force Information Assurance(IA) Awareness Program is detailed in

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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63. When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

Explanation

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, the condition that requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected is INFOCON 3. INFOCON (Information Operations Condition) is a system used by the military to assess and communicate the level of threat to computer networks. INFOCON 3 indicates an increased risk of attack, and as a precautionary measure, all unclassified dial-up connections should be disconnected to prevent potential unauthorized access to the network.

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64. Which area support team makes sure servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are on-line and available to network users?

Explanation

The Command and control systems area support team is responsible for ensuring that servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are online and accessible to network users. They oversee the functionality and availability of these systems, ensuring smooth operations and uninterrupted access for network users.

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65. Which frequency range is used for the EHF band designation?

Explanation

The EHF (Extremely High Frequency) band designation uses the frequency range of 30 to 300 GHz. This range falls within the microwave portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. EHF frequencies are commonly used for high-capacity communications, such as satellite communication, radar systems, and scientific research.

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66. Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is TPFDD. TPFDD stands for Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data, and it is a database used for coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations. It helps in planning and tracking the deployment of forces, equipment, and supplies, ensuring that they are in the right place at the right time. TPFDD provides a detailed schedule of when and where forces will be deployed, helping to streamline the coordination and execution of military operations.

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67. Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces or close air support?

Explanation

The air support operations center is responsible for providing fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces or close air support. This center is specifically designed to coordinate and control air support operations, ensuring that the necessary support is provided quickly and efficiently. It acts as a central hub for communication and coordination between ground forces and aircraft, allowing for rapid response to any immediate requests or needs.

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68. Which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders?

Explanation

Program managers and coordinators would recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders based on the results of a risk assessment. A risk assessment helps identify potential threats and vulnerabilities to a program or operation. By conducting a thorough risk assessment, program managers can provide senior decision-makers and commanders with valuable information on the level of risk associated with the program and recommend appropriate actions to mitigate those risks. This allows senior leaders to make informed decisions and allocate resources effectively to protect the program from potential threats.

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69. Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

Explanation

AFI 31-501 is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it provides official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. The other options, AFI 31-301, AFI 31-401, and AFI 31-601, are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.

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70. Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management?

Explanation

AFI 31-401 is the correct answer because it provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management. This document outlines the policies and procedures that need to be followed in order to effectively manage the information security program within an organization. It covers topics such as risk management, incident response, and security awareness training. By referring to AFI 31-401, organizations can ensure that they have a comprehensive and well-managed information security program in place.

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71. Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

Explanation

INFOCON 2 is the condition that permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication. This means that when the INFOCON level is at 2, it is determined that the situation is serious enough to warrant the shutdown of non-essential networks and the implementation of backup communication methods. This could be due to a potential threat or attack that requires increased security measures.

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72. Which are used as the main propagation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves?

Explanation

VHF/UHF frequencies are used as the main propagation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves. VHF (Very High Frequency) and UHF (Ultra High Frequency) waves have longer wavelengths compared to EHF (Extremely High Frequency) and SHF (Super High Frequency) waves. This allows them to propagate further and penetrate obstacles such as buildings and trees more effectively. Therefore, VHF/UHF frequencies are commonly used for communication systems that require long-range coverage and reliable transmission in both urban and rural areas.

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73. Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-129 because this document specifically outlines the guidance for posting information on AF web sites. AFI 33-119, AFI 33-219, and AFI 33-329 may contain other relevant information, but they do not specifically address the topic of posting information on AF web sites.

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74. Which are used as the primary transmissions of direct radio waves?

Explanation

EHF (Extremely High Frequency) and SHF (Super High Frequency) are used as the primary transmissions of direct radio waves. EHF has a frequency range of 30-300 GHz, while SHF has a frequency range of 3-30 GHz. These frequency ranges allow for high bandwidth and high data transmission rates, making them suitable for applications such as satellite communication, radar systems, and microwave links. Both EHF and SHF are commonly used in modern communication systems due to their ability to transmit large amounts of data over long distances.

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75. Which frequency range is used for UHF band designation?

Explanation

The UHF band designation is used for frequencies ranging from 300 to 3,000 MHz. This range is commonly used for various applications such as television broadcasting, mobile communication, and wireless microphones. Frequencies within this range have shorter wavelengths and higher energy compared to VHF frequencies, allowing for better signal propagation and higher data transmission rates.

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76. Which of the following has the primary function of coordinating and direct immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces?

Explanation

Air support operations squadrons have the primary function of coordinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces. These squadrons are responsible for managing and executing air support operations, ensuring effective communication and coordination between air assets and ground forces. They play a crucial role in providing timely and accurate support to ground troops during combat operations, enhancing their capabilities and effectiveness on the battlefield.

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77. Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material?

Explanation

AFI 31-201, Vol 1 would provide guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material.

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An accreditation decision which permits an information system to...
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An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for...
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Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure...
TDC is composed of which three major components?
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Which of the following OPSEC steps would dynamic situations...
An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as...
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Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media...
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Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media...
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An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially...
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media...
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When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?
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Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC...
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Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of...
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The Air Force Information Assurance(IA) Awareness Program is detailed...
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Which frequency range is used for the EHF band designation?
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Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests...
Which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and...
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting...
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Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in
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Which frequency range is used for UHF band designation?
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Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control,...
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