CCT ATC Cto 16008

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| By 55mhaig

55mhaig

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 232

| Attempts: 232

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The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the _______.
- Checklist
- Relief list
- Position list
- Brief list

About This Quiz

CCT ATC CTO 16008 quiz assesses knowledge of air traffic control procedures, focusing on mandatory practices, procedural agreements, and operational definitions. It highlights critical skills for aviation professionals, ensuring compliance with standards like JO 7110.65.

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2.

When issuing surface wind, state the indicated direction to the nearest _________ degrees.
- 3
- 5
- 10
- 15
Correct Answer

A. 10

Explanation

When issuing surface wind, it is important to state the indicated direction to the nearest 10 degrees. This level of specificity ensures that the information provided is accurate and precise, allowing pilots and other aviation personnel to make informed decisions based on the wind conditions.

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3.

To identify a civil aircraft, use the aircraft type, model, _______ name, or the prefix "NOVEMBER."
- Pilot's
- Operator's
- Manufacturer's
- Owner's
Correct Answer

A. Manufacturer's

Explanation

To identify a civil aircraft, you can use the aircraft type, model, or the manufacturer's name. The manufacturer's name is an important identifier as it tells you which company built the aircraft. This information can be useful for various purposes such as maintenance, tracking, and safety. The pilot's name, operator's name, and owner's name may not necessarily provide information about the specific aircraft itself, but rather the individuals or organizations associated with it.

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4.

When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known), direction of flight, and __________.
- Altitude
- Location where they were first spotted
- Type of aircraft that spotted them
- Flight service frequency for more information
Correct Answer

A. Altitude

Explanation

When issuing advisories on bird activity, it is important to include the altitude along with the position, species or size, and direction of flight. This information is crucial for pilots and air traffic controllers to be aware of the potential hazards posed by birds in the airspace. Knowing the altitude at which the birds are flying helps in determining the risk of collision and allows pilots to take appropriate measures to avoid them.

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5.

Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude a(n) ________ situation.
- Traffic
- Emergency
- Delay
- Priority
Correct Answer

A. Emergency

Explanation

A flight check aircraft should only deviate from the pilot's planned action in order to prevent an emergency situation. This means that if there is an immediate threat to safety or if there is a risk of a hazardous situation occurring, the flight check aircraft can request a deviation from the pilot's planned action. This ensures that safety is prioritized and that any potential emergencies are addressed promptly.

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6.

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below _________ feet AGL.
- 1,000
- 1,500
- 2,000
- 2,500
Correct Answer

A. 1,500

Explanation

Aerobatic flight may not be conducted below 1,500 feet AGL because it requires a certain altitude to ensure safety. Performing aerobatic maneuvers at lower altitudes increases the risk of collision with the ground or obstacles. Additionally, higher altitudes provide more time and space for recovery in case of any issues or emergencies during the maneuvers. Therefore, a minimum altitude of 1,500 feet AGL is necessary for conducting aerobatic flight safely.

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7.

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is _______ knots.
- 200
- 230
- 250
- 280
Correct Answer

A. 250

Explanation

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is 250 knots. This is a standard regulation enforced by aviation authorities to ensure the safety of aircraft operating at lower altitudes. The specific speed limit may vary depending on the country, aircraft type, and other factors, but 250 knots is a common limit. Exceeding this speed could increase the risk of accidents and make it more difficult for pilots to maintain control of the aircraft.

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8.

Who is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement runway?
- The Administrator
- Pilot-in-command
- Airport management
- Aircraft operator
Correct Answer

A. Pilot-in-command

Explanation

The pilot-in-command is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement runway. As the person responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft, the pilot-in-command has the authority to make decisions regarding the use of runways. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the situation and determine whether it is appropriate to use a noise abatement runway based on factors such as noise restrictions, safety, and operational requirements. The pilot-in-command's decision takes precedence over any other authority in this matter.

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9.

When flying on a federal airway, IFR aircraft must navigate ____________ of that airway.
- Left
- Right
- In the vicinity
- Along the centerline
Correct Answer

A. Along the centerline

Explanation

When flying on a federal airway, IFR aircraft must navigate along the centerline of that airway. This means that they must stay aligned with the designated path in the middle of the airway. This ensures that aircraft are separated from each other and helps to maintain order and safety in the airspace. Flying along the centerline also helps pilots to accurately follow the intended route and avoid any potential conflicts with other aircraft.

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10.

Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ______ knots
- 3
- 5
- 10
- 15
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

Helicopters should not be issued a downwind takeoff if the tailwind exceeds 5 knots. This is because a tailwind can affect the helicopter's performance and stability during takeoff. A tailwind can increase the groundspeed of the helicopter, making it more difficult to control and potentially reducing its lift capability. Therefore, it is important to limit the tailwind to a maximum of 5 knots to ensure safe takeoff conditions for helicopters.

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11.

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of _______ feet.
- 500
- 700
- 1,400
- 2,800
Correct Answer

A. 2,800

Explanation

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are not authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of 2,800 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure safe separation between the aircraft operating on the parallel runways. It allows for enough space for the aircraft to maneuver and maintain a safe distance from each other, reducing the risk of collision.

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12.

What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as "active" runways?
- Traffic flow
- Expected traffic
- Severe weather activity
- Request from the airport operator
Correct Answer

A. Severe weather activity

Explanation

When determining which runways should be designated as "active," one important factor to consider is severe weather activity. This is because severe weather conditions such as strong winds, heavy rain, or thunderstorms can affect the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. By designating runways that are less prone to severe weather as "active," it helps ensure the smooth flow of air traffic and minimizes the risk of accidents or disruptions caused by adverse weather conditions.

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13.

The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on whenever the associated _______ lights are on.
- Runway
- Approach
- Taxiway
- Centerline
Correct Answer

A. Approach

Explanation

The runway edge lights are turned on whenever the associated approach lights are on. This is because the approach lights provide guidance to aircraft during the final approach and landing phase, and the runway edge lights help to define the edges of the runway and provide visual cues for pilots. Therefore, it is important for both sets of lights to be operational simultaneously to ensure the safety and proper navigation of aircraft during landing.

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14.

Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the___________.
- Right
- Left
- North
- South
Correct Answer

A. Left

Explanation

When an aircraft is approaching to land, it should circle the airport to the left. This is because most airports have a standard traffic pattern for landing, which involves making left turns. By circling to the left, the aircraft can align itself with the runway and enter the traffic pattern in a safe and orderly manner. Additionally, circling to the left allows the pilot to have better visibility of the airport and other aircraft in the vicinity, reducing the risk of collisions.

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15.

The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ______.
- VALS
- VASI
- VRAS
- VSI
Correct Answer

A. VASI

Explanation

The correct answer is VASI. VASI stands for Visual Approach Slope Indicator, which is a light system that provides vertical guidance to pilots during the approach to a runway. It consists of a series of lights arranged in a row, with some lights being red and some being white. The pilot can determine their position relative to the desired glide path by observing the colors of the lights. If the pilot sees red lights, they are below the glide path and need to descend, while if they see white lights, they are above the glide path and need to climb.

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16.

Routes or altitudes specifically for helicopters are prescribed by ________.
- The controlling agency
- Airport management
- The Administrator
- A Letter of Agreement
Correct Answer

A. The Administrator

Explanation

The Administrator, in this context, refers to the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) which is responsible for regulating and overseeing aviation activities in the United States. As helicopters are considered aircraft, the FAA has the authority to prescribe specific routes or altitudes for their operations. This ensures the safe and efficient movement of helicopters and helps prevent conflicts with other aircraft or airspace users.

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17.

What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?
- "RUNWAY TWO EIGHT LEFT RVR VISIBILITY SIX HUNDRED FEET"
- "RVR ON RUNWAY TWO EIGHT SIX THOUSAND FEET"
- "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED"
- "RVR RUNWAY THREE TWO THREE QUARTERS"
Correct Answer

A. "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED"

Explanation

The correct answer is "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED". This answer follows the correct phraseology used to issue RVR (Runway Visual Range) information. The phraseology typically includes stating the runway number followed by the RVR visibility in feet. In this case, the phrase "RUNWAY ONE FOUR RVR TWO THOUSAND FOUR HUNDRED" correctly indicates that the RVR visibility on runway 14 is 2400 feet.

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18.

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after _________.
- Radar contact
- Coordination with approach control
- Communication with the center
- Issuing landing clearance
Correct Answer

A. Coordination with approach control

Explanation

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after coordination with approach control. This means that the local controller will need to communicate with the approach control to ensure that the aircraft is properly integrated into the landing sequence. This coordination is necessary to maintain the flow of traffic and ensure safe and efficient operations.

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19.

When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions in a particular area, the information is disseminated via a(n) ________.
- PIREP
- LOA
- NOTAM
- AIRMET
Correct Answer

A. NOTAM

Explanation

When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions in a particular area, the information is disseminated via a NOTAM. NOTAM stands for Notice to Airmen, which is a notice containing important information about the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard. It is used to alert pilots and other aviation personnel about any temporary restrictions or changes that may affect their flight operations in a specific area.

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20.

Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of _______ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance.
- Radio communications
- Responsibility
- Radar identification
- Control
Correct Answer

A. Radar identification

Explanation

In order to ensure effective radar surveillance, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of radar identification must be accomplished in all areas, except where it is not operationally feasible. This means that the transfer of information regarding the identification of radar targets must be carried out between different facilities and within the same facility to maintain continuous monitoring and tracking of targets. This helps in maintaining situational awareness and coordination between different radar surveillance systems.

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21.

Local controllers must visually scan runways _______.
- Every 3 minutes
- Every 90 seconds
- Only when there is traffic
- To the maximum extent possible
Correct Answer

A. To the maximum extent possible

Explanation

Local controllers must visually scan runways to the maximum extent possible in order to ensure the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. By continuously monitoring the runways, controllers can quickly identify any potential hazards or obstructions that may affect aircraft movement. This allows them to take immediate action and make informed decisions to prevent accidents or delays. Regular visual scanning also helps controllers maintain situational awareness and stay alert to any changes or developments on the runways, enabling them to effectively manage traffic and maintain smooth operations.

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22.

In order to fly "VFR-on-top," an aircraft must be on a(n) _________ flight plan.
- SVFR
- VFR
- IFR
- DVFR
Correct Answer

A. IFR

Explanation

In order to fly "VFR-on-top," an aircraft must be on an IFR flight plan. VFR-on-top is a special VFR clearance that allows pilots to operate in visual flight rules (VFR) while maintaining an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan. This means that the pilot can fly above the clouds or other weather obstructions while still adhering to IFR regulations and receiving guidance from air traffic control. Therefore, an IFR flight plan is necessary to fly VFR-on-top.

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23.

Procedural Letters of Agreement are _______ to JO 7110.65.
- Appended
- Added
- Supplemental
- Attached
Correct Answer

A. Supplemental

Explanation

Procedural Letters of Agreement are supplemental to JO 7110.65. This means that they provide additional information or instructions that complement the content of JO 7110.65. These letters serve as an extension or addition to the main document and are used to address specific procedures or agreements that are not covered in the original JO 7110.65.

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24.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to ______ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.
- Nautical; statute
- Partial; unit
- Statute; nautical
- Full; partial
Correct Answer

A. Statute; nautical

Explanation

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to nautical miles; otherwise, "miles" means statute miles. Nautical miles are used in aviation and marine navigation, while statute miles are used in everyday land-based measurements.

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1
25.

Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ________ test.
- Essay
- Practical
- Oral
- Multiple choice
Correct Answer

A. Practical

Explanation

Operating positions in a control tower require individuals to have practical skills. This means that they need to demonstrate their ability to perform tasks and handle real-life situations effectively. A practical test would assess their competence in operating the equipment, following procedures, and making decisions in a controlled environment. Unlike an essay or oral test, a practical test would provide a more accurate evaluation of their hands-on skills and readiness to work in a control tower. Multiple choice tests are not suitable for assessing practical skills as they primarily test theoretical knowledge.

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26.

An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ________.
- Facility rating
- Area rating
- CTO certificate
- Facility certificate
Correct Answer

A. Facility rating

Explanation

A facility rating is an endorsement that indicates that an applicant has fulfilled the necessary requirements to have control over air traffic at a particular facility. This rating certifies that the individual has the knowledge, skills, and qualifications to perform air traffic control duties at that specific location. It is a recognition of their competence and ability to handle the responsibilities associated with managing air traffic within the designated facility.

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27.

The term "high key" relates to a(n) ________ approach.
- Overhead
- VOR
- TACAN
- Simulated flameout
Correct Answer

A. Simulated flameout

Explanation

The term "high key" refers to a simulated flameout approach. This approach is a training maneuver where the pilot intentionally shuts off the engine to simulate an engine failure. The pilot then glides the aircraft to a designated landing spot. This exercise helps pilots practice emergency procedures and develop skills in handling unexpected situations.

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28.

Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ______ degrees or more.
- 10
- 20
- 30
- 40
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

A primary radar beacon target can be identified by observing the target make an identifying turn of 30 degrees or more. This means that when the target changes its heading by at least 30 degrees, it becomes easier to identify and track using radar. This turn is significant enough to differentiate the target from other objects or aircraft in the vicinity, allowing for better surveillance and monitoring.

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29.

The position relief briefing process involves _______ separate and distinct steps.
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct Answer

A. 4

Explanation

The position relief briefing process involves 4 separate and distinct steps.

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30.

NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ____________.
- Hazardous material
- Commercial cargo
- Civilians
- Passengers for hire
Correct Answer

A. Passengers for hire

Explanation

This question is testing knowledge of regulations regarding flying in formation. According to aviation regulations, it is not allowed for any person to fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying passengers for hire. This means that if there are paying passengers on board, flying in formation is prohibited.

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31.

Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the _________ of an aircraft.
- Operating speed
- True airspeed
- Maximum safe speed
- Minimum safe speed
Correct Answer

A. Minimum safe speed

Explanation

Speed restrictions do not apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the minimum safe speed of an aircraft. This means that if the minimum safe speed is specified for a particular aircraft, any speed below that can be considered safe and there are no restrictions in terms of maximum speed. This could be because the aircraft may not be able to maintain stability or control at speeds below the minimum safe speed, so it is important to adhere to this limit for safe operation.

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32.

If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit to the ATC facility manager a detailed report of that emergency within _________ hours.
- 8
- 24
- 48
- 72
Correct Answer

A. 48

Explanation

In the event of an emergency, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC is required to submit a detailed report of the emergency within 48 hours to the ATC facility manager. This report allows for a thorough understanding of the emergency situation, helps identify any potential issues or improvements in the ATC system, and ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to prevent similar emergencies in the future.

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33.

When combining positions in the tower, do NOT use ground control frequency for _________ communications.
- Aircraft
- Vehicle
- Emergency
- Airborne
Correct Answer

A. Airborne

Explanation

When combining positions in the tower, it is important to not use ground control frequency for airborne communications. This is because ground control frequency is specifically designated for communicating with vehicles on the ground, such as vehicles operating on the airport surface. Airborne communications, on the other hand, involve communication with aircraft that are already in the air. Using ground control frequency for airborne communications could lead to confusion and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is essential to use the appropriate frequency for each type of communication.

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34.

One of the factors to consider when recommending an airport for an emergency aircraft is __________.
- Available service
- Aircraft type
- Airport type
- Number of runways
Correct Answer

A. Aircraft type

Explanation

When recommending an airport for an emergency aircraft, one of the factors to consider is the aircraft type. Different types of aircraft have different requirements and capabilities, such as landing distance, runway length, and fuel capacity. It is important to choose an airport that can accommodate the specific aircraft type to ensure a safe landing and efficient operations during the emergency situation.

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35.

Air is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to __________.
- Convection
- Friction
- Pressure gradient force
- Coriolis force
Correct Answer

A. Coriolis force

Explanation

The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This force is a result of the Earth's rotation, which causes moving objects, such as air, to appear to veer off their intended path. As air moves from high to low pressure areas, the Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion, causing the deflection. This phenomenon is known as the Coriolis effect and plays a crucial role in the formation of weather patterns and ocean currents.

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36.

In a METAR report, the altimeter element follows the ________ group.
- Temperature/dewpoint
- Visibility
- Sky condition
- Present weather
Correct Answer

A. Temperature/dewpoint

Explanation

In a METAR report, the altimeter element follows the temperature/dewpoint group. This is because the altimeter setting, which measures atmospheric pressure, is typically reported after the temperature and dewpoint values. The altimeter setting is an important piece of information for pilots as it helps them determine the correct altitude readings and make necessary adjustments during flight.

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37.

When both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a route segment, the MOCA may be used within _________ nautical miles of the VOR involved.
- 2
- 12
- 22
- 32
Correct Answer

A. 22

Explanation

When both an MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude) and a MOCA (Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude) are prescribed for a route segment, the MOCA may be used within 22 nautical miles of the VOR involved. This means that within this distance from the VOR, pilots can fly at the MOCA instead of the MEA. The MOCA provides a minimum altitude that ensures obstacle clearance, while the MEA provides a minimum altitude that ensures navigation signal reception.

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38.

When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the _________.
- Altitude
- Speed
- Direction of flight
- Beacon code
Correct Answer

A. Direction of flight

Explanation

When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, it is important to provide the azimuth and distance from the aircraft, as well as the direction of flight. This additional information helps the pilot to better understand the relative position and movement of other aircraft in their vicinity, enabling them to make informed decisions and avoid potential conflicts. Providing the direction of flight allows the pilot to anticipate the path of the other aircraft and adjust their own course accordingly.

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39.

What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred?
- Handoff
- Point out
- Radar contact
- Quick look
Correct Answer

A. Point out
40.

Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the _______.
- Wake turbulence requirement
- Visibility requirement
- Clearance-from-clouds requirement
- Minimum separation requirements
Correct Answer

A. Clearance-from-clouds requirement

Explanation

Special VFR aircraft are not assigned fixed altitudes because of the clearance-from-clouds requirement. This is because special VFR operations allow pilots to fly in controlled airspace with less than the standard visibility and cloud clearance requirements. By not assigning fixed altitudes, air traffic control can provide flexibility to special VFR aircraft to maneuver as necessary to maintain the required cloud clearance. Assigning fixed altitudes could restrict their ability to avoid clouds and maintain visual reference, which is crucial for safe operations in reduced visibility conditions.

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41.

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with _______ unless modified by flow control restrictions.
- Standard Operating Procedures
- A Letter of Agreement
- Traffic complexity
- The initial call
Correct Answer

A. The initial call

Explanation

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with the initial call unless modified by flow control restrictions. This means that the order in which aircraft are allowed to depart from the gate is determined by the initial call made by the pilots or air traffic control. However, if there are flow control restrictions in place, the sequence may be modified.

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42.

Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than _____ mile(s) and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS.
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) are used in low visibility conditions when instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS. This helps to enhance the visual cues for pilots during approach and landing. The correct answer is 3, indicating that SFL shall be operated when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

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43.

To operate in controlled airspace under IFR, a pilot must be ____________ and receive clearance.
- A private pilot
- A commercial pilot
- Ready for departure
- Filed on an IFR flight plan
Correct Answer

A. Filed on an IFR flight plan

Explanation

To operate in controlled airspace under IFR, a pilot must be filed on an IFR flight plan and receive clearance. This means that the pilot must have submitted their flight plan to air traffic control (ATC) indicating their intended route and altitude. ATC will review the flight plan and provide the pilot with a clearance, which includes specific instructions and authorization to enter and operate within controlled airspace. This ensures that the pilot is aware of other aircraft in the area and can safely navigate through the airspace.

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44.

Air Mobility Command aircraft are identified by the prefix _______.
- "MAC"
- "MOBILE"
- "ROAM"
- "REACH"
Correct Answer

A. "REACH"

Explanation

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is a major command of the United States Air Force responsible for providing rapid global mobility and sustainment for America's armed forces. The correct answer, "REACH," is the prefix used to identify AMC aircraft. This prefix signifies the command's mission of reaching and providing support to various locations around the world.

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45.

Which of the following is NOT a recognized method of orientating lost aircraft?
- NAVAIDs
- Pilotage
- Radar
- Sightings by persons on the ground
Correct Answer

A. Sightings by persons on the ground

Explanation

Sightings by persons on the ground is not a recognized method of orientating lost aircraft. NAVAIDs, pilotage, and radar are all commonly used methods for determining the location and orientation of an aircraft. NAVAIDs refer to navigational aids such as radio beacons or GPS systems, while pilotage involves visually identifying landmarks and using charts or maps. Radar uses radio waves to detect and track aircraft. However, relying on sightings by persons on the ground may not be accurate or reliable, as their perspective and information may be limited.

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46.

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) _______ area.
- Airport
- Approach control
- Surface
- Terminal
Correct Answer

A. Surface

Explanation

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a surface area. This means that the control tower is responsible for ensuring that there is enough distance between the two aircraft to prevent any potential collisions. The surface area refers to the area of the airport where aircraft are taxiing, taking off, and landing.

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47.

Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted _________.
- In VFR conditions
- At nonapproach control towers
- With the concurrence of the departure controller
- In accordance with a Letter of Agreement
Correct Answer

A. In VFR conditions

Explanation

Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) are a type of operation where an aircraft is allowed to land and hold short of an intersecting runway or taxiway. These operations can only be conducted in Visual Flight Rules (VFR) conditions. VFR conditions refer to weather conditions that allow pilots to navigate and operate an aircraft by visual reference to the ground and other landmarks. Since LAHSO requires clear visibility and good weather conditions for pilots to safely see and avoid other aircraft and obstacles, it is crucial that these operations are only conducted in VFR conditions.

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48.

A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ______.
- A wind report
- An altimeter setting
- Feet remaining
- Traffic information
Correct Answer

A. Traffic information

Explanation

In order to conduct a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways, it is necessary for both aircraft involved to be issued traffic information. This information ensures that both pilots are aware of the presence and location of other aircraft in the vicinity, allowing them to coordinate their movements and maintain safe separation. Without traffic information, the risk of collision or other hazardous situations would be significantly increased.

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49.

Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, coordinate with the appropriate _______.
- Nonapproach control tower
- Airport authority
- Flight Standards District Office
- Airport Advisory Service
Correct Answer

A. Nonapproach control tower

Explanation

Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, it is important to coordinate with the appropriate nonapproach control tower. This is necessary to ensure the safe and efficient movement of the aircraft through the airspace and to avoid any conflicts or potential hazards. The nonapproach control tower is responsible for managing the movement of aircraft on the ground within their designated area, including taxiways, runways, and other surface areas. By coordinating with them, the issuing authority can ensure that all necessary precautions and instructions are given to the aircraft for a smooth and safe transit.

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Quiz Edited by
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Oct 22, 2016

Quiz Created by
55mhaig

CCT ATC Cto 16008

The ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called the _______.

Quiz Preview

When issuing surface wind, state the indicated direction to the nearest _________ degrees.

To identify a civil aircraft, use the aircraft type, model, _______ name, or the prefix "NOVEMBER."

When issuing advisories on bird activity, include the position, species or size (if known), direction of flight, and __________.

Do NOT ask a flight check aircraft to deviate from the pilot's planned action except to preclude a(n) ________ situation.

Aerobatic flight may NOT be conducted below _________ feet AGL.

The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is _______ knots.

Who is the final authority on the use of an assigned noise abatement runway?

When flying on a federal airway, IFR aircraft must navigate ____________ of that airway.

Unless requested by the pilot, do NOT issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds ______ knots

Simultaneous opposite direction aircraft operations on parallel runways between sunset and sunrise are NOT authorized unless runway centerlines are separated by a minimum of _______ feet.

What factor should be considered when determining which runways are to be designated as "active" runways?

The runway edge lights for the runway-in-use shall be turned on whenever the associated _______ lights are on.

Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the___________.

The light system arranged to provide vertical visual approach slope guidance information during the approach to a runway is ______.

Routes or altitudes specifically for helicopters are prescribed by ________.

What is the phraseology used to issue RVR information?

When basic radar service is being provided, an aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing sequence after _________.

When conditions require application of temporary flight restrictions in a particular area, the information is disseminated via a(n) ________.

Except where it is NOT operationally feasible, interfacility and intrafacility transfers of _______ must be accomplished in all areas of radar surveillance.

Local controllers must visually scan runways _______.

In order to fly "VFR-on-top," an aircraft must be on a(n) _________ flight plan.

Procedural Letters of Agreement are _______ to JO 7110.65.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to ______ miles; otherwise, "miles" means ________ miles.

Skill requirements for operating positions in a control tower include the passing of a(n) ________ test.

An endorsement that an applicant has met the requirements to control air traffic at a facility is called a(n) ________.

The term "high key" relates to a(n) ________ approach.

Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing the target make an identifying turn of ______ degrees or more.

The position relief briefing process involves _______ separate and distinct steps.

NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ____________.

Speed restrictions do NOT apply if the prescribed speed is lower than the _________ of an aircraft.

If requested, a pilot who is granted priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit to the ATC facility manager a detailed report of that emergency within _________ hours.

When combining positions in the tower, do NOT use ground control frequency for _________ communications.

One of the factors to consider when recommending an airport for an emergency aircraft is __________.

Air is deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to __________.

In a METAR report, the altimeter element follows the ________ group.

When both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a route segment, the MOCA may be used within _________ nautical miles of the VOR involved.

When issuing traffic to radar-identified aircraft, state the azimuth and distance from the aircraft and the _________.

What term describes a physical or automated action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with the aircraft will NOT be transferred?

Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the _______.

The sequence for departure under gate hold procedures must be maintained in accordance with _______ unless modified by flow control restrictions.

Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) shall be operated when the visibility is less than _____ mile(s) and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS.

To operate in controlled airspace under IFR, a pilot must be ____________ and receive clearance.

Air Mobility Command aircraft are identified by the prefix _______.

Which of the following is NOT a recognized method of orientating lost aircraft?

A nonapproach control tower may be authorized to provide visual separation between two aircraft within a(n) _______ area.

Land and Hold Short Operations must only be conducted _________.

A provision for conducting a simultaneous operation on intersecting runways is that both aircraft involved must be issued ______.

Before issuing a clearance to aircraft that will transit another facility's surface area, coordinate with the appropriate _______.

When used in conjunction with visibility, "miles" refers to miles; otherwise, "miles" means __ miles.