1C0 CDC 7 LVL EC05

1. What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to perform full-time jump duties?

Temporary.

Permissive.

Active.

Initial.

2. Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?

Squadron aviation resource management.

Tenant aviation resource management.

Host aviation resource management.

Current operation/scheduling.

3. The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT

4324.

4323.

4322.

4321.

4. What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?

Aircrew availability.

Mission requirements.

Allocated flying hours.

Equipment and aircraft availibility.

5. Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are

Telephone, physical environment and STU-III

Physical environment, equipment listing and telephone.

Radio communicaiton, telephone and spatial environment.

Telephone, radio communication and physical environment.

6. How many months is the losing HARM required to maintain PCS products for an aircrew member?

12.

15.

20.

24.

7. What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to non-interference flyers that provide high altitude airdrop mission support?

CEFIP.

ACIP.

HDIP.

None authorized.

8. What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?

API.

TSC.

ASC.

FAC.

9. What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns?

Table.

Crosstab.

Page detail table.

Page detail crosstab.

10. If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO would be published to fix the incorrect information?

New.

Revised.

Amendment.

Revocation.

11. What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to F-15C?

Continuation.

Requalification.

Mission qualification.

Conversion/difference.

12. If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk () sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?

Position certification item.

Wartime task.

Critical task.

Core task.

13. The ARMS reports you would find in a JRF that has arrived at a gaining HARM office are the IDS, ITS,

FHR, instrument flight rules (IFR) or individual flight recors (IFR).

JHR, and IFR.

JHR, and IJR.

FHR, and IJR.

14. Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?

Squadron aviation resouce management.

Tenant aviation resouce management.

Host aviation resouce management.

Standardization and evaluation office.

15. The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-

401

402

410

421

16. Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?

HARM NCOIC

Group 1COX2 (FM)

CHARM

SARM NCOIC

17. The second character of the ASC identifies the

Flying status code.

Qualification code.

Entitlement code

DNIF status code

18. If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data?

Database information.

Training information.

Resource information.

Flying hour information.

19. An aircrew member whoes birth month is October will PCS to another active flying position on 10 August. When would the member be scheduled for an annual flight physical?

Prior to departure.

Within 10 workdays after PCS date

Within three months after arriving at the new base

20. Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?

Trainee's request letter.

Trainer's/supervisor's letter.

Copy of the individuals STS

Group 1COX2 functional letter.

21. The first character of the ASC identifies

Flying status code.

Qualification code.

Entitlement status code.

DNIF status code.

22. If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the

Information must be re-entered.

Interface must be done manually.

Data will not overwrite the data in ARMS.

MILPDS will overwrite ARMS and cause errors in the data.

23. What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copilot who upgraded to a pilot?

Flyer.

Training Program.

Profile Assignment.

Aircraft Assignment.

24. Physiological training is required for

Only rated members assigned active aircraft

Only pilots who fly high-G onset rate aircraft

Any personnel authorized to fly in AF aircraft

All personnel who are or will be palced in flying status

25. HAP initial training is provieded to

Any aircrew member who has a "J" duty prefix.`

Personel personnelapplying to be placed on active jump status.

Qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea leve;.

Aircrew members in an authorized "J" duty prefix position who are applying to be placed on active jump status.

26. For a CEA, the effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the basic badge it the date

Of the first flight

Of the application letter.

The member met all applicable criteria.

The member's commander signed application letter.

27. What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?

AAG

AWG

FAB

ASG

28. What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?

Refresher.

Continuation.

Initial qualification.

Mission qualification.

29. A parachutist eligible for HDIP performed a parachute jump on 15 Mar and received HDIP for a 3-calender month period. Which pay rule would apply to the member?

1

2

3

4

30. An aeronautical rating board waiver

Is approved by the MAJCOM/A3.

Is forwarded to HQ USAF/XOOT for final approval.

Must be forwarded for final approval 60 days prior to publishing an aeronautical order.

Is only approved for officers who have been on active flying status within 6 years of the request

31. A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001. If still grounded, what is the effective date of medical disqualification?

15 April 2002.

16 April 2002.

15 December 2002

16 December 2002

32. Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?

LAN

EPL

CAR

AFEPL

33. What consideration for indentifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?

Special training.

Recurring training.

Mission requirements.

Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 requirements.

34. What API codes must the Host aviation resource management (HARM) office monitor for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions?

5,3,4,B and D.

5,3,4,C and E.

5,6,8,B and D.

5,6,8,C and E.

35. FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for

Review, evaluation, recommendation.

Aeronautical order publishing.

Recommendation.

Final action.

36. What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?

10-201.

10-701.

11-401.

11-402.

37. Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file?

0.

2.

3.

8.

38. When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?

Aircraft and person.

Aircraft and flight.

Flight and resource.

Personnel and resource.

39. What congressional act increased OFDA requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates?

ACIA of 1974.

ACIA of 1989.

FY 96 NDAA.

FY 99 NDAA.

40. An aeronautical rating board

Makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF rating.

Makes the final decision whether to award a USAF aeronautical rating.

Is required for medical officers who hold a comparable flight surgeon rating.

Determines if the applicant meets the required criteria and notifies the HARM office to publish the appropriate aeronautical order.

41. Guidance on how to complete an AFTO Form 781 is in AFI 11-

401.

402.

410.

421.

42. What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the aircrew members in a flying squadron?

Training profile master list.

Individual training summary.

Training profile assignment list.

Unit training currency summary.

43. What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?

User Administration.

Organization.

Password.

Security.

44. When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending HALO school?

Prior to attending initial HALO school.

Upon return from initial HALO school.

Class start date of initial HALO school.

Upon graduation of initial HALO school.

45. What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been place on flying status?

9C.

9D.

9E.

9J.

46. Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly

Manning, activities, equipment

Plans, activities, capabilities and limitations

Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations.

Potential, capabilities, intentions and limitations.

47. What ASC would be assigned to an operational support memberwho has been placed on flying status?

9C.

9D.

9E.

9J.

48. A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5 level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?

12

18

21

24

49. If an ARC aircrew member flies 2.0 inactive duty (IAD) for the month of Jan and is also on AD status from 1-9 (1.2 AD hour requirement), how would the flight hours be applied?

2.0 must be applied to the AD hour requirement.

2.0 must be applied to the IAD hour requirement.

1.2 must be applies to the AD/0.8 must be applied to the IAD hour repuirements

0.8 must be applied to the AD/1.2 must be applied to the IAD hour repuirements

50. For information regarding non-iterference flyers, refer to AFI 11-

202.

401.

402.

412.

51. If a pilot is missing 72.4 hours of student time in the T-37B, what ARMS window would be used to update the missing time?

Flight .

Aircraft.

Aircraft hours.

Carreer total hours.

52. What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?

Analysis of threats.

Assessment of risks.

Analysis of vulnerabilities.

Identification of critical information.

53. What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutist?

21.

22.

23.

24.

54. What aviation resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215 will be impletmented to enhance the ARMS database?

AAG

AWG

FAB

ASG

55. If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report during a records review, guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS is in AFI 11-

401.

402.

410.

421.

56. To group various task IDs in a logical manner for easy management, the ARMS database uses training

Management.

Assignment.

Program.

Profile.

57. An officer arrived for undergraduate flying training on 19 Sep 05 and started training on 22 Sep 05 (class start date). If the individual graduated on 12 Jul 06 and PSC'd on 13 Jul 06, when would the years of rated service start counting for advance ratings and badges?

19 Sep 05

22 Sep 05

12 Jul 06

13 Jul 06

58. Guidance on required host avation resource management (HARM) actions on disqualification of a rated officer for medical fitness is in AFI 11-

401

402

403

404

59. If a DD 149 was approved to update 200.5 hours of missing instructor pilot flight time, what ARMS window would be used to make the update?

Flight.

Aircraft.

Aircraft Hours.

Career total hours.

60. Who is the office of responsibility for the assignment and update of an API code for a CEA?

SARM.

TARM.

HARM.

CSS.

61. Guidance on centrifuge training is in AFI

401

402

403

404

62. What mandates the HARM office audit the entitlement verification report (EVR) on a quarterly basis?

AFI 11-401.

AFI 11-421.

DoD 7000.14 R Chapter 22.

DFAS DE Manual 7073-2

63. What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?

Profile assignment.

Training program.

Training profile.

Training task.

1c0 CDC 7 Lvl Ec05

1. What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to perform full-time jump duties?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?

3. The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT

4. What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?

5. Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are

6. How many months is the losing HARM required to maintain PCS products for an aircrew member?

7. What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to non-interference flyers that provide high altitude airdrop mission support?

8. What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?

9. What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns?

10. If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO would be published to fix the incorrect information?

11. What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to F-15C?

12. If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?

13. The ARMS reports you would find in a JRF that has arrived at a gaining HARM office are the IDS, ITS,

14. Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?

15. The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-

16. Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?

17. The second character of the ASC identifies the

18. If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data?

19. An aircrew member whoes birth month is October will PCS to another active flying position on 10 August. When would the member be scheduled for an annual flight physical?

20. Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?

21. The first character of the ASC identifies

22. If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the

23. What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copilot who upgraded to a pilot?

24. Physiological training is required for

25. HAP initial training is provieded to

26. For a CEA, the effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the basic badge it the date

27. What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?

28. What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?

29. A parachutist eligible for HDIP performed a parachute jump on 15 Mar and received HDIP for a 3-calender month period. Which pay rule would apply to the member?

30. An aeronautical rating board waiver

31. A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001. If still grounded, what is the effective date of medical disqualification?

32. Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?

33. What consideration for indentifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?

34. What API codes must the Host aviation resource management (HARM) office monitor for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions?

35. FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for

36. What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?

37. Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file?

38. When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?

39. What congressional act increased OFDA requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates?

40. An aeronautical rating board

41. Guidance on how to complete an AFTO Form 781 is in AFI 11-

42. What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the aircrew members in a flying squadron?

43. What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?

44. When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending HALO school?

45. What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been place on flying status?

46. Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly

47. What ASC would be assigned to an operational support memberwho has been placed on flying status?

48. A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5 level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?

49. If an ARC aircrew member flies 2.0 inactive duty (IAD) for the month of Jan and is also on AD status from 1-9 (1.2 AD hour requirement), how would the flight hours be applied?

50. For information regarding non-iterference flyers, refer to AFI 11-

51. If a pilot is missing 72.4 hours of student time in the T-37B, what ARMS window would be used to update the missing time?

52. What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?

53. What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutist?

54. What aviation resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215 will be impletmented to enhance the ARMS database?

55. If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report during a records review, guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS is in AFI 11-

56. To group various task IDs in a logical manner for easy management, the ARMS database uses training

57. An officer arrived for undergraduate flying training on 19 Sep 05 and started training on 22 Sep 05 (class start date). If the individual graduated on 12 Jul 06 and PSC'd on 13 Jul 06, when would the years of rated service start counting for advance ratings and badges?

58. Guidance on required host avation resource management (HARM) actions on disqualification of a rated officer for medical fitness is in AFI 11-

59. If a DD 149 was approved to update 200.5 hours of missing instructor pilot flight time, what ARMS window would be used to make the update?

60. Who is the office of responsibility for the assignment and update of an API code for a CEA?

61. Guidance on centrifuge training is in AFI

62. What mandates the HARM office audit the entitlement verification report (EVR) on a quarterly basis?

63. What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?

12. If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk () sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?