Quiz For Office Coordinators
Take this quiz for office coordinators to test your knowledge about the essential protocols and steps required for efficient in-office coordination. Proper office coordination forms the backbone of any organization to achieve its goals and excel in its endeavors. The quiz aims to guide you through efficient office coordination procedures and steps; effective coordination is key to the company's overall growth; if you like this quiz, share it with your friends and colleagues. All the best!
- 1.
Which folder in the Computer do you use to print general paperwork for the office?
- A.
“General Forms” folder located in the “U” drive
- B.
“Paperwork” folder located in the “U” drive
- C.
“PA’s and ARNP’s” folder located in the “S” drive
Correct Answer
A. “General Forms” folder located in the “U” driveExplanation
The correct answer is the "General Forms" folder located in the "U" drive. This folder is specifically designated for printing general paperwork for the office, making it the appropriate choice for printing general paperwork. The other folders mentioned, "Paperwork" and "PA's and ARNP's," are not specified as being for general paperwork and therefore would not be the correct choice.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The computer must be
- A.
Locked or logged off anytime you leave the computer work area.
- B.
Should be left as it is
- C.
Should always be left unlocked
- D.
Should not be logged off
Correct Answer
A. Locked or logged off anytime you leave the computer work area.Explanation
It is important to lock or log off the computer anytime you leave the computer work area to ensure the security and privacy of your data. This prevents unauthorized access to your computer and protects sensitive information from being accessed or tampered with by others. Leaving the computer unlocked or logged in can potentially lead to unauthorized use or data breaches. Therefore, it is essential to take this precautionary measure to maintain the security of your computer and personal information.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which icon in Med+Plus do you use to open patients search screen?
- A.
Calendar icon
- B.
Bell Ring icon
- C.
Clock icon
- D.
Clipboard icon
Correct Answer
D. Clipboard iconExplanation
The clipboard icon in Med+Plus is used to open the patient search screen. This icon typically represents a tool used for copying and pasting, which is similar to the function of searching for and retrieving patient information.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Where do you go to view your timesheet?
- A.
Go to the “General Forms” folder located in the “U” drive of Computer
- B.
Go to the “Users” tab when you log into Med+Plus
- C.
Go to the “Calendar” icon when you log into Med+Plus
Correct Answer
B. Go to the “Users” tab when you log into Med+PlusExplanation
To view your timesheet, you need to go to the "Users" tab when you log into Med+Plus. This is where you will find the necessary information and options related to your timesheet.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the first thing a current patient must do as he or she comes in the office?
- A.
Patient must sign-in at the front desk
- B.
Patient must provide a Photo ID
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Patient must sign-in at the front deskExplanation
The first thing a current patient must do as they come into the office is to sign-in at the front desk. This is a common practice in medical offices to keep track of the patients and their arrival time. By signing in, the office staff can ensure that the patient is present and can start the necessary paperwork or preparations for their appointment. Providing a photo ID may be required at some point, but it is not specifically mentioned as the first thing the patient must do. Therefore, the correct answer is that the patient must sign-in at the front desk.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What should be done to Prescription Pads at close of business day?
- A.
Must be securely locked away
- B.
Must be left as it is
- C.
Must not be locked
- D.
Must be kept closed
Correct Answer
A. Must be securely locked awayExplanation
At the close of the business day, prescription pads should be securely locked away to ensure the privacy and security of the sensitive information contained on them. This helps prevent unauthorized access and potential misuse of the prescription pads. Leaving them as they are or not locking them could lead to the pads being easily accessible to anyone, increasing the risk of fraud or unauthorized prescription use. Keeping them closed is not sufficient to ensure their security, as they could still be accessed by unauthorized individuals.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is your responsibility when a new patient provides a Photo ID?
- A.
Scan Photo ID in EHR and inform Medical Provider that patient has provided a Photo ID
- B.
Scan Photo ID in EHR and check the “ID verified” box located in the Personal tab of patient’s account
- C.
Make a copy of Photo ID and provide it to the Medical Provider
Correct Answer
B. Scan Photo ID in EHR and check the “ID verified” box located in the Personal tab of patient’s accountExplanation
When a new patient provides a Photo ID, the responsibility is to scan the Photo ID in the Electronic Health Record (EHR) system and check the "ID verified" box located in the Personal tab of the patient's account. This ensures that the patient's identity has been verified and recorded accurately in the system. Making a copy of the Photo ID or informing the Medical Provider are not mentioned as necessary steps in the given answer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When is a new patient instructed to sign the “Standard Disclosure and Acknowledgement” form?
- A.
During the time patient is filling out the rest of the New Patient paperwork
- B.
During the time patient is watching the presentation video where it explains the Standard Disclosure and Acknowledgement form
- C.
During the time patient is examined by a physician for an initial visit
Correct Answer
C. During the time patient is examined by a physician for an initial visitExplanation
The "Standard Disclosure and Acknowledgement" form is likely to be signed by a new patient during the time they are examined by a physician for their initial visit. This is because the form is typically related to the disclosure of information and the patient's acknowledgement of certain policies or procedures. It would make sense for the patient to sign this form during the initial visit when they are being examined by a physician, as this is when important information about the patient's medical history and treatment plan may be discussed.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When is it applicable for a patient to fill out and sign an Affidavit?
- A.
When a patient owns an operable vehicle, but does not have insurance on the vehicle
- B.
When a patient owns an operable vehicle and has insurance on the vehicle
- C.
When a patient does not own an operable vehicle
- D.
When patient does not an an operable vehicle and has an insurance
Correct Answer
C. When a patient does not own an operable vehicleExplanation
The patient needs to fill out and sign an Affidavit when they do not own an operable vehicle. This suggests that the purpose of the Affidavit is likely related to the ownership or use of a vehicle. If the patient owns an operable vehicle, they may already have insurance on it, making the Affidavit unnecessary. If the patient does not own a vehicle at all, there would be no need for them to fill out an Affidavit related to vehicle ownership.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which medical evaluation packet is used for new patients?
- A.
Comprehensive Evaluation
- B.
Established Medical Evaluation
- C.
DC Exam
- D.
AC Exam
Correct Answer
A. Comprehensive EvaluationExplanation
The correct answer is Comprehensive Evaluation. This medical evaluation packet is used for new patients as it involves a thorough assessment of the patient's medical history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests. It helps healthcare providers gather detailed information about the patient's overall health and identify any potential health issues or risks. This comprehensive evaluation is important in establishing a baseline for the patient's health and developing an appropriate treatment plan.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Where is the signed Letter of Protection scanned in EHR once received from a patient's attorney?
- A.
Scan into the “Other Treatment Notes” folder
- B.
Scan into the “Attorney” sub-folder located in the “Correspondence” folder
- C.
Scan into the “Media Agreement” sub-folder located in the “New Patient Paperwork” folder
Correct Answer
B. Scan into the “Attorney” sub-folder located in the “Correspondence” folderExplanation
The correct answer is to scan the signed Letter of Protection into the "Attorney" sub-folder located in the "Correspondence" folder. This ensures that all correspondence related to the patient's attorney is organized and easily accessible within the electronic health record system.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who is responsible to verify if Personal Injury Protection (PIP) benefits are available for a patient?
- A.
The Office Coordinator assisting patient with the New Patient paperwork
- B.
The SWAT Team at the Administration Office
- C.
The Assistant Team Leader of the office
Correct Answer
B. The SWAT Team at the Administration OfficeExplanation
The SWAT Team at the Administration Office is responsible for verifying if Personal Injury Protection (PIP) benefits are available for a patient. This team is likely equipped with the necessary knowledge and resources to handle insurance-related matters, including verifying the availability of PIP benefits. The Office Coordinator assisting the patient with paperwork and the Assistant Team Leader may have their own roles and responsibilities within the office, but it is not specified that they are responsible for verifying PIP benefits.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Whose insurance does the UM coverage come from?
- A.
At-Fault party’s insurance
- B.
No-Fault patient’s insurance
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. No-Fault patient’s insuranceExplanation
UM coverage, also known as uninsured/underinsured motorist coverage, is a type of insurance that provides protection to individuals who are involved in accidents with drivers who either do not have insurance or have insufficient insurance coverage. In the given question, the correct answer is "No-Fault patient's insurance." This means that the UM coverage comes from the insurance policy of the injured party, regardless of who is at fault for the accident. This coverage ensures that the injured party is protected and can receive compensation for their injuries and damages, even if the at-fault party does not have insurance or enough insurance to cover the expenses.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient was driving an insured vehicle at the time of the accident. Can we treat a patient who was at-fault for the accident?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
A. YesExplanation
Yes, we can treat a patient who was at-fault for the accident. The fact that the patient was driving an insured vehicle at the time of the accident implies that they have insurance coverage. Therefore, regardless of who is at fault, the patient can still receive medical treatment for any injuries sustained in the accident.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What kind of treatment can a patient receive if the patient is finaled, but the case has not yet settled?
- A.
Patient can receive physical therapy with chiropractor adjustments, but does not include any massages, diagnostic orders or MD/DO visits
- B.
Patient can receive physical therapy with chiropractor adjustments and massages, but does not include any diagnostic orders or MD/DO visits
- C.
Patient can receive physical therapy with chiropractor adjustments, but does not include any massages, ultrasound, diagnostic orders or MD/DO visits
- D.
Patient can receive any kind of treatment
Correct Answer
A. Patient can receive physical therapy with chiropractor adjustments, but does not include any massages, diagnostic orders or MD/DO visitsExplanation
If the patient is finaled but the case has not yet settled, they can receive physical therapy with chiropractor adjustments. However, this treatment does not include any massages, diagnostic orders, or visits to a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Does our organization treat patients for Workers Compensation claims?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
Correct Answer
B. NoExplanation
The given answer "No" suggests that the organization does not treat patients for Workers Compensation claims. This means that the organization does not provide medical services or treatments specifically for individuals who have filed workers' compensation claims.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Where do you file the original Assignment of Rights & Benefits (AOB) and Standard Disclosure signed and completed by a patient and Medical Provider?
- A.
File in the daily paperwork box once scanned in EHR
- B.
File in the patient’s Travel Card once scanned in EHR
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. None of the aboveExplanation
The original Assignment of Rights & Benefits (AOB) and Standard Disclosure signed and completed by a patient and Medical Provider should not be filed in the daily paperwork box or the patient's Travel Card once scanned in EHR. The correct answer is None of the above, which suggests that there is another appropriate location or process for filing these documents.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the time a therapy note and fee slip are required to be turned in at the front desk for a patient that comes in for treatment around 10:00am?
- A.
Turn in paperwork by 12:00pm
- B.
Turn in paperwork by 3:00pm
- C.
Turn in paperwork by the end of the day
Correct Answer
A. Turn in paperwork by 12:00pmExplanation
The therapy note and fee slip should be turned in at the front desk by 12:00pm for a patient who comes in for treatment around 10:00am. This ensures that the paperwork is processed in a timely manner and allows the staff to complete any necessary documentation or billing before the end of the day. Turning in the paperwork by 12:00pm also allows for any potential errors or discrepancies to be addressed and resolved promptly.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Indicate (2) services that may be provided to a patient which require a separate form other than the fee slip and therapy note.
- A.
Massage (MAS) and Ultrasound (USR)
- B.
Tens Unit (TENS) and Electrical Stimulation (ES)
- C.
Heating Pad (HEAT) and Lifeback (LBACK)
- D.
Lifeback (LBACK) and Tens Unit (TENS)
Correct Answer
D. Lifeback (LBACK) and Tens Unit (TENS) -
- 20.
What is the proper appointment scheduling protocol?
- A.
Ask patients for the days and times they would like to come in for treatment and schedule appointments exactly as requested by patients
- B.
Attempt to evenly schedule patients throughout the day
- C.
Attempt to fill up the schedule in the morning to avoid too many patients coming in the afternoon
Correct Answer
B. Attempt to evenly schedule patients throughout the dayExplanation
The proper appointment scheduling protocol is to attempt to evenly schedule patients throughout the day. This ensures that the workload is distributed evenly and prevents overwhelming periods during certain times of the day. It also helps to optimize the use of resources and minimize waiting times for patients.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which medical evaluation packet is used for patients scheduled for a re-evaluation?
- A.
Comprehensive Evaluation
- B.
Established Medical Evaluation
- C.
Therapy Note
- D.
DC Exam
Correct Answer
B. Established Medical Evaluation -
- 22.
What are you required to do with page #8 of the Established Medical Evaluation packet before a patient is seen by a Medical Provider?
- A.
Required to fill out the top section of page by listing patient’s previous ICD-9 codes listed on the last evaluation of patient.
- B.
Required to circle patient’s previous ICD-9 codes under the “Patient’s Current Diagnosis” section based on the codes listed on the last evaluation of patient.
- C.
Nothing is required to be filled out other than patient’s name and date of exam.
Correct Answer
A. Required to fill out the top section of page by listing patient’s previous ICD-9 codes listed on the last evaluation of patient.Explanation
Before a patient is seen by a Medical Provider, it is necessary to fill out the top section of page #8 of the Established Medical Evaluation packet by listing the patient's previous ICD-9 codes that were listed on their last evaluation. This information is important for the Medical Provider to have a complete understanding of the patient's medical history and previous diagnoses.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What does maintenance, palliative or supportive care consists of?
- A.
Providing physical therapy only (no massages or MD visits) to finaled patients 1x a week for 4-6 weeks
- B.
Providing physical therapy only (no massages or MD visits) to finaled patients 1x every 4-6 weeks
- C.
Providing physical therapy including massage therapy to finaled patients 1x every 4-6 weeks
Correct Answer
B. Providing physical therapy only (no massages or MD visits) to finaled patients 1x every 4-6 weeks -
- 24.
Which documents are provided to a patient after each re-evaluation?
- A.
Appointment schedule and copy of med log
- B.
Appointment schedule and copy of patient summary sheet
- C.
Appointment schedule and copy of fee slip
Correct Answer
A. Appointment schedule and copy of med logExplanation
After each re-evaluation, the patient is provided with an appointment schedule and a copy of their medication log. This helps the patient keep track of their upcoming appointments and also provides them with a record of the medications they have been taking. The appointment schedule ensures that the patient is aware of their future appointments and can plan accordingly. The copy of the medication log helps the patient and their healthcare provider to monitor the effectiveness of the medications and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If a patient is ordered MRI scans of Brain and Knee on the initial visit, these MRIs are approved automatically.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If a patient is ordered MRI scans of both the brain and knee on their initial visit, these MRIs are approved automatically. This means that there is no need for any additional approval or authorization process, and the scans can be conducted without any delays or obstacles. This suggests that the medical facility or insurance provider has a policy in place that allows for automatic approval of these specific types of MRI scans on the initial visit.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the protocol when both PIP and BI coverage have not been confirmed and an MRI of the Cervical has been ordered on the first follow up visit?
- A.
Schedule MRI as long as patient has legal representation
- B.
Do not schedule MRI until a payment source is confirmed
- C.
Send an email to Administration to obtain approval for MRI
Correct Answer
C. Send an email to Administration to obtain approval for MRIExplanation
When both PIP (Personal Injury Protection) and BI (Bodily Injury) coverage have not been confirmed, it is important to obtain approval for the MRI from the administration. This ensures that the cost of the MRI will be covered by a payment source before scheduling the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which form is a patient required to fill out when an MRI is ordered?
- A.
Patient MRI Scanning Information sheet
- B.
MRI Questionnaire
- C.
MRI Script
Correct Answer
B. MRI QuestionnaireExplanation
When an MRI is ordered, a patient is required to fill out an MRI Questionnaire. This form typically includes questions about the patient's medical history, any medications they are currently taking, and any metal implants or devices they may have in their body. The questionnaire helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the MRI procedure by providing important information to the healthcare provider.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the protocol when a patient is referred to one of our in-house specialists?
- A.
Fax the Specialist Referral Checklist to the specialist office with necessary information
- B.
Send an email to the specialist office identifying referral ordered, patient’s name, DOB, name of referring provider and area patient referred for
- C.
Call the Specialist Office and provide referral information over the phone
Correct Answer
B. Send an email to the specialist office identifying referral ordered, patient’s name, DOB, name of referring provider and area patient referred forExplanation
The protocol when a patient is referred to one of our in-house specialists is to send an email to the specialist office identifying the referral ordered, patient's name, date of birth, name of referring provider, and the area the patient is referred for.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who needs to be contacted for approval if a patient would like to be seen at an outside specialist office?
- A.
The patient’s Attorney
- B.
The SWAT Team
- C.
The Administration Office
- D.
No one – approval is not needed
Correct Answer
C. The Administration OfficeExplanation
If a patient would like to be seen at an outside specialist office, they need to contact the Administration Office for approval. This is because the Administration Office is responsible for managing and coordinating appointments and referrals to specialists. They need to ensure that the patient's insurance covers the visit and that it is medically necessary. The Administration Office also handles any necessary paperwork and communication between the patient, the specialist, and the primary care physician. Therefore, contacting the Administration Office is necessary to obtain approval for seeing an outside specialist.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who needs to be notified to obtain approval for a 2nd accident case?
- A.
The Central Scheduling Department
- B.
The SWAT Team
- C.
The patient's Attorney
Correct Answer
A. The Central Scheduling DepartmentExplanation
The Central Scheduling Department needs to be notified to obtain approval for a 2nd accident case. This department is responsible for coordinating and scheduling appointments and procedures for patients. They are likely involved in the approval process for additional accident cases to ensure proper scheduling and coordination of resources. The SWAT Team is not relevant to this situation as they are typically involved in emergency response situations. The patient's Attorney may be involved in legal matters related to the accident case but would not be responsible for obtaining approval.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is the protocol if a Civil Processor attempts to serve a subpoena in the office?
- A.
Accept subpoena and then fax subpoena to the Legal Department of the Company
- B.
Accept subpoena and provide Civil Processor the records and information requested
- C.
Do not accept subpoena and provide Civil Processor the address where the subpoena may be served
Correct Answer
C. Do not accept subpoena and provide Civil Processor the address where the subpoena may be served -
- 32.
What is the name of the form filled out by a patient using the transportation service for the first time?
- A.
Standard Disclosure & Acknowledgment
- B.
Assignment of Rights & Benefits
- C.
Letter of Protection
Correct Answer
B. Assignment of Rights & BenefitsExplanation
The form filled out by a patient using the transportation service for the first time is called "Assignment of Rights & Benefits." This form is used to authorize the transportation service to bill the patient's insurance company directly for the cost of the transportation services provided. It also allows the transportation service to receive payment for these services from the insurance company on behalf of the patient. By signing this form, the patient assigns their rights and benefits under their insurance policy to the transportation service.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How long is transportation service automatically approved for a new patient?
- A.
Approved for two weeks
- B.
Approved for one day
- C.
Approved for an unlimited time
Correct Answer
A. Approved for two weeksExplanation
Transportation service is automatically approved for a new patient for a period of two weeks. This means that the patient can avail transportation services for a maximum of two weeks without needing any additional approval or authorization. After the two-week period, the patient may need to seek further approval or reapply for transportation services if required.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Indicate the service codes used for charges when a patient uses an outside "Taxi" service for transportation.
- A.
CAB and CABH
- B.
TRANS and TRANSH
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. None of the aboveExplanation
The given answer "None of the above" is correct because the service codes mentioned (CAB, CABH, TRANS, TRANSH) do not match the service codes used for charges when a patient uses an outside "Taxi" service for transportation. Therefore, none of the options provided are the correct service codes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the name of the Billing Provider always used for transportation services?
- A.
Physicians Group, LLC
- B.
Florida Sunshine Transport, Inc
- C.
The name of the driver
Correct Answer
B. Florida Sunshine Transport, IncExplanation
Florida Sunshine Transport, Inc is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is the name of the Billing Provider always used for transportation services.Rate this question:
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- 36.
If multiple patients are picked up at the same location and time for transportation, each patient will be charged 50% of the mileage each way.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
When multiple patients are picked up at the same location and time for transportation, it is fair to charge each patient 50% of the mileage each way. This is because the total mileage is being divided equally among all the patients, resulting in a fair distribution of the transportation cost. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the purpose of completing and balancing a Daysheet every business day?
- A.
The purpose is to verify that all services checked on fee slips and therapy notes have in fact been charged correctly in the patients’ accounts
- B.
The purpose is to determine how many services have been completed daily on each patient
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The purpose is to verify that all services checked on fee slips and therapy notes have in fact been charged correctly in the patients’ accountsExplanation
Completing and balancing a Daysheet every business day is necessary to ensure that all services checked on fee slips and therapy notes are accurately charged in the patients' accounts. This process helps in verifying the accuracy of the charges and prevents any discrepancies or errors in billing. By completing and balancing the Daysheet, healthcare providers can ensure that they are charging patients correctly and maintaining the integrity of their financial records.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How long do we keep daysheets in the Daysheet Binder?
- A.
Daysheets are kept for a full 30 days
- B.
Daysheets are kept for one year
- C.
Daysheets are kept for an unlimited time
Correct Answer
A. Daysheets are kept for a full 30 daysExplanation
Daysheets are kept for a full 30 days, which means they are stored for a month before being discarded. This time frame allows for easy access to recent information and ensures that the binder does not become cluttered with outdated daysheets. Keeping daysheets for a specific duration also helps in maintaining accurate records and allows for proper tracking of activities over time.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When exactly is an Attorney contacted in reference to a patient’s missed appointments?
- A.
Everytime a patient misses three consecutive appointments
- B.
Everytime a patient misses ten days of scheduled care
- C.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. All of the aboveExplanation
An attorney is contacted in reference to a patient's missed appointments both when the patient misses three consecutive appointments and when the patient misses ten days of scheduled care. This suggests that the situation is considered serious enough to involve legal action in both cases.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the protocol when patient reaches the Tenth Day on the Missed Appointment System?
- A.
Cancel all remaining appointments
- B.
Try to call patient to schedule more appointments
- C.
Contact our Billing Department and advise on situation
Correct Answer
A. Cancel all remaining appointmentsExplanation
When a patient reaches the Tenth Day on the Missed Appointment System, it is protocol to cancel all remaining appointments. This is done to ensure that the schedule is updated and to free up slots for other patients who may need them. By canceling the remaining appointments, the healthcare facility can also avoid any confusion or unnecessary follow-ups with the patient.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the purpose of the LOP Binder?
- A.
The purpose is to file all original LOPs from patients
- B.
The purpose is to request the LOP to be signed by a patient’s attorney once a month for a total of three months or until the signed LOP is received
- C.
The purpose is to request the LOP to be signed by a patient’s attorney on a monthly basis until signed LOP is received
Correct Answer
B. The purpose is to request the LOP to be signed by a patient’s attorney once a month for a total of three months or until the signed LOP is receivedExplanation
The purpose of the LOP Binder is to request the LOP (Letter of Protection) to be signed by a patient's attorney once a month for a total of three months or until the signed LOP is received. This suggests that the LOP Binder is used to keep track of the LOPs that are being sent to the patient's attorney and to ensure that the signed LOP is obtained within a specified timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which products are logged in the Durable Goods Binder?
- A.
Biofreeze and EPADS
- B.
Biofreeze, Tens Unit & Lifeback Support
- C.
Tens Unit, Lifeback Support, Theraband Kit
Correct Answer
B. Biofreeze, Tens Unit & Lifeback SupportExplanation
The products that are logged in the Durable Goods Binder are Biofreeze, Tens Unit, and Lifeback Support.Rate this question:
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- 43.
When is the Stamps Usage Spreadsheet due?
- A.
At the end of each week
- B.
At the beginning of each month
- C.
When requested by Administration
Correct Answer
B. At the beginning of each monthExplanation
The correct answer is "At the beginning of each month." This means that the Stamps Usage Spreadsheet is due at the start of every month. It is a regular monthly requirement rather than a weekly or sporadic one.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is the protocol to order office supplies?
- A.
At the end of each month, submit office supplies on the Monthly Supply Order spreadsheet and fax to the Material Manager in the Administration Office.
- B.
At the end of each month, submit supplies order on the Monthly Supply Order spreadsheet to the ATL/ TL. The ATL/TL will process office supplies order through the Staples website and will submit janitorial supplies order to the Material Manager in the Administration Office.
- C.
At the beginning of each month, submit supplies order on the Monthly Supply Order spreadsheet by email to Cindy Sonstein.
Correct Answer
B. At the end of each month, submit supplies order on the Monthly Supply Order spreadsheet to the ATL/ TL. The ATL/TL will process office supplies order through the Staples website and will submit janitorial supplies order to the Material Manager in the Administration Office. -
- 45.
If a patient did not own a vehicle at the time of a motor vehicle accident, but lived with a blood relative that owns an insured vehicle; patient must then use the relative’s auto insurance PIP benefits.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If a patient does not own a vehicle but lives with a blood relative who owns an insured vehicle, the patient can use the relative's auto insurance Personal Injury Protection (PIP) benefits. This is because PIP benefits typically extend to household members of the insured, regardless of whether they own a vehicle or not. Therefore, it is true that the patient must use the relative's auto insurance PIP benefits in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A patient was on a bicycle when hit by a vehicle at the time of accident and states that he or she does not own a vehicle or live with a blood relative that owns an insured vehicle. Whose PIP insurance do we use?
- A.
Use the PIP insurance from the person driving the vehicle
- B.
Use the PIP insurance from the at-fault vehicle
- C.
No PIP insurance can be used – Straight LOP case
Correct Answer
B. Use the PIP insurance from the at-fault vehicleExplanation
In this scenario, since the patient does not own a vehicle or live with a blood relative that owns an insured vehicle, their own PIP insurance cannot be used. Therefore, the appropriate option is to use the PIP insurance from the at-fault vehicle, as it will provide coverage for the medical expenses and other benefits for the injured party.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Patient must fill out and sign an Affidavit if he or she owns a vehicle with no insurance coverage on it.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because the patient does not need to fill out and sign an Affidavit if they own a vehicle with no insurance coverage on it. There is no requirement for the patient to provide such a document in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 48.
If a minor comes in for an initial evaluation with an adult who is not his or her parent or legal guardian, what is the best option?
- A.
Allow patient to be seen for the evaluation and make sure to remind patient to have his or her parent come in on the next visit.
- B.
Ask the adult who came in with the patient to sign all paperwork on behalf of the parent or legal guardian.
- C.
Call the Administration Office to advise situation and obtain approval to treat.
Correct Answer
C. Call the Administration Office to advise situation and obtain approval to treat.Explanation
If a minor comes in for an initial evaluation with an adult who is not his or her parent or legal guardian, the best option is to call the Administration Office to advise the situation and obtain approval to treat. This is important because treating a minor without the consent of a parent or legal guardian can have legal and ethical implications. It is necessary to ensure that proper consent is obtained before proceeding with the evaluation and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Patient was seen by a Chiropractor for an initial evaluation. Patient is now being seen for another evaluation by the PA/ARNP. Which medical evaluation form do we use?
- A.
Comprehensive Evaluation
- B.
Established Medical Evaluation
- C.
Progress Note
Correct Answer
A. Comprehensive EvaluationExplanation
When a patient is being seen by a different healthcare provider for a new evaluation, it is appropriate to use a comprehensive evaluation form. This form allows the new healthcare provider to gather detailed information about the patient's medical history, current symptoms, and any previous treatments. It helps the provider to assess the patient's overall health status and develop an appropriate treatment plan.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What does “AOB” stand for?
- A.
Assignment Opportunity Benefit
- B.
Assignment of Rights & Benefits
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Assignment of Rights & BenefitsExplanation
AOB stands for Assignment of Rights & Benefits. This refers to the transfer of rights and benefits from one party to another. It is a legal term commonly used in contracts and agreements to specify the transfer of ownership or entitlement to certain rights or benefits. The other options, Assignment Opportunity Benefit and None of the above, are not correct explanations for the acronym AOB in this context.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Aug 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 08, 2010Quiz Created by
Hcmeinc
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