# Sterile Compounding Trivia Quiz!

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 1,622
Questions: 20 | Attempts: 1,466

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• 1.

### If the child's ( 2 yrs to 6 yrs)  dose of Diphenhydramine Elixir (12.5mg/5ml strength) is 25mg/day;  a dose would be how many milliliters if dosed four times a day?  How many teaspoonsful?

• A.

5ml or one teaspoonful

• B.

2.5ml or one-half teaspoonful

• C.

20ml or 4 teaspoonful

B. 2.5ml or one-half teaspoonful
Explanation
The child's dose of Diphenhydramine Elixir is 25mg/day. If dosed four times a day, each dose would be 25mg divided by 4, which is 6.25mg. Since the strength of the elixir is 12.5mg/5ml, we can calculate the dose in milliliters by dividing 6.25mg by 12.5mg/5ml. This gives us 2.5ml. Since 1 teaspoonful is equivalent to 5ml, the dose would be one-half teaspoonful.

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• 2.

### If the child's ( 2 yrs to 6 yrs)  dose of Diphenhydramine Elixir (12.5mg/5ml strength) is 25mg/day;  a dose would be how many milliliters if dosed four times a day?  How many teaspoonsful?

• A.

5ml or one teaspoonful

• B.

2.5ml or one-half teaspoonful

• C.

20ml or 4 teaspoonful

B. 2.5ml or one-half teaspoonful
Explanation
If the child's dose of Diphenhydramine Elixir is 25mg/day and it is dosed four times a day, then each dose would be 25mg/4 = 6.25mg. Since the strength of the elixir is 12.5mg/5ml, we can calculate the dose in milliliters by setting up a proportion: 12.5mg/5ml = 6.25mg/x ml. Solving for x, we find that x = (6.25mg * 5ml) / 12.5mg = 2.5ml. Therefore, the dose would be 2.5ml or one-half teaspoonful.

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• 3.

### U-100 Humulin N insulin indicates ________per ______.

• A.

100 units per milliliter

• B.

5mg per 5ml

• C.

100mg per milliliter

A. 100 units per milliliter
Explanation
The correct answer is 100 units per milliliter. This means that there are 100 units of Humulin N insulin in every milliliter of the solution.

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• 4.

### Milligrams are weights of drugs, units refers to _________.

• A.

Length

• B.

Liquids

• C.

Activity or potency of natural products

C. Activity or potency of natural products
Explanation
Units refers to the measurement of activity or potency of natural products. In the context of drugs, milligrams are used to measure the weight of the drug, while units are used to measure the activity or potency of the drug. This means that the answer "activity or potency of natural products" is the most appropriate explanation for the given question.

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• 5.

### Heparin 20,000 units in 1 ml.   You wish to give 15,000 units.  How many ml will you administer?

• A.

0.2ml

• B.

0.75ml

• C.

1.5ml

B. 0.75ml
Explanation
To calculate the amount of Heparin to administer, we can set up a proportion. We know that there are 20,000 units in 1 ml. Setting up the proportion: 20,000 units / 1 ml = 15,000 units / x ml. Cross-multiplying, we get 20,000x = 15,000. Dividing both sides by 20,000, we find that x = 0.75 ml. Therefore, you would administer 0.75 ml of Heparin to give 15,000 units.

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• 6.

### You have penicillin 600,000 units in 2ml.  You wish to administer 150,000 units.  How many ml will you administer?

• A.

0.5ml

• B.

0.25ml

• C.

4ml

A. 0.5ml
Explanation
To administer 150,000 units of penicillin, you need to calculate the ratio of units to milliliters. Since 600,000 units are present in 2ml, you can set up a proportion to find the amount of penicillin needed for 150,000 units. Cross-multiplying gives you (150,000 * 2) / 600,000 = 0.5ml. Therefore, you will administer 0.5ml of penicillin.

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• 7.

### A fluid ounce contains 3 gram of medication.   How many mg are in one teaspoonful?

• A.

100mg

• B.

1500mg

• C.

500mg

C. 500mg
Explanation
One teaspoonful is equivalent to 5 fluid ounces. Since each fluid ounce contains 3 grams of medication, the total amount of medication in one teaspoonful would be 5 x 3 = 15 grams. To convert grams to milligrams, we multiply by 1000, so 15 grams is equal to 15 x 1000 = 15000 milligrams. Therefore, the correct answer is 15000mg.

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• 8.

### The agency that supervises the development, testing, purity, safety, and effectiveness of prescription and over-the-counter medications is known as the:

• A.

Board of Pharmacy

• B.

• C.

Explanation
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for overseeing the development, testing, purity, safety, and effectiveness of both prescription and over-the-counter medications. This agency ensures that medications meet certain standards before they are approved for use by the public. They also monitor the manufacturing and labeling of medications to ensure that they are accurately represented and safe for consumption. The FDA plays a critical role in protecting the public's health by regulating the pharmaceutical industry and ensuring that medications are safe and effective for use.

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• 9.

### State boards of pharmacy:

• A.

Represent the interest of pharmacists to the state legislature and other state agencies

• B.

Regulate the manufacturing of controlled substances

• C.

Are responsible for protecting their citizens' health and welfare with regard to pharmacy services

C. Are responsible for protecting their citizens' health and welfare with regard to pharmacy services
Explanation
State boards of pharmacy are responsible for protecting their citizens' health and welfare with regard to pharmacy services. This means that they ensure that pharmacies and pharmacists adhere to the necessary regulations and standards to provide safe and effective medication to the public. They may establish licensing requirements, conduct inspections, and enforce disciplinary actions when necessary. By doing so, state boards of pharmacy play a crucial role in safeguarding the well-being of individuals who rely on pharmacy services for their healthcare needs.

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• 10.

### Which of the following publications is the official information on generic equivalence?

• A.

USP-NF

• B.

Orange Book

• C.

PDR

B. Orange Book
Explanation
The Orange Book is the official publication that provides information on generic equivalence. It is a list of approved drug products with therapeutic equivalence evaluations, which helps healthcare professionals and patients to identify generic drugs that are considered equivalent to brand-name drugs. The Orange Book is maintained by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and is a reliable source for determining the generic equivalence of medications.

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• 11.

### The FDA rates generic products on their bioequivalency to the branded product.  A-rated drugs are considered by the FDA to be therapeutically equivalent while B-rated drugs are either considered not to be therapeutically equivalent or there is  no sufficient information to determine their therapeutic equivalency.   Therefore "A" Codes include:

• A.

AA, AB, AN, AO, AP, or AT

• B.

BC

• C.

DESI drugs

A. AA, AB, AN, AO, AP, or AT
Explanation
The FDA rates generic products on their bioequivalency to the branded product. A-rated drugs are considered therapeutically equivalent, meaning they have the same active ingredients, strength, dosage form, and route of administration as the branded product. B-rated drugs, on the other hand, are either not considered therapeutically equivalent or there is insufficient information to determine their therapeutic equivalency. Therefore, the "A" codes (AA, AB, AN, AO, AP, or AT) indicate drugs that are considered therapeutically equivalent by the FDA.

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• 12.

### Desi drugs not considered to be therapeutically equivalent, and generally pre-date the FDA's testing standards.   Examples are:

• A.

Augmentin, Amoxil, and Ampicillin

• B.

Librax, Donnatal, and Phenobarbital

• C.

Paregoric

B. Librax, Donnatal, and Phenobarbital
Explanation
The given answer is correct because Librax, Donnatal, and Phenobarbital are examples of desi drugs that are not considered to be therapeutically equivalent. These drugs generally pre-date the FDA's testing standards, meaning they were approved before the FDA implemented its current rigorous testing and approval process. Therefore, their safety and efficacy may not be as well-established as drugs that have undergone the FDA's testing standards.

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• 13.

### Procedures for withdrawing fluid from a multiple-dose vial include which three?

• A.

Choose correct syringe size, pull back the plunger of the syringe to the desired volume that you want to extract, place the bevel of the needle facing up, on top of the vial closure, and push needle into the vial at a 45 degree angle with bevel facing up and inject air into the container

• B.

Insert the tip of the needle into the fluid and pull back on the syringe, tip the ampule if needed to remove the desired amount of fluid, and change the needle on the syringe to a filter needle to filter any small glass particles from the fluid as it is added to the final product

• C.

Insert the needle straight into the additive port, but be careful not to puncture the sides of teh injection port and be sure to choose a needle long enough to puncture the inner seal at the injection port, then inject fluid into the container

A. Choose correct syringe size, pull back the plunger of the syringe to the desired volume that you want to extract, place the bevel of the needle facing up, on top of the vial closure, and push needle into the vial at a 45 degree angle with bevel facing up and inject air into the container
Explanation
The correct answer explains the procedures for withdrawing fluid from a multiple-dose vial. It states that the first step is to choose the correct syringe size. Then, the plunger of the syringe should be pulled back to the desired volume that needs to be extracted. The bevel of the needle should be facing up and placed on top of the vial closure. The needle should be inserted into the vial at a 45-degree angle with the bevel still facing up. Finally, air should be injected into the container.

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• 14.

### Filer needles are used when:

• A.

Reconstituting powdered medication in a vial

• B.

The medication being compounded is not sterile

• C.

Medication from an ampule is used

C. Medication from an ampule is used
Explanation
Filer needles are used when medication from an ampule is used. Ampules are small glass containers that hold a single dose of medication in a sterile solution. Filer needles have a filter attached to the needle, which helps to remove any particulate matter or debris from the medication as it is drawn from the ampule. This ensures that the medication is free from any contaminants before it is administered to the patient.

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• 15.

### Labels prepared by the pharmacy for sterile products include all of the following except:

• A.

Diluent name and volume

• B.

Stability expiration date and time

• C.

All of the above

C. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that the labels prepared by the pharmacy for sterile products include diluent name and volume, as well as stability expiration date and time. Therefore, none of the options listed are excluded from the labels.

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• 16.

### Small-volume parenterals are:

• A.

Often delivered as "piggybacks" along witih large volume fluids

• B.

Designed to provide the patient's nutritional needs

• C.

Designed to prevent the patient from dehydrating

A. Often delivered as "piggybacks" along witih large volume fluids
Explanation
Small-volume parenterals are often delivered as "piggybacks" along with large volume fluids. This means that they are administered concurrently with larger volumes of fluids to ensure proper hydration and medication delivery to the patient. This method allows for the administration of multiple medications or solutions without the need for multiple injections, reducing the risk of infection and improving patient comfort. By delivering small-volume parenterals as piggybacks, healthcare providers can efficiently provide necessary medications and fluids to the patient.

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• 17.

### Compounded sterile preparations (CSPs) are preparations that are made using sterile or non-sterile ingredients that must not contain bacteria in the final product.   The process used to avoid contamination while compounding sterile products is known as:

• A.

Non-sterile compounding

• B.

Aseptic technique

• C.

IV compounding

B. Aseptic technique
Explanation
The correct answer is aseptic technique. Aseptic technique is the process used to avoid contamination while compounding sterile products. It involves using sterile equipment, maintaining a sterile environment, and following specific procedures to minimize the risk of introducing bacteria or other microorganisms into the final product. This is crucial for ensuring the safety and efficacy of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs). Non-sterile compounding refers to the preparation of products that do not require a sterile environment, while IV compounding specifically refers to the preparation of intravenous medications.

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• 18.

### The Rx tells you to add one gram of vancomycin to a 250-ml container of dextrose 5% in water and give intravenously over a 2-hour period, repeated every 12 hours for 10 days. Why would you not prepare the entire 20 doses at the same time?

• A.

2 hours is all the patient needs

• B.

Vancomycin will not be stable in D5W

• C.

Because of the relatively short shelf life of many IV medications

C. Because of the relatively short shelf life of many IV medications
Explanation
Preparing the entire 20 doses at the same time would not be appropriate due to the relatively short shelf life of many IV medications. IV medications often have limited stability and can degrade over time, which can affect their effectiveness and safety. Therefore, it is recommended to prepare and administer each dose separately to ensure the medication remains potent and safe for the patient.

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• 19.

### It is recommended that chemotherapy drugs and some antibiotics be compounded in a vertical laminar-flow hood (biological safety cabinet), because

• A.

Horizontal laminar-flow hoods blow a mild current of air directly at the person, resulting in repeated contact with medications

• B.

There are too many ingredients

• C.

HEPA filter should always be aligned in front of the person

A. Horizontal laminar-flow hoods blow a mild current of air directly at the person, resulting in repeated contact with medications
Explanation
Chemotherapy drugs and some antibiotics should be compounded in a vertical laminar-flow hood (biological safety cabinet) because horizontal laminar-flow hoods blow a mild current of air directly at the person, resulting in repeated contact with medications. This repeated contact can increase the risk of exposure to the drugs, which can be harmful to the person compounding the medications. Vertical laminar-flow hoods, on the other hand, direct the airflow away from the person, reducing the chances of exposure and ensuring a safer working environment.

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• 20.

### Low-risk CSPs are compounded in a ISO Class 5 environment, such as a laminar air flow hood.   Example of a low-risk CSP is:

• A.

A 12-hour or less beyond-use-date

• B.

TPN prepared from 4.5% amino acid solution and 22% dextrose, with four electrolytes, multiple vitamins, trace elements, insulin, and ranitidine

• C.

Rx for a high-potency morphine solution that can only be made by using non-sterile morphine powder