Practice Exam Vi
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Standards of Conduct, Special Populations, The Surgical Patient Review Questions
- 1.Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care practice?
- A.
Laws
- B.
Standards
- C.
Guidelines
- D.
All of the above
- 2.An intentional act intended to make another person fearful is called____.
- A.
A threat
- B.
Battery
- C.
Accountability
- D.
assault
- 3.Accountability is defined as a(n) ____.
- A.
Disclosure
- B.
Obligation
- C.
threat
- D.
Evaluation
- 4.Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____.
- A.
an omission
- B.
Perjury
- C.
Tort
- D.
Larceny
- 5.Whose responsibility is it to identify the surgical patient?
- A.
transportation personnel
- B.
Holding area nurse
- C.
Anesthesia provider
- D.
All of the above
- 6.Who is responsible for checking diagnostic tests such as X-rays and CT scans to confirm the proper area or side before an incision is made?
- A.
Circulator
- B.
Surgeon
- C.
Anesthesia provider
- D.
Radiologist
- 7.What item does not need to be counted before beginning an exploratory laparotomy?
- A.
lap sponges
- B.
Suction
- C.
Kitners
- D.
instruments
- 8.When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with ____.
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Sterile saline
- C.
Glutaraldehyde
- D.
Sterile water
- 9.What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?
- A.
Grounded properly
- B.
Turned off prior to use
- C.
Tested frequently
- D.
both A and C
- 10.Liability for improper use of equipment in the operating room lies with the ____.
- A.
Operating room supervisor
- B.
circulating nurse
- C.
Surgical technologist
- D.
Individual using the item
- 11.What should take place immediately after the patient is moved from the stretcher to the operating room table?
- A.
Raise side rails
- B.
lock the table down
- C.
Apply the safety strap
- D.
Adjust IV pole
- 12.Injury due to improper positioning can result in ALL members being sued for ____.
- A.
libel
- B.
Negligence
- C.
Indecision
- D.
Abandonment
- 13.Who is responsible for personally positioning the patient for a surgical procedure?
- A.
Anesthesiologist
- B.
Surgeon
- C.
Circulator
- D.
STSR
- 14.Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in ____.
- A.
Another surgical procedure
- B.
improper specimen preparation
- C.
Improper specimen analysis
- D.
All of the above
- 15.The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is:
- A.
Chemical indicator strips
- B.
Biological indicator
- C.
Mechanical indicators
- D.
Bowie-Dick test
- 16.Whose responsibility is it to remove a patient’s personal items in the operating room?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
circulator
- C.
Charge nurse
- D.
transportation personnel
- 17.Surgical technologists are negligent if they exceed their scope of practice that is defined by their ____.
- A.
Education
- B.
Experience
- C.
Policies and procedures
- D.
all of the above
- 18.____ is a term that refers to permission being given for an action.
- A.
Consent
- B.
involuntary
- C.
Acceptance
- D.
voluntary
- 19.____ is truly the best medicine when taking care of the surgical patient.
- A.
Vigilance
- B.
prevention
- C.
Responsibility
- D.
Safety
- 20.A properly written, informed consent should contain which of the following?
- A.
STSR signature
- B.
Name of the charge nurse
- C.
Time surgery began
- D.
Patient's legal signature
- 21.Implied consent may apply when ____.
- A.
consulting physicians agree
- B.
The patient is conscious
- C.
Conditions are discovered during surgery
- D.
Patient is emancipated minor
- 22.Informed consent may be given by any of the following under specific circumstances EXCEPT:
- A.
Parent or legal guardian of a minor
- B.
an incompetent adult
- C.
Temporary guardian
- D.
The courts
- 23.Which of the following cannot be an informed consent witness?
- A.
Non-operating surgeon
- B.
Circulator
- C.
Registered nurse
- D.
Other hospital employee
- 24.In the health care field, the term ____ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record.
- A.
Register
- B.
Remodeling
- C.
Documenting
- D.
Diagram
- 25.The medical record of a surgical patient will typically include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Identification of the patient
- B.
Possible follow-up treatment plan
- C.
Name of each member of the surgical team
- D.
family members’ names
- 26.What is used to report an unusual event that has occurred and may have legal ramifications for the staff or the patient?
- A.
Summary of action report
- B.
incident report
- C.
Negligence report
- D.
history of events report
- 27.Ethics is an attempt to define right and wrong based upon ____.
- A.
Beliefs
- B.
Common law
- C.
Consequences
- D.
Biological data
- 28.Bioethical principles ____.
- A.
Differ from traditional medical ethics
- B.
Maximize total human benefit
- C.
Are a utilitarian concept
- D.
All of the above
- 29.The “Patient Bill of Rights” establishes the patient as ____.
- A.
Dependent on health care providers
- B.
Consumer of goods
- C.
Secondary decision maker in care
- D.
Having limited health care rights
- 30.Many professional codes have been incorporated into law and have some effect on judgments about professional conduct for litigation. Which of the following is not a professional code?
- A.
Principles of Medical Ethics
- B.
AST Code of Ethics
- C.
AORN Standards
- D.
International Code of Nursing Ethics
- 31.If a surgical technologist places the surgical patient’s well-being above all other factors, the surgical technologist is said to have a positive ____.
- A.
Ethical sense
- B.
Surgical conscience
- C.
Moral judgment
- D.
Set of values
- 32.Knowledge and skills required for the profession in order to provide effective and reliable services is called ____.
- A.
Competencies
- B.
legal requirement
- C.
Policy
- D.
Scope of practice
- 33.To a very large extent, surgical technology and surgical assistant scope of practice is determined by the delegatory decisions made by the ____.
- A.
Supervising surgeon
- B.
Circulating nurse
- C.
medical staff director
- D.
Hospital CEO
- 34.Competencies are general descriptions of the ____ needed to perform a role in the organization and are described in terms that allow for measurement.
- A.
procedures
- B.
Requirements
- C.
Abilities
- D.
Educational level
- 35.Which standard does the surgical technologist use as a guide in the establishment of entry-level knowledge and skills?
- A.
AST code of ethics
- B.
Program accreditation standards
- C.
Core Curriculum for Surgical Technologists
- D.
Continuing education guidelines
- 36.Which of the following is not a type of credentialing?
- A.
Registration
- B.
licensure
- C.
Certification
- D.
Diploma
- 37.Which of the following can generally improve patient outcomes?
- A.
Simple solutions
- B.
error reducing technologies
- C.
Specifically engineered safety devices
- D.
all of the above
- 38.Most surgical technology programs are accredited through ____.
- A.
OSHA
- B.
LCC-ST
- C.
CAAHEP
- D.
DOE
- 39.Who is responsible for ensuring accredited surgical technology programs are engaged in an ongoing quest for quality?
- A.
ARC-ST
- B.
LCC-ST
- C.
CAAHEP
- D.
AST
- 40.____ is an integrated system developed by hospitals for the prevention and control of areas of potential liability.
- A.
Risk management
- B.
Policies and procedures
- C.
Hazard policy
- D.
Continuous quality improvement
- 41.Given the focused and technical tasks of the operating room, the team must struggle against the tendency to ____.
- A.
work together
- B.
share the workload
- C.
Lose sight of the patient as a total person
- D.
understand legal terminology
- 42.The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
- A.
social
- B.
Psychological
- C.
physical
- D.
Physiological
- 43.A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?
- A.
trauma
- B.
Genetic malformation
- C.
Nonmalignant neoplasm
- D.
metabolic disease
- 44.Which of the following does NOT belong to the category of malignant neoplasm?
- A.
Glioblastoma
- B.
Colon cancer
- C.
Breast cancer
- D.
Endometriosis
- 45.Maslow’s hierarchy is important because it establishes a hierarchy of ____.
- A.
Philosophical truths
- B.
Surgical intervention
- C.
Religious beliefs
- D.
needs
- 46.According to Maslow’s hierarchy, which are the most basic needs?
- A.
physiological
- B.
spiritual
- C.
Financial
- D.
social
- 47.The marker for the beginning of a developmental change is/are ____..
- A.
Changes in social interaction and feedback
- B.
Significant observable changes in the human body
- C.
asking, “Who am I?”
- D.
methods of communication
- 48.Forming simple concepts of social and physical reality is a life task for what ages?
- A.
0–2
- B.
2–6
- C.
6–12
- D.
13–18
- 49.If a patient asks what you do, you should ____.
- A.
Explain in simple factual language
- B.
explain in detail
- C.
Ask why they ask
- D.
Ignore question since they will not understand
- 50.Which of the following considerations may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?
- A.
Patient’s skin condition
- B.
Informed consent
- C.
Environmental safety
- D.
Anesthetic agent
- 51.When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ____.
- A.
the patient’s need to do things independently
- B.
An overly modest attitude
- C.
The need for speed
- D.
loss of mobility in joints
- 52.Which is a common physiological factor in the elderly?
- A.
Increased cardiac output
- B.
increased heart rate
- C.
Decreased coronary artery blood flow
- D.
Increased coronary artery blood flow
- 53.If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for which response?
- A.
No variants in response
- B.
Paradoxical responses to some drugs
- C.
increased crying
- D.
Decreased consciousness
- 54.Which of the following cannot be performed by the child of less than 6 months of age?
- A.
Shiver
- B.
Cry loudly
- C.
Urinate
- D.
Vomit
- 55.At what age does a child’s pulse and respiration rates reach adult norms?
- A.
1 year
- B.
adolescence
- C.
6 years
- D.
10 years
- 56.Omission or commission of an act that is related to normal patient care is the most common cause of a charge of ____.
- A.
Negligence
- B.
Abandonment
- C.
Battery
- D.
iatrogenic injury
- 57.A legal right granted by a government agency in compliance with a statute that authorizes and oversees the activities of a profession is called ____.
- A.
certification
- B.
Licensure
- C.
Accreditation
- D.
Registration
- 58.Which could be used to produce professional standards of conduct?
- A.
State law
- B.
professional membership association
- C.
Criminal law
- D.
tort
- 59.Which is a description of conduct that is expected of an individual or professional in a given circumstance?
- A.
Standard of practice
- B.
Statutory law
- C.
Tort
- D.
Standard of care
- 60.Special populations have unique ____ and ____ needs.
- A.
Physical, psychological
- B.
Physical, social
- C.
Psychological, psychosocial
- D.
Social, psychological
- 61.A patient is considered a pediatric patient if he or she is between the age of ____ and ____.
- A.
2 and 12
- B.
birth and 10
- C.
Birth and 12
- D.
2 and 13
- 62.The term neonate applies to the pediatric patient that is between the age of ____ and ____.
- A.
Birth and 14 days
- B.
Birth and 28 days
- C.
24 hours and 28 days
- D.
6 hours and 14 days
- 63.A child less than 6 months of age cannot shiver; therefore they are at risk for ____.
- A.
hypothermia
- B.
Hypertension
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Cyanosis
- 64.In the normal child, the testes will descend by the age of ____.
- A.
1 year
- B.
3 months
- C.
6 weeks
- D.
6 days
- 65.It is imperative that caregivers should deal with pediatric patients ____.
- A.
quickly
- B.
Cautiously
- C.
Truthfully
- D.
Indifferently
- 66.Who should stand nearby to assist the anesthesia provider during induction?
- A.
nurse’s aide
- B.
Surgeon
- C.
Circulating surgical technologist
- D.
STSR
- 67.Which of the following should the circulating surgical technologist perform to assist the anesthesia provider during induction of a pediatric patient?
- A.
Hold child in lap
- B.
Help control child’s movements
- C.
Provide cricoid pressure
- D.
Administer anesthetic
- 68.The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Temperature
- B.
Urine output
- C.
Oxygenation
- D.
Turgor
- 69.In comparison with adults, pediatric patients have little subcutaneous fat and therefore ____.
- A.
Less protection of organs
- B.
Have poor thermal insulation
- C.
Need to have bony prominences padded
- D.
need more IV fluids
- 70.What is the MOST effective way to keep infants’ body temperature at an acceptable level?
- A.
Wrap and cover extremities
- B.
Warm water bottles
- C.
Overhead radiant heater
- D.
warm lap sponges
- 71.Why are neonates and infants not usually catheterized?
- A.
Procedures do not last long enough
- B.
High risk of trauma to the urethra
- C.
Nonmeasurable amount of urine produced
- D.
bladder not fully developed
- 72.Which of the following veins is least used for central venous catheter placement in the pediatric patient?
- A.
Subclavian
- B.
External jugular
- C.
Internal jugular
- D.
Saphenous
- 73.What is the standard for intraoperative monitoring of oxygenation levels for all age groups of surgical patients?
- A.
Arterial blood gases
- B.
capillary refill
- C.
Capnography
- D.
Central venous pressure
- 74.What are the two common types of shock seen in all age groups?
- A.
Hypovolemic, septic
- B.
Acidotic, septic
- C.
Clinical, surgical
- D.
Acidotic, hypovolemic
- 75.Septic shock is caused by ____.
- A.
Esophageal varices
- B.
Respiratory failure
- C.
Gram-negative bacteria
- D.
Hemorrhage
- 76.Hypovolemic shock in neonates results in____.
- A.
Decreased venous return
- B.
upper respiratory infections
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Cyanosis
- 77.What is the most common cause of hypovolemic shock in infants?
- A.
low body temperature
- B.
High blood pressure
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
bradycardia
- 78.A major concern in the OR is insensible water loss. Why does this loss occur?
- A.
Overhead radiant heaters
- B.
Extremities are covered
- C.
Humidification of inspired gases
- D.
Temperature of OR
- 79.What is the initial sign of a postoperative infection?
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
Decreased urine output
- C.
Fever
- D.
Hypotension
- 80.Which antibiotic should not be administered to children because it causes staining and hypoplasia of the enamel of developing teeth?
- A.
Tetracycline
- B.
Bactrim
- C.
Septra
- D.
chloromycetin
- 81.What is the number one cause of death in children ages 1–15?
- A.
Accidents
- B.
medication errors
- C.
Surgical complications
- D.
Allergic reactions
- 82.The first priority in a pediatric patient is to ____.
- A.
Control hemorrhage
- B.
Stabilize broken bones
- C.
Ensure patent airway
- D.
Insert IV line
- 83.If a pediatric patient has a pneumothorax, there is an accumulation of air in the ____.
- A.
Pleural cavity
- B.
Esophagus
- C.
Bronchial tree
- D.
Abdomen
- 84.Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent ____.
- A.
Brachial plexus injury
- B.
Infiltration
- C.
Distension
- D.
Severe hypovolemia
- 85.During birth, the most common bone fracture is of the ____.
- A.
Radius
- B.
Fibula
- C.
clavicle
- D.
skull
- 86.When a patient's body weight exceeds ____ greater than ideal body weight they are considered to be obese.
- A.
50 pounds
- B.
75 pounds
- C.
100 pounds
- D.
200 pounds
- 87.Postoperative recovery time for the obese patient is increased because ____.
- A.
Metabolism is slower
- B.
Adipose tissue retains anesthetic agents longer
- C.
Lower expiratory levels
- D.
Low body temperature
- 88.Obese patients are subject to increased postoperative ____.
- A.
wound infections
- B.
Pain
- C.
Heart attack
- D.
COPD
- 89.Obese patients are high-risk for coronary artery disease because of ____.
- A.
Anesthesia complications
- B.
Hypertension
- C.
Ventricular failure
- D.
Sleep apnea
- 90.Which is not a common postoperative complication of gastric bypass or gastroplasty surgery?
- A.
Suture rejection
- B.
Abdominal catastrophes
- C.
Internal hernia
- D.
Acute gastric distension
- 91.During abdominal procedures on obese patients, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?
- A.
Pancreatectomy
- B.
Whipple
- C.
Cholecystectomy
- D.
Splenectomy
- 92.Anesthesia affects the normal ____ and physiological process of insulin.
- A.
metabolic
- B.
Caloric intake
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Serum
- 93.Immediate operative intervention is performed on the pregnant patient for the following emergency procedures EXCEPT:
- A.
Appendicitis
- B.
Competent cervical os
- C.
traumatic injury
- D.
ectopic pregnancy
- 94.In the pregnant patient, what trimester is the ideal time to perform abdominal surgery?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
third
- D.
Not safe at anytime
- 95.What situation would present difficulties in intubation of an AIDS patient?
- A.
dehydration
- B.
Hypovolemia
- C.
Kaposi's sarcoma lesions
- D.
Pneumonia
- 96.The term golden hour refers to____.
- A.
terminally ill patients’ last hours
- B.
giving care to a trauma victim within an hour
- C.
Postoperative care
- D.
Controlling hemorrhage
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