Practice Exam Vi

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Standards of Conduct, Special Populations, The Surgical Patient Review Questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care practice?
    • A. 

      Laws

    • B. 

      Standards

    • C. 

      Guidelines

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    An intentional act intended to make another person fearful is called____. 
    • A. 

      A threat

    • B. 

      Battery

    • C. 

      Accountability

    • D. 

      assault

  • 3. 
    Accountability is defined as a(n) ____.
    • A. 

      Disclosure

    • B. 

      Obligation

    • C. 

      threat

    • D. 

      Evaluation

  • 4. 
    Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____.
    • A. 

      an omission

    • B. 

      Perjury

    • C. 

      Tort

    • D. 

      Larceny

  • 5. 
    Whose responsibility is it to identify the surgical patient?
    • A. 

      transportation personnel

    • B. 

      Holding area nurse

    • C. 

      Anesthesia provider

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    Who is responsible for checking diagnostic tests such as X-rays and CT scans to confirm the proper area or side before an incision is made?
    • A. 

      Circulator

    • B. 

      Surgeon

    • C. 

      Anesthesia provider

    • D. 

      Radiologist

  • 7. 
    What item does not need to be counted before beginning an exploratory laparotomy?
    • A. 

      lap sponges

    • B. 

      Suction

    • C. 

      Kitners

    • D. 

      instruments

  • 8. 
    When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with ____.
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Sterile saline

    • C. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • D. 

      Sterile water

  • 9. 
    What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?
    • A. 

      Grounded properly

    • B. 

      Turned off prior to use

    • C. 

      Tested frequently

    • D. 

      both A and C

  • 10. 
    Liability for improper use of equipment in the operating room lies with the ____.
    • A. 

      Operating room supervisor

    • B. 

      circulating nurse

    • C. 

      Surgical technologist

    • D. 

      Individual using the item

  • 11. 
    What should take place immediately after the patient is moved from the stretcher to the operating room table?
    • A. 

      Raise side rails

    • B. 

      lock the table down

    • C. 

      Apply the safety strap

    • D. 

      Adjust IV pole

  • 12. 
    Injury due to improper positioning can result in ALL members being sued for ____.
    • A. 

      libel

    • B. 

      Negligence

    • C. 

      Indecision

    • D. 

      Abandonment

  • 13. 
    Who is responsible for personally positioning the patient for a surgical procedure? 
    • A. 

      Anesthesiologist

    • B. 

      Surgeon

    • C. 

      Circulator

    • D. 

      STSR

  • 14. 
    Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in ____.
    • A. 

      Another surgical procedure

    • B. 

      improper specimen preparation

    • C. 

      Improper specimen analysis

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 15. 
    The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is:
    • A. 

      Chemical indicator strips

    • B. 

      Biological indicator

    • C. 

      Mechanical indicators

    • D. 

      Bowie-Dick test

  • 16. 
    Whose responsibility is it to remove a patient’s personal items in the operating room?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      circulator

    • C. 

      Charge nurse

    • D. 

      transportation personnel

  • 17. 
    Surgical technologists are negligent if they exceed their scope of practice that is defined by their ____. 
    • A. 

      Education

    • B. 

      Experience

    • C. 

      Policies and procedures

    • D. 

      all of the above

  • 18. 
        ____ is a term that refers to permission being given for an action.
    • A. 

      Consent

    • B. 

      involuntary

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      voluntary

  • 19. 
        ____ is truly the best medicine when taking care of  the surgical patient.
    • A. 

      Vigilance

    • B. 

      prevention

    • C. 

      Responsibility

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 20. 
    A properly written, informed consent should contain which of the following?
    • A. 

      STSR signature

    • B. 

      Name of the charge nurse

    • C. 

      Time surgery began

    • D. 

      Patient's legal signature

  • 21. 
    Implied consent may apply when ____.
    • A. 

      consulting physicians agree

    • B. 

      The patient is conscious

    • C. 

      Conditions are discovered during surgery

    • D. 

      Patient is emancipated minor

  • 22. 
    Informed consent may be given by any of  the following under specific circumstances EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Parent or legal guardian of a minor

    • B. 

      an incompetent adult

    • C. 

      Temporary guardian

    • D. 

      The courts

  • 23. 
    Which of the following cannot be an informed consent witness?
    • A. 

      Non-operating surgeon

    • B. 

      Circulator

    • C. 

      Registered nurse

    • D. 

      Other hospital employee

  • 24. 
    In the health care field, the term ____ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record.
    • A. 

      Register

    • B. 

      Remodeling

    • C. 

      Documenting

    • D. 

      Diagram

  • 25. 
    The medical record of a surgical patient will typically include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Identification of the patient

    • B. 

      Possible follow-up treatment plan

    • C. 

      Name of each member of the surgical team

    • D. 

      family members’ names

  • 26. 
    What is used to report an unusual event that has occurred and may have legal ramifications for the staff or the patient?
    • A. 

      Summary of action report

    • B. 

      incident report

    • C. 

      Negligence report

    • D. 

      history of events report

  • 27. 
    Ethics is an attempt to define right and wrong based upon ____.
    • A. 

      Beliefs

    • B. 

      Common law

    • C. 

      Consequences

    • D. 

      Biological data

  • 28. 
    Bioethical principles ____. 
    • A. 

      Differ from traditional medical ethics

    • B. 

      Maximize total human benefit

    • C. 

      Are a utilitarian concept

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    The “Patient Bill of Rights” establishes the patient as ____.
    • A. 

      Dependent on health care providers

    • B. 

      Consumer of goods

    • C. 

      Secondary decision maker in care

    • D. 

      Having limited health care rights

  • 30. 
    Many professional codes have been incorporated into law and have some effect on judgments about professional conduct for litigation. Which of the following is not a professional code?
    • A. 

      Principles of Medical Ethics

    • B. 

      AST Code of Ethics

    • C. 

      AORN Standards

    • D. 

      International Code of Nursing Ethics

  • 31. 
    If a surgical technologist places the surgical patient’s well-being above all other factors, the surgical technologist is said to have a positive ____.
    • A. 

      Ethical sense

    • B. 

      Surgical conscience

    • C. 

      Moral judgment

    • D. 

      Set of values

  • 32. 
    Knowledge and skills required for the profession in order to provide effective and reliable services is called ____.
    • A. 

      Competencies

    • B. 

      legal requirement

    • C. 

      Policy

    • D. 

      Scope of practice

  • 33. 
    To a very large extent, surgical technology and surgical assistant scope of practice  is determined by the delegatory  decisions made by the ____.
    • A. 

      Supervising surgeon

    • B. 

      Circulating nurse

    • C. 

      medical staff director

    • D. 

      Hospital CEO

  • 34. 
    Competencies are general descriptions of the ____ needed to perform a role in the organization and are described in terms that allow for measurement.
    • A. 

      procedures

    • B. 

      Requirements

    • C. 

      Abilities

    • D. 

      Educational level

  • 35. 
    Which standard does the surgical technologist use as a guide in the establishment of entry-level knowledge and skills?  
    • A. 

      AST code of ethics

    • B. 

      Program accreditation standards

    • C. 

      Core Curriculum for Surgical Technologists

    • D. 

      Continuing education guidelines

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is not a type of credentialing?
    • A. 

      Registration

    • B. 

      licensure

    • C. 

      Certification

    • D. 

      Diploma

  • 37. 
    Which of the following can generally improve patient outcomes?
    • A. 

      Simple solutions

    • B. 

      error reducing technologies

    • C. 

      Specifically engineered safety devices

    • D. 

      all of the above

  • 38. 
    Most surgical technology programs are accredited through ____.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      LCC-ST

    • C. 

      CAAHEP

    • D. 

      DOE

  • 39. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring accredited surgical technology programs are engaged in an ongoing quest for quality?
    • A. 

      ARC-ST

    • B. 

      LCC-ST

    • C. 

      CAAHEP

    • D. 

      AST

  • 40. 
    ____ is an integrated system developed by hospitals for the prevention and control of areas of potential liability.
    • A. 

      Risk management

    • B. 

      Policies and procedures

    • C. 

      Hazard policy

    • D. 

      Continuous quality improvement

  • 41. 
    Given the focused and technical tasks of the operating room, the team must struggle against the tendency to ____.
    • A. 

      work together

    • B. 

      share the workload

    • C. 

      Lose sight of the patient as a total person

    • D. 

      understand legal terminology

  • 42. 
    The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being? 
    • A. 

      social

    • B. 

      Psychological

    • C. 

      physical

    • D. 

      Physiological

  • 43. 
    A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?
    • A. 

      trauma

    • B. 

      Genetic malformation

    • C. 

      Nonmalignant neoplasm

    • D. 

      metabolic disease

  • 44. 
    Which of the following does NOT belong to the category of malignant neoplasm?
    • A. 

      Glioblastoma

    • B. 

      Colon cancer

    • C. 

      Breast cancer

    • D. 

      Endometriosis

  • 45. 
    Maslow’s hierarchy is important because it establishes a hierarchy of ____.
    • A. 

      Philosophical truths

    • B. 

      Surgical intervention

    • C. 

      Religious beliefs

    • D. 

      needs

  • 46. 
    According to Maslow’s hierarchy, which are the most basic needs?
    • A. 

      physiological

    • B. 

      spiritual

    • C. 

      Financial

    • D. 

      social

  • 47. 
    The marker for the beginning of a developmental change is/are ____..  
    • A. 

      Changes in social interaction and feedback

    • B. 

      Significant observable changes in the human body

    • C. 

      asking, “Who am I?”

    • D. 

      methods of communication

  • 48. 
    Forming simple concepts of social and physical reality is a life task for what ages?
    • A. 

      0–2

    • B. 

      2–6

    • C. 

      6–12

    • D. 

      13–18

  • 49. 
    If a patient asks what you do, you should ____.
    • A. 

      Explain in simple factual language

    • B. 

      explain in detail

    • C. 

      Ask why they ask

    • D. 

      Ignore question since they will not understand

  • 50. 
    Which of the following considerations may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?
    • A. 

      Patient’s skin condition

    • B. 

      Informed consent

    • C. 

      Environmental safety

    • D. 

      Anesthetic agent

  • 51. 
    When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ____.
    • A. 

      the patient’s need to do things independently

    • B. 

      An overly modest attitude

    • C. 

      The need for speed

    • D. 

      loss of mobility in joints

  • 52. 
    Which is a common physiological factor in the elderly?
    • A. 

      Increased cardiac output

    • B. 

      increased heart rate

    • C. 

      Decreased coronary artery blood flow

    • D. 

      Increased coronary artery blood flow

  • 53. 
    If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for which response?
    • A. 

      No variants in response

    • B. 

      Paradoxical responses to some drugs

    • C. 

      increased crying

    • D. 

      Decreased consciousness

  • 54. 
    Which of the following cannot be performed by the child of less than 6 months of age? 
    • A. 

      Shiver

    • B. 

      Cry loudly

    • C. 

      Urinate

    • D. 

      Vomit

  • 55. 
    At what age does a child’s pulse and respiration rates reach adult norms? 
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      adolescence

    • C. 

      6 years

    • D. 

      10 years

  • 56. 
    Omission or commission of an act that is related to normal patient care is the most common cause of a charge of ____.
    • A. 

      Negligence

    • B. 

      Abandonment

    • C. 

      Battery

    • D. 

      iatrogenic injury

  • 57. 
    A legal right granted by a government agency in compliance with a statute that authorizes and oversees the activities of a profession is called ____.
    • A. 

      certification

    • B. 

      Licensure

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Registration

  • 58. 
    Which could be used to produce professional standards of conduct?
    • A. 

      State law

    • B. 

      professional membership association

    • C. 

      Criminal law

    • D. 

      tort

  • 59. 
    Which is a description of conduct that is expected of an individual or professional in a given circumstance?
    • A. 

      Standard of practice

    • B. 

      Statutory law

    • C. 

      Tort

    • D. 

      Standard of care

  • 60. 
    Special populations have unique ____ and ____ needs.
    • A. 

      Physical, psychological

    • B. 

      Physical, social

    • C. 

      Psychological, psychosocial

    • D. 

      Social, psychological

  • 61. 
    A patient is considered a pediatric patient if he or she is between the age of ____ and ____.
    • A. 

      2 and 12

    • B. 

      birth and 10

    • C. 

      Birth and 12

    • D. 

      2 and 13

  • 62. 
        The term neonate applies to the pediatric patient that is between the age of ____ and ____.
    • A. 

      Birth and 14 days

    • B. 

      Birth and 28 days

    • C. 

      24 hours and 28 days

    • D. 

      6 hours and 14 days

  • 63. 
    A child less than 6 months of age cannot shiver; therefore they are at risk for ____.
    • A. 

      hypothermia

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Tachycardia

    • D. 

      Cyanosis

  • 64. 
    In the normal child, the testes will descend by the age of ____.
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      3 months

    • C. 

      6 weeks

    • D. 

      6 days

  • 65. 
    It is imperative that caregivers should deal with pediatric patients ____.
    • A. 

      quickly

    • B. 

      Cautiously

    • C. 

      Truthfully

    • D. 

      Indifferently

  • 66. 
    Who should stand nearby to assist the anesthesia provider during induction?
    • A. 

      nurse’s aide

    • B. 

      Surgeon

    • C. 

      Circulating surgical technologist

    • D. 

      STSR

  • 67. 
    Which of the following should the circulating surgical technologist perform to assist the anesthesia provider during induction of a pediatric patient?
    • A. 

      Hold child in lap

    • B. 

      Help control child’s movements

    • C. 

      Provide cricoid pressure

    • D. 

      Administer anesthetic

  • 68. 
    The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Urine output

    • C. 

      Oxygenation

    • D. 

      Turgor

  • 69. 
    In comparison with adults, pediatric patients have little subcutaneous fat and therefore ____. 
    • A. 

      Less protection of organs

    • B. 

      Have poor thermal insulation

    • C. 

      Need to have bony prominences padded

    • D. 

      need more IV fluids

  • 70. 
    What is the MOST effective way to keep infants’ body temperature at an acceptable level?
    • A. 

      Wrap and cover extremities

    • B. 

      Warm water bottles

    • C. 

      Overhead radiant heater

    • D. 

      warm lap sponges

  • 71. 
    Why are neonates and infants not usually catheterized?
    • A. 

      Procedures do not last long enough

    • B. 

      High risk of trauma to the urethra

    • C. 

      Nonmeasurable amount of urine produced

    • D. 

      bladder not fully developed

  • 72. 
    Which of the following veins is least used for central venous catheter placement in the pediatric patient?
    • A. 

      Subclavian

    • B. 

      External jugular

    • C. 

      Internal jugular

    • D. 

      Saphenous

  • 73. 
    What is the standard for intraoperative monitoring of oxygenation levels for all age groups of surgical patients?
    • A. 

      Arterial blood gases

    • B. 

      capillary refill

    • C. 

      Capnography

    • D. 

      Central venous pressure

  • 74. 
    What are the two common types of shock seen in all age groups? 
    • A. 

      Hypovolemic, septic

    • B. 

      Acidotic, septic

    • C. 

      Clinical, surgical

    • D. 

      Acidotic, hypovolemic

  • 75. 
    Septic shock is caused by ____.
    • A. 

      Esophageal varices

    • B. 

      Respiratory failure

    • C. 

      Gram-negative bacteria

    • D. 

      Hemorrhage

  • 76. 
    Hypovolemic shock in neonates results in____.
    • A. 

      Decreased venous return

    • B. 

      upper respiratory infections

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Cyanosis

  • 77. 
    What is the most common cause of hypovolemic shock in infants?
    • A. 

      low body temperature

    • B. 

      High blood pressure

    • C. 

      Dehydration

    • D. 

      bradycardia

  • 78. 
    A major concern in the OR is insensible water loss.  Why does this loss occur?
    • A. 

      Overhead radiant heaters

    • B. 

      Extremities are covered

    • C. 

      Humidification of inspired gases

    • D. 

      Temperature of OR

  • 79. 
    What is the initial sign of a postoperative infection?
    • A. 

      Dehydration

    • B. 

      Decreased urine output

    • C. 

      Fever

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 80. 
    Which antibiotic should not be administered to children because it causes staining and hypoplasia of the enamel of developing teeth?
    • A. 

      Tetracycline

    • B. 

      Bactrim

    • C. 

      Septra

    • D. 

      chloromycetin

  • 81. 
    What is the number one cause of death in children ages 1–15?
    • A. 

      Accidents

    • B. 

      medication errors

    • C. 

      Surgical complications

    • D. 

      Allergic reactions

  • 82. 
    The first priority in a pediatric patient is to ____. 
    • A. 

      Control hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Stabilize broken bones

    • C. 

      Ensure patent airway

    • D. 

      Insert IV line

  • 83. 
    If a pediatric patient has a pneumothorax, there is an accumulation of air in the ____.
    • A. 

      Pleural cavity

    • B. 

      Esophagus

    • C. 

      Bronchial tree

    • D. 

      Abdomen

  • 84. 
    Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent ____.
    • A. 

      Brachial plexus injury

    • B. 

      Infiltration

    • C. 

      Distension

    • D. 

      Severe hypovolemia

  • 85. 
    During birth, the most common bone fracture is of the ____.
    • A. 

      Radius

    • B. 

      Fibula

    • C. 

      clavicle

    • D. 

      skull

  • 86. 
    When a patient's body weight exceeds ____ greater than ideal body weight they are considered to be obese.
    • A. 

      50 pounds

    • B. 

      75 pounds

    • C. 

      100 pounds

    • D. 

      200 pounds

  • 87. 
    Postoperative recovery time for the obese patient is increased because ____.
    • A. 

      Metabolism is slower

    • B. 

      Adipose tissue retains anesthetic agents longer

    • C. 

      Lower expiratory levels

    • D. 

      Low body temperature

  • 88. 
    Obese patients are subject to increased postoperative ____.
    • A. 

      wound infections

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Heart attack

    • D. 

      COPD

  • 89. 
    Obese patients are high-risk for coronary artery disease because of ____.
    • A. 

      Anesthesia complications

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Ventricular failure

    • D. 

      Sleep apnea

  • 90. 
    Which is not a common postoperative complication of gastric bypass or gastroplasty surgery?
    • A. 

      Suture rejection

    • B. 

      Abdominal catastrophes

    • C. 

      Internal hernia

    • D. 

      Acute gastric distension

  • 91. 
    During abdominal procedures on obese patients, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?
    • A. 

      Pancreatectomy

    • B. 

      Whipple

    • C. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • D. 

      Splenectomy

  • 92. 
    Anesthesia affects the normal ____ and physiological process of insulin.
    • A. 

      metabolic

    • B. 

      Caloric intake

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Serum

  • 93. 
    Immediate operative intervention is performed on the pregnant patient for the following emergency procedures EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Appendicitis

    • B. 

      Competent cervical os

    • C. 

      traumatic injury

    • D. 

      ectopic pregnancy

  • 94. 
    In the pregnant patient, what trimester is the ideal time to perform abdominal surgery?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      third

    • D. 

      Not safe at anytime

  • 95. 
    What situation would present difficulties in intubation of an AIDS patient?
    • A. 

      dehydration

    • B. 

      Hypovolemia

    • C. 

      Kaposi's sarcoma lesions

    • D. 

      Pneumonia

  • 96. 
    The term golden hour refers to____. 
    • A. 

      terminally ill patients’ last hours

    • B. 

      giving care to a trauma victim within an hour

    • C. 

      Postoperative care

    • D. 

      Controlling hemorrhage