Evidence Based Practice Exams Prep Test

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Select all that apply to the use of Qualitative Research

    • A.

      To learn the terms or words in common use to write a survey questionnaire - How do upper extremity amputation patients describe their participation challenges?

    • B.

      To validate quantitative research of provide a different perspective on the same phenomena - A quantitative study indicates that a majority of stroke patients do not take their blood pressure medications regularly; Qualitative Study -> Why has there been poor compliance with blood pressure medication in stroke patients?

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. To learn the terms or words in common use to write a survey questionnaire - How do upper extremity amputation patients describe their participation challenges?
    B. To validate quantitative research of provide a different perspective on the same phenomena - A quantitative study indicates that a majority of stroke patients do not take their blood pressure medications regularly; Qualitative Study -> Why has there been poor compliance with blood pressure medication in stroke patients?
    Explanation
    Qualitative research can be used to learn the terms or words commonly used to write a survey questionnaire. It can also be used to gain a deeper understanding and provide a different perspective on the same phenomena as quantitative research. In the case of the quantitative study indicating poor compliance with blood pressure medication in stroke patients, a qualitative study can be conducted to explore the reasons behind this poor compliance.

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  • 2. 

    ________ represents a philosophical approach that directs the researcher to a type of questions and ideas about what is an answer Three aspects: - Ethnography - Phenomenology - Grounded Theory

    Correct Answer(s)
    Schools of Thought
    Explanation
    The term "Schools of Thought" refers to different philosophical approaches or perspectives that guide researchers in asking specific types of questions and generating ideas about what constitutes an answer. In this context, the three aspects mentioned - Ethnography, Phenomenology, and Grounded Theory - can be seen as examples of different schools of thought within the field of research. Each of these approaches has its own set of principles, methods, and assumptions that shape the researcher's perspective and guide their inquiry.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is a data collection method

    • A.

      Structured interviews

    • B.

      Semi-structured interviews

    • C.

      In-depth interviews

    • D.

      Focus groups

    • E.

      Observational methods

    • F.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    F. All the above
    Explanation
    All the options listed (structured interviews, semi-structured interviews, in-depth interviews, focus groups, and observational methods) are data collection methods commonly used in research. Structured interviews involve a predetermined set of questions, while semi-structured interviews allow for some flexibility in questioning. In-depth interviews involve open-ended questions to gather detailed information. Focus groups involve a group discussion on a specific topic. Observational methods involve directly observing and recording behaviors or events. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above" as all of these methods are used to collect data in research.

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  • 4. 

    All of the following are aspects of a Structured Interview EXCEPT

    • A.

      Set of structured questions

    • B.

      Questionnaire or by a trained interviewer

    • C.

      Overall loose structure

    • D.

      Contains closed questions that are limited in response choices that restrict the depth and variety of responses

    • E.

      Can be delivered to a large number of people over a relatively short time period at a reduced cost

    Correct Answer
    C. Overall loose structure
  • 5. 

    All the following are true regarding Semi-Structured Interviews EXCEPT

    • A.

      Overall loose structure

    • B.

      Questions function as an agenda for the interview

    • C.

      Very closed in questioning, that only allows for limited answers

    • D.

      Questions branch out to a more open type of questioning

    • E.

      Interviewees are allowed to offer more detailed responses

    Correct Answer
    C. Very closed in questioning, that only allows for limited answers
    Explanation
    Semi-structured interviews have an overall loose structure, where questions function as an agenda for the interview. They allow questions to branch out to a more open type of questioning, giving interviewees the opportunity to offer more detailed responses. However, the statement "Very closed in questioning, that only allows for limited answers" is not true for semi-structured interviews. In semi-structured interviews, there is a certain level of flexibility in questioning, allowing for more extensive and varied responses from the interviewees.

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  • 6. 

    All the following are true regarding In-Depth Interviews EXCEPT

    • A.

      No pre-set agenda

    • B.

      Strict structured agenda

    • C.

      Respondents allowed to lead the interview and to give their full responses

    • D.

      Ongoing questioning is based on the responses just obtained from the interviewee

    Correct Answer
    B. Strict structured agenda
    Explanation
    In-depth interviews are a qualitative research method where the interviewer engages in a detailed conversation with the respondent to gain in-depth insights. The given options describe different characteristics of in-depth interviews. The correct answer, "Strict structured agenda," is not true regarding in-depth interviews. In-depth interviews typically do not have a pre-set agenda and allow the respondents to lead the conversation and provide their full responses. The interviewer may ask follow-up questions based on the responses obtained, but the interview is not strictly structured with a predetermined agenda.

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  • 7. 

    Select all the following that are true pertaining to Focus Groups

    • A.

      Contains 8 to 12 people (subjects) who have been brought together to discuss a shared issue

    • B.

      Contains 1 to 2 facilitators that conduct the group

    • C.

      Facilitators provide a wide breadth of opinion on a subject matter in a relatively short space of time

    • D.

      Contains a large group dynamic

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Contains 8 to 12 people (subjects) who have been brought together to discuss a shared issue
    B. Contains 1 to 2 facilitators that conduct the group
    C. Facilitators provide a wide breadth of opinion on a subject matter in a relatively short space of time
    D. Contains a large group dynamic
    Explanation
    Focus groups typically consist of 8 to 12 individuals who are gathered to discuss a common issue. These groups are led by 1 to 2 facilitators who guide the discussion and ensure that everyone has an opportunity to share their opinions. The facilitators also play a role in providing a diverse range of perspectives on the subject matter, allowing for a broad range of opinions to be expressed in a relatively short amount of time. Additionally, focus groups are known for their large group dynamic, which can lead to lively discussions and the exploration of different viewpoints.

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  • 8. 

    All of the following are true regarding Observational Methods 

    • A.

      Researchers assess human behavior and interactions first-hand, as well as the impact of these behaviors have on the subject matter

    • B.

      Presence of an observer can alter people's behavior

    • C.

      Observer alters the human behavior natural environment

    • D.

      Non of the above are true

    Correct Answer
    C. Observer alters the human behavior natural environment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Observer alters the human behavior natural environment." This statement is true because the presence of an observer can influence the behavior of the individuals being observed. When people are aware that they are being observed, they may modify their behavior to align with social norms or expectations, leading to a change in their natural environment. This alteration in behavior can potentially impact the accuracy and validity of the observations made by the researcher.

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  • 9. 

    Select all the following that are TRUE regarding to Sample Selection

    • A.

      Different from quantitative methods

    • B.

      Subjects strategically selected based on their potential for providing information

    • C.

      Emphasis is on gathering as much information as possible

    • D.

      Also referred to as Theoretical Sampling

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Different from quantitative methods
    B. Subjects strategically selected based on their potential for providing information
    C. Emphasis is on gathering as much information as possible
    D. Also referred to as Theoretical Sampling
    Explanation
    Sample selection in qualitative research is different from quantitative methods because it focuses on gathering as much information as possible rather than aiming for statistical representativeness. Subjects are strategically selected based on their potential for providing rich and meaningful information, rather than randomly sampling from a larger population. The term "theoretical sampling" is often used to describe this approach, highlighting the emphasis on theoretical concepts and theoretical saturation in qualitative research.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following are aspects of Theoretical Samples EXCEPT

    • A.

      Convenience

    • B.

      Quota

    • C.

      Snowball

    • D.

      Typical case

    • E.

      Maximum variation

    • F.

      Sample size

    Correct Answer
    F. Sample size
    Explanation
    The given question asks for an aspect of Theoretical Samples that is not included in the options provided. Sample size is not an aspect of Theoretical Samples, as it refers to the number of individuals or units included in a sample, which is a consideration in sampling methods but not specific to Theoretical Samples.

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  • 11. 

    Sample size is determined by saturation

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Saturation refers to the point at which new information or data no longer provides additional insights or knowledge. In research, when saturation is reached, it means that collecting more data or increasing the sample size will not lead to any new findings or understanding. Therefore, the statement "Sample size is determined by saturation" is true because the sample size should be determined based on when saturation is achieved, indicating that sufficient data has been collected to answer the research question adequately.

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  • 12. 

    ________ in a qualitative study occurs when it can be reasonably concluded that the recruitment of additional subjects no longer provide additional information or insights to the level of understanding achieved with the subject area

    Correct Answer
    Saturation
    Explanation
    Saturation in a qualitative study occurs when it can be reasonably concluded that the recruitment of additional subjects no longer provides additional information or insights to the level of understanding achieved with the subject area. This means that the researcher has gathered enough data and reached a point where new participants will not contribute any new or meaningful information. Saturation indicates that the researcher has achieved a comprehensive understanding of the topic and can confidently analyze and interpret the data collected.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is part of the criteria for judging trustworthiness?

    • A.

      Credibility - internal validity

    • B.

      Transferability - external validity

    • C.

      Dependability - reliability

    • D.

      Conformability - objectivity

    • E.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the above." All of the mentioned criteria - credibility, transferability, dependability, and conformability - are part of judging trustworthiness. Credibility refers to the internal validity of the information or research, while transferability relates to its external validity. Dependability focuses on the reliability of the findings, and conformability emphasizes objectivity. Considering all of these criteria is essential in determining the trustworthiness of the information or research.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is FALSE regarding Transferability (External Validity)?

    • A.

      Transferability = sample selection

    • B.

      Use of a panel of judges to select informants representative of the phenomenon under study

    • C.

      Comparing characteristics of informants in the study to information available in the literature

    • D.

      Accurate description must be provided of units of analysis, concepts generated, population characteristics, and setting

    • E.

      None of the above are false

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above are false
    Explanation
    The given answer states that none of the statements regarding transferability (external validity) are false. This means that all the statements provided in the question are true regarding transferability. The statements include using a panel of judges to select informants representative of the phenomenon under study, comparing characteristics of informants in the study to information available in the literature, and providing an accurate description of units of analysis, concepts generated, population characteristics, and setting. Therefore, the answer suggests that all of these practices are valid and contribute to ensuring transferability in research.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is correct regarding Dependability (Reliability)

    • A.

      Methods of data gathering, analysis, and interpretation must be described

    • B.

      Aspects are: Auditability, Stepwise replication, & Code-recode procedure

    • C.

      Dependability - Triangulation

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all of the statements mentioned in the options are correct regarding Dependability (Reliability). The methods of data gathering, analysis, and interpretation must be described, the aspects of auditability, stepwise replication, and code-recode procedure are important, and triangulation is a method used to enhance dependability.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following are true regarding Confirmability (Objectivity) EXCEPT?

    • A.

      Contains Auditability

    • B.

      External auditor can follow the natural history or progression of events in a project to understand how and why decisions were made

    • C.

      Also suggests that other researcher could arrive at comparable conclusions given the same data and research context

    • D.

      States that methods of data gathering, analysis, and interpretation must be described

    Correct Answer
    D. States that methods of data gathering, analysis, and interpretation must be described
    Explanation
    Confirmability (Objectivity) is a criterion in research that ensures the findings are based on the data collected and not influenced by the researcher's biases or preferences. It emphasizes the transparency and accountability of the research process. The given answer states that methods of data gathering, analysis, and interpretation do not need to be described, which is incorrect. In fact, Confirmability requires researchers to clearly describe and document their methods to allow for transparency and reproducibility of the study.

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  • 17. 

    Select the ones that pertains to a Data Analysis

    • A.

      Inductive process

    • B.

      Continuous process

    • C.

      Begins right from the first interview and continues throughout the research process

    • D.

      Systematic process

    • E.

      Researcher seeks to identify any major recurrent themes and subthemes to data

    • F.

      Audio taped interview are transcribed

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Inductive process
    B. Continuous process
    C. Begins right from the first interview and continues throughout the research process
    D. Systematic process
    E. Researcher seeks to identify any major recurrent themes and subthemes to data
    F. Audio taped interview are transcribed
    Explanation
    The given answer includes several aspects that pertain to data analysis. The inductive process suggests that the analysis is based on specific observations and patterns rather than preconceived theories. The continuous process implies that the analysis is ongoing and not limited to a specific phase. Beginning from the first interview and continuing throughout the research process ensures a comprehensive analysis. The systematic process indicates that the analysis follows a structured and organized approach. The researcher seeks to identify major recurrent themes and subthemes, which is a crucial aspect of data analysis. Finally, transcribing audio taped interviews is an essential step in analyzing the data.

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  • 18. 

    Select the ones that pertain to the analysis of data

    • A.

      Read all the narratives

    • B.

      Extract significant statements

    • C.

      Create meanings by coding repetitive issues

    • D.

      Aggregate issues into clusters of themes

    • E.

      Write an exhaustive description

    • F.

      Determine similar concepts

    • G.

      Return to subjects for validation as necessary

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Read all the narratives
    B. Extract significant statements
    C. Create meanings by coding repetitive issues
    D. Aggregate issues into clusters of themes
    E. Write an exhaustive description
    F. Determine similar concepts
    G. Return to subjects for validation as necessary
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because it includes all the steps involved in the analysis of data. Reading all the narratives allows for a comprehensive understanding of the data. Extracting significant statements helps in identifying key information. Creating meanings by coding repetitive issues helps in categorizing and organizing the data. Aggregating issues into clusters of themes helps in identifying patterns and trends. Writing an exhaustive description ensures a thorough documentation of the findings. Determining similar concepts helps in making connections between different pieces of data. Returning to subjects for validation ensures the accuracy and reliability of the analysis.

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  • 19. 

    Use, without proper acknowledgement, of the ideas, phrases, sentences, or larger units of discourse from another writer or speaker is a definition of:

    • A.

      Paraphrasing

    • B.

      Content validity

    • C.

      Citation

    • D.

      Plagiarism

    Correct Answer
    D. Plagiarism
    Explanation
    Plagiarism is the act of using someone else's ideas, words, or work without giving proper credit or acknowledgement. It involves copying or paraphrasing someone else's work and presenting it as one's own. This can include using phrases, sentences, or larger units of discourse without proper citation or acknowledgement. Plagiarism is considered a serious academic offense and is unethical.

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  • 20. 

    The degree to which an instrument measures what it is intended to measure is a definition of:

    • A.

      Diligence

    • B.

      Accuracy

    • C.

      Validity

    • D.

      Reliability

    Correct Answer
    C. Validity
    Explanation
    Validity refers to the extent to which an instrument or measure accurately assesses what it is intended to measure. In other words, it evaluates whether the instrument is actually measuring the construct or concept it claims to measure. Validity is crucial in research and measurement as it ensures that the results obtained from the instrument are meaningful and representative of the intended variable. It is different from accuracy, which refers to the degree of correctness or precision in the instrument's measurements, and reliability, which pertains to the consistency and stability of the instrument's results over time and across different situations.

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  • 21. 

    Intra-rater reliability is:

    • A.

      The degree to which a rater is consistent with their own ratings

    • B.

      The degree to which each rater or observer is consistent with another rater's or observer's rating

    • C.

      A component in the Population of the PICO

    • D.

      Confidence level

    Correct Answer
    A. The degree to which a rater is consistent with their own ratings
    Explanation
    Intra-rater reliability refers to the consistency of a rater's own ratings. It measures the degree to which a rater consistently assigns the same ratings or scores when evaluating the same set of data or observations. This means that if a rater has high intra-rater reliability, it indicates that they are consistent in their judgments and their ratings can be trusted. On the other hand, low intra-rater reliability suggests that the rater's ratings may vary or be inconsistent, making their judgments less reliable.

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  • 22. 

    The component which allows the researcher to say that the results are due to manipulation of variables and not due to chance interferences of other variables best describes the feature of:

    • A.

      Substance

    • B.

      Stamina

    • C.

      Practice

    • D.

      Control

    Correct Answer
    D. Control
    Explanation
    Control is the correct answer because it refers to the component that allows the researcher to manipulate variables and eliminate the influence of other variables that could interfere with the results. By having control over the variables, the researcher can attribute any observed effects or outcomes to the manipulated variables rather than chance or other external factors. This ensures that the results are reliable and valid, allowing for accurate conclusions to be drawn from the research.

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  • 23. 

    High-quality systematic reviews are considered to be at what level of evidence?

    • A.

      Level I

    • B.

      Level II

    • C.

      Level III

    • D.

      Level IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Level I
    Explanation
    High-quality systematic reviews are considered to be at Level I of evidence because they are based on a comprehensive and rigorous synthesis of multiple studies. Systematic reviews involve a thorough search and evaluation of all relevant studies on a specific topic, and the findings are then analyzed and summarized to provide the highest level of evidence. Level I evidence is considered the most reliable and informative in guiding clinical decision-making and healthcare practices.

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  • 24. 

    Expert opinion is considered to be at what level of evidence?

    • A.

      Level II

    • B.

      Level III

    • C.

      Level IV

    • D.

      Level V

    Correct Answer
    D. Level V
  • 25. 

    Non-experimental designs are considered to be at what level of evidence?

    • A.

      Level II

    • B.

      Level III

    • C.

      Level IV

    • D.

      Level V

    Correct Answer
    C. Level IV
    Explanation
    Non-experimental designs are considered to be at Level IV of evidence. This means that the evidence obtained from non-experimental designs, such as observational studies or case-control studies, is considered to be of lower quality compared to experimental designs. Non-experimental designs do not involve manipulation of variables or random assignment of participants, which limits the ability to establish causality. Therefore, the evidence derived from non-experimental designs is generally considered to be less reliable and conclusive compared to higher levels of evidence.

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  • 26. 

    You are conducting a research project that includes goniometric measures of upper extremity ROM. Your participants are adults who have had a stroke and have a resultant hemiplegia. Your intervention is e-stim to facilitate movement. In this example, the intervention of e-stim would be considered the:

    • A.

      The outcome measure

    • B.

      The independent variable

    • C.

      The dependent variable

    • D.

      Validity threat

    Correct Answer
    B. The independent variable
    Explanation
    In this research project, the independent variable refers to the intervention being tested, which is e-stim to facilitate movement. The researcher is studying the effects of this intervention on the participants with stroke and hemiplegia. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is expected to have an effect on the dependent variable, which in this case could be the goniometric measures of upper extremity ROM. Therefore, the correct answer is the independent variable.

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  • 27. 

    In considering the previous example, ROM could be considered:

    • A.

      A bias

    • B.

      The controlled design component

    • C.

      The independent variable

    • D.

      The dependent variable

    Correct Answer
    D. The dependent variable
    Explanation
    In the given options, ROM can be considered as the dependent variable because it is the variable that is being measured or observed in response to the other variables. The dependent variable is the outcome or result that is influenced by the independent variable(s) and any biases or controlled design components. Therefore, ROM can be seen as the variable that is dependent on other factors in the example.

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  • 28. 

    The group of subjects who experience the same day-to-day occurrences and influences as the experimental group but who doo not receive the study treatment is known as the: 

    • A.

      Selection group

    • B.

      Randomizer component group

    • C.

      Experimental exponents

    • D.

      Control group

    Correct Answer
    A. Selection group
    Explanation
    The correct answer is control group. The control group is a group of subjects who are similar to the experimental group in terms of day-to-day experiences and influences but do not receive the study treatment. This allows researchers to compare the effects of the treatment by measuring any differences between the experimental and control groups. The control group helps to isolate the effects of the treatment and determine its effectiveness.

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  • 29. 

    An example of a background question is

    • A.

      Do patients who receive paraffin treatment report a decrease in pain?

    • B.

      What is paraffin treatment?

    • C.

      Is paraffin treatment more effective in reducing pain than massage in treating older women?

    • D.

      Pain reduction can be achieved through paraffin application

    Correct Answer
    B. What is paraffin treatment?
  • 30. 

    Experimental designs are used for:

    • A.

      Development of search terms

    • B.

      Exploring peoples' lived experiences through a series of open ended questions

    • C.

      Increasing the participant poll

    • D.

      Determining cause and effect

    Correct Answer
    D. Determining cause and effect
    Explanation
    Experimental designs are used for determining cause and effect. This means that through experimental designs, researchers aim to establish a cause-and-effect relationship between variables. They manipulate one or more variables (independent variables) and measure the effect on another variable (dependent variable). By carefully controlling and manipulating variables, experimental designs allow researchers to draw conclusions about the causal relationship between variables.

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  • 31. 

    You are writing a paper for one of your classes and you found a reference for an article that you would like to quote. You provide the in text quote and citation but are not sure how to cite the reference in the "Reference" section of your paper. The best course of action in determining the appropriate reference citation is:

    • A.

      Consult that APA manual to determine the appropriate format

    • B.

      Stop by Dr. Novalis office and ask her

    • C.

      Use the app that automatically provides the APA citation

    • D.

      Ask a classmate or a second year OT student

    Correct Answer
    A. Consult that APA manual to determine the appropriate format
    Explanation
    The best course of action in determining the appropriate reference citation is to consult the APA manual to determine the appropriate format. The APA manual is a reliable and authoritative source that provides guidelines for formatting citations in academic papers. It ensures that the citation follows the correct format and includes all the necessary information. By referring to the APA manual, the writer can ensure that their citation is accurate and meets the requirements of their paper.

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  • 32. 

    John Smith, OTR/L is measuring Study Participant's A's gross grasp/grip strength with the use of a dynamometer, instruction to this participant is: "squeeze as hard as you can when I say go" Donald Holmes, OTR/L takes the same measure a week later on the same participant. Donald's instruction to the participant is: "Keep your arm at your side, bending your elbow like this (Donald demonstrates) and squeeze until I ask you to stop.  The above scenario indicates a threat to: 

    • A.

      Stratification

    • B.

      Randomization

    • C.

      Intra-rater reliability

    • D.

      Inter-rater reliability

    Correct Answer
    D. Inter-rater reliability
    Explanation
    The scenario indicates a threat to inter-rater reliability because the two occupational therapists, John Smith and Donald Holmes, are using different instructions when measuring the participant's grip strength. This difference in instructions could lead to variations in how the participant performs the task, resulting in inconsistent measurements between the two raters. To ensure inter-rater reliability, it is important for all raters to use standardized instructions and procedures when measuring the same variable.

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  • 33. 

    In the same example as question #15, the dynamometer was not calibrated. This lack of calibration is an example of a threat to:

    • A.

      Content validity

    • B.

      External validity

    • C.

      Internal validity

    • D.

      Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Content validity
    Explanation
    The lack of calibration of the dynamometer in the given example poses a threat to content validity. Content validity refers to the extent to which a measurement tool accurately represents the content or construct it is intended to measure. In this case, the lack of calibration means that the dynamometer may not be accurately measuring what it is supposed to, leading to potential errors or inaccuracies in the results obtained.

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  • 34. 

    In the acronym "PICO," the "I" means:

    • A.

      Population

    • B.

      Intervention

    • C.

      Interpretation

    • D.

      Interest group

    Correct Answer
    B. Intervention
    Explanation
    In the acronym "PICO," the "I" stands for Intervention. This means that in the context of research or evidence-based practice, the "I" refers to the specific treatment, therapy, or action being implemented or studied. The PICO framework is commonly used to formulate research questions and guide the search for relevant evidence. It helps to identify the population or problem of interest, specify the intervention or treatment being considered, outline the comparison or alternative being examined, and determine the desired outcome or endpoint.

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  • 35. 

    OT practitioners can utilize evidence-based outcomes measures to:

    • A.

      Establish a baseline

    • B.

      Contribute to the client's (client-centered) care plan

    • C.

      Monitor progress

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    OT practitioners can utilize evidence-based outcomes measures to establish a baseline by assessing the client's current level of functioning. This baseline helps in understanding the client's starting point and can be used as a reference for measuring progress. These measures also contribute to the client's care plan by providing objective data that guides the development of interventions and goals. Additionally, using outcomes measures allows practitioners to monitor progress over time, enabling them to make adjustments to the intervention plan as needed. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for why OT practitioners can utilize evidence-based outcomes measures.

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  • 36. 

    Book titles and journal titles (not article titles) should be italicized in APA format

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In APA format, book titles and journal titles (not article titles) should be italicized. This is because italicizing these titles helps to distinguish them from the rest of the text and makes them stand out. Italicizing book and journal titles is a formatting convention used in APA style to ensure consistency and clarity in academic writing.

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  • 37. 

    All statistically significant results are clinically important

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because statistically significant results do not necessarily imply clinical importance. Statistical significance only indicates that the observed results are unlikely to have occurred by chance. However, clinical importance takes into consideration factors such as magnitude of effect, practical significance, and relevance to patient care. Therefore, while statistically significant results are important, they may not always have clinical significance.

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  • 38. 

    A ________ contains an independent variable that is manipulated in order to look for an effect on a dependent variable, but either use of a control group or randomization is lacking

    • A.

      A systematic review

    • B.

      Qualitative design

    • C.

      Quasi-experimental design

    • D.

      True experimental design

    • E.

      Option 5

    Correct Answer
    C. Quasi-experimental design
    Explanation
    A quasi-experimental design is a research method that involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable, but lacks either a control group or randomization. This means that the researcher cannot randomly assign participants to different groups or conditions, which limits the ability to establish a cause-and-effect relationship. However, the researcher can still compare groups or conditions to examine the effects of the independent variable, making it a suitable option in situations where randomization or a control group is not feasible or ethical.

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  • 39. 

    Method of subject selection and assignment designed to reduce the risk of systematic bias

    • A.

      Manipulation

    • B.

      Randomization

    • C.

      Control

    • D.

      Beatification

    Correct Answer
    B. Randomization
    Explanation
    Randomization is the correct answer because it refers to the method of subject selection and assignment that is designed to reduce the risk of systematic bias. Randomization involves randomly assigning subjects to different groups or conditions, ensuring that each subject has an equal chance of being assigned to any group. This helps to eliminate any potential bias or confounding factors that could influence the results of the study. By randomly assigning subjects, researchers can increase the internal validity of their findings and make more accurate conclusions about cause and effect relationships.

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  • 40. 

    Subjects who are performing better on the study task simply because they are getting special attention, and not necessarily because of the treatment they are receiving is called the

    • A.

      Special effect

    • B.

      Double-blind effect

    • C.

      Contamination effect

    • D.

      Hawthorne effect

    Correct Answer
    D. Hawthorne effect
    Explanation
    The Hawthorne effect refers to the phenomenon where individuals modify their behavior or performance simply because they are aware that they are being observed or receiving special attention. In the context of the question, subjects may be performing better on the study task not because of the actual treatment they are receiving, but because they are aware that they are being given special attention. This effect highlights the influence of psychological factors on performance and the need to consider the potential bias introduced by the awareness of being observed.

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  • 41. 

    Subject performs better on later tests simply because they have learned the material on the test rather than because of the experimental intervention is

    • A.

      A threat to validity: replication

    • B.

      A threat to reliability: subject learning

    • C.

      A threat to reliability: subject ability

    • D.

      A threat to validity: subject ability

    Correct Answer
    B. A threat to reliability: subject learning
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that the subject's improved performance on later tests is due to their own learning of the material, rather than any experimental intervention. This poses a threat to the reliability of the results because it suggests that the subject's ability to learn may be a confounding factor that affects the consistency and accuracy of the results.

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  • 42. 

    Quasi-experimental studies are included at which Level of Evidence?

    • A.

      Level II

    • B.

      Level III

    • C.

      Level IV

    • D.

      Level V

    Correct Answer
    B. Level III
    Explanation
    Quasi-experimental studies are included at Level III of evidence. This level refers to non-randomized controlled trials or well-designed cohort or case-control studies. Quasi-experimental studies are a type of study design that lacks randomization but still includes an intervention or treatment and a comparison group. While they do not meet the criteria for Level II evidence, which includes randomized controlled trials, they are considered to provide valuable evidence in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions or treatments.

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  • 43. 

    Wrong results that are due to chance is an example of?

    • A.

      Systematic bias

    • B.

      Tester skill bias

    • C.

      Random error

    • D.

      Chance design 

    Correct Answer
    C. Random error
    Explanation
    Random error refers to the variability in measurements or observations that occur due to chance factors. In the context of the question, wrong results that are due to chance can be considered as random errors. These errors are not systematic or biased, but rather occur randomly and can lead to inaccurate or incorrect results. Therefore, random error is the most appropriate explanation for the given correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    Errors that occur due to bias within the study design are called?

    • A.

      Human errors

    • B.

      Systematic errors

    • C.

      Expedited errors

    • D.

      Biasmatic errors

    Correct Answer
    B. Systematic errors
    Explanation
    Systematic errors are errors that occur due to bias within the study design. These errors can arise from flaws in the research methodology, such as sampling bias or measurement errors. Unlike random errors, which are unpredictable and can occur by chance, systematic errors are consistent and can lead to skewed or inaccurate results. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is systematic errors.

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  • 45. 

    ________ helps ensure subjects are representative of the group from which they are chosen

    • A.

      Placebo

    • B.

      Randomization

    • C.

      Stratification

    • D.

      Manipulation

    Correct Answer
    C. Stratification
    Explanation
    Stratification helps ensure subjects are representative of the group from which they are chosen. This is because stratification involves dividing the population into subgroups based on specific characteristics and then selecting a proportional number of subjects from each subgroup. By doing so, stratification ensures that the sample includes individuals from different subgroups in the same proportion as they exist in the population. This helps to reduce bias and increase the generalizability of the findings to the larger population.

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  • 46. 

    Specification of the characteristics that define the targeted study population that are relevant to the research question are referred to as

    • A.

      Characteristics list

    • B.

      Research designation specifications

    • C.

      Specification bias

    • D.

      Inclusion criteria

    Correct Answer
    D. Inclusion criteria
    Explanation
    Inclusion criteria are the specifications or characteristics that define the targeted study population and are relevant to the research question. These criteria are used to determine who can participate in the study and ensure that the sample represents the population of interest. By specifying certain characteristics, researchers can control for potential confounding variables and ensure that the study results are applicable to the intended population.

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  • 47. 

    Evidence-based practice is comprised of all of these components EXCEPT

    • A.

      Client values, goals, beliefs

    • B.

      Salary caps

    • C.

      Practitioner expertise

    • D.

      Best evidence

    Correct Answer
    B. Salary caps
    Explanation
    Evidence-based practice involves considering client values, goals, and beliefs, practitioner expertise, and the best available evidence to inform decision-making and treatment. Salary caps, on the other hand, are unrelated to the components of evidence-based practice. They are policies that limit the maximum amount of salary that can be earned by an individual, usually in a specific profession or industry. Therefore, salary caps are not a component of evidence-based practice.

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  • 48. 

    Three features of rigorous quantitative research include all of the following except

    • A.

      Manipulation

    • B.

      Control

    • C.

      Focus group discussion

    • D.

      Randomization

    Correct Answer
    C. Focus group discussion
    Explanation
    Rigorous quantitative research involves manipulation, control, and randomization to ensure the validity and reliability of the findings. These features help researchers to establish cause-and-effect relationships and minimize bias. However, focus group discussions are a qualitative research method that involves a small group of participants discussing a specific topic. While focus groups can provide valuable insights, they do not align with the principles of rigorous quantitative research, which relies on statistical analysis and generalizability.

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  • 49. 

    Measures that occupational therapists use can include

    • A.

      Client response (interview/survey results)

    • B.

      Standard measures, tests, inventories

    • C.

      Observations

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Occupational therapists use a variety of measures to assess their clients' progress and needs. These measures can include client responses, such as interviews or surveys, which provide valuable insights into the client's experiences and perspectives. Additionally, occupational therapists may use standard measures, tests, and inventories that have been validated and widely used in the field to gather objective data about the client's abilities and challenges. Lastly, observations play a crucial role in understanding the client's performance in real-life situations and environments. Therefore, "all of the above" accurately reflects the different measures that occupational therapists use in their practice.

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  • 50. 

    Likert scales typically provide you with

    • A.

      Subjective information

    • B.

      Objective information

    • C.

      Useful outcome measures

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      Answers 1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    E. Answers 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    Likert scales typically provide you with subjective information and useful outcome measures. Subjective information is obtained through the respondents' opinions, attitudes, or beliefs, which are often measured using Likert scales. On the other hand, useful outcome measures refer to the quantitative data collected through Likert scales that can be analyzed and used to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions, programs, or treatments. Therefore, answers 1 and 3 are correct because Likert scales offer both subjective information and useful outcome measures.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 07, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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