Cosmetology Practice Exam 8

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Cosmetology Practice Exam 8 - Quiz

Cosmetology practice test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Archeological studies reveal that hair cutting and hairstyling were practiced in some form as early as:

    • A.

      The ice age

    • B.

      The medieval period

    • C.

      The roman empire

    • D.

      The middle ages

    Correct Answer
    A. The ice age
    Explanation
    Archeological studies have provided evidence that hair cutting and hairstyling were practiced during the ice age. This suggests that even in ancient times, humans had a desire to groom and style their hair. The discovery of tools such as combs and hairpins from this era further supports the idea that early humans engaged in hair care practices. Therefore, the ice age is the earliest known period where hair cutting and hairstyling were observed.

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  • 2. 

    The barber pole--symbol of the barber surgeon--has its roots in a medical procedue called:

    • A.

      Staff

    • B.

      Dentistry

    • C.

      Knifing

    • D.

      Bloodletting

    Correct Answer
    D. Bloodletting
    Explanation
    The correct answer is bloodletting. The barber pole, which is a symbol of the barber surgeon, originated from the practice of bloodletting. Bloodletting was a medical procedure in which blood was intentionally removed from a patient's body, often using leeches or lancets, to treat various illnesses. Barbers were commonly responsible for performing this procedure, along with other surgical tasks, hence the association with the barber pole.

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  • 3. 

    Your license will unlock doors for employment; however, your career will be fueled with:

    • A.

      Focusing on hair cutting

    • B.

      Skills and gossiping

    • C.

      Personal dedication and passion

    • D.

      Poor taste and dishonesty

    Correct Answer
    C. Personal dedication and passion
    Explanation
    Personal dedication and passion are the driving forces behind a successful career. While having a license may open doors for employment opportunities, it is one's dedication and passion that will fuel their career growth. These qualities enable individuals to go above and beyond in their work, constantly improving their skills and striving for excellence. Poor taste and dishonesty, on the other hand, can hinder career progression and damage professional relationships. Therefore, personal dedication and passion are crucial for long-term success in any field.

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  • 4. 

    When handling a schedule conflict with a client, it is recommended to:

    • A.

      Cover up the issue

    • B.

      Argue with the client

    • C.

      Never argue and be pollite

    • D.

      Cancel the appointment

    Correct Answer
    C. Never argue and be pollite
    Explanation
    When handling a schedule conflict with a client, it is recommended to never argue and be polite. This is because arguing with the client can escalate the situation and damage the relationship. By remaining polite, it shows professionalism and a willingness to find a solution that works for both parties. It is important to address the issue openly and honestly while maintaining a respectful and courteous attitude towards the client. This approach helps in maintaining a positive and constructive communication with the client, which can lead to a successful resolution of the conflict.

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  • 5. 

    Bacteria generally consist of an outer cell wall containing a liquid called:

    • A.

      Spore-forming

    • B.

      Spherical spore

    • C.

      Protoplasm

    • D.

      Photosynthesis

    Correct Answer
    C. Protoplasm
    Explanation
    Bacteria generally consist of an outer cell wall containing a liquid called protoplasm. Protoplasm is the living substance within a cell that includes the cytoplasm and the nucleus. It is responsible for carrying out various cellular functions such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction. The cell wall provides structural support and protection to the bacteria, while the protoplasm contains all the necessary components for the bacteria's survival and functioning.

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  • 6. 

    A disease that spreads from one person to another by contact is said to be:

    • A.

      Epidermic

    • B.

      Immunity

    • C.

      Community

    • D.

      Contagious

    Correct Answer
    D. Contagious
    Explanation
    A disease that spreads from one person to another by contact is said to be contagious. This means that the disease can be transmitted through physical touch or close proximity to an infected individual. Contagious diseases can easily pass from one person to another, leading to rapid spread within a community or population. It is important to take precautions and practice good hygiene to prevent the spread of contagious diseases.

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  • 7. 

    A contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite is:

    • A.

      Scabies

    • B.

      Lice

    • C.

      Pediculosis

    • D.

      Immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Scabies
    Explanation
    Scabies is a contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite. It is characterized by intense itching and a rash that is usually found in the folds of the skin, such as between fingers, wrists, and buttocks. The itch mite burrows into the skin and lays eggs, leading to the development of the rash and other symptoms. Scabies can easily spread through close physical contact, such as sharing bedding or clothing, and can affect anyone regardless of age or hygiene. Treatment usually involves prescription medications to kill the mites and alleviate symptoms.

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  • 8. 

    The three main types of decontamination are:

    • A.

      Sanitation,sterilizing, and dry heat

    • B.

      Sterilizing, cleaning and processing

    • C.

      Sanitation, disenfection, and sterilization

    • D.

      Sanitation, steam autoclave, and heat

    Correct Answer
    C. Sanitation, disenfection, and sterilization
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sanitation, disinfection, and sterilization. These three types of decontamination are commonly used in various settings to ensure cleanliness and prevent the spread of harmful microorganisms. Sanitation involves the removal of dirt and debris from surfaces, disinfection involves the use of chemicals to kill or inactivate microorganisms, and sterilization is the process of eliminating all forms of microbial life. These methods are important in maintaining a safe and hygienic environment in healthcare facilities, laboratories, and food processing industries.

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  • 9. 

    Substances used to destroy bacteria and viruses on surfaces such as implements and combs are:

    • A.

      Disinfectants

    • B.

      Antiseptics

    • C.

      Sanitizers

    • D.

      Fumigants

    Correct Answer
    A. Disinfectants
    Explanation
    Disinfectants are substances specifically designed to destroy bacteria and viruses on surfaces such as implements and combs. They are different from antiseptics, which are used on living tissues, and sanitizers, which are used to reduce the number of microorganisms on surfaces. Fumigants, on the other hand, are chemicals used to eliminate pests or insects. Therefore, the correct answer is disinfectants.

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  • 10. 

    Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be:

    • A.

      Discarded

    • B.

      Washed

    • C.

      Stored

    • D.

      Immersed

    Correct Answer
    A. Discarded
    Explanation
    Single-use items that cannot be disinfected after each client use must be discarded. This means that these items should be thrown away and not reused. This is important for maintaining hygiene and preventing the spread of infections or diseases. Washing or storing these items would not be sufficient in ensuring cleanliness and preventing contamination. Immersing them in a solution may also not be effective in disinfecting single-use items. Therefore, the correct action to take is to discard them.

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  • 11. 

    A very safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats, is:

    • A.

      Quaternary antiseptic solution

    • B.

      Quaternary-based compounds

    • C.

      Quaternary softening compound

    • D.

      Quaternary ammonium compounds

    Correct Answer
    D. Quaternary ammonium compounds
    Explanation
    Quaternary ammonium compounds, commonly known as quats, are a very safe and useful type of disinfectant. They are widely used in various industries, including healthcare, food processing, and household cleaning. Quats have strong antimicrobial properties and can effectively kill a wide range of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. They are also stable, non-toxic to humans and animals at recommended concentrations, and have a long shelf life. Due to their effectiveness and safety profile, quaternary ammonium compounds are a popular choice for disinfection purposes.

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  • 12. 

    The uppermost and largest bone of the arm,extending from the elbow to the shoulder is the:

    • A.

      Hyoid

    • B.

      Humerus

    • C.

      Scapula

    • D.

      Thorax

    Correct Answer
    B. Humerus
    Explanation
    The humerus is the correct answer because it is the uppermost and largest bone of the arm, extending from the elbow to the shoulder. The hyoid is a U-shaped bone in the neck, the scapula is a shoulder blade bone, and the thorax is the chest area.

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  • 13. 

    Ductless glands that release secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream are:

    • A.

      Endocrine glands

    • B.

      Digestive glands

    • C.

      Exocrine glands

    • D.

      Sweat glands

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocrine glands
    Explanation
    Endocrine glands are ductless glands that release hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones then travel to target cells or organs to regulate various bodily functions. Unlike exocrine glands, which release their secretions through ducts, endocrine glands rely on the circulatory system to transport their hormones. Digestive glands are responsible for producing digestive enzymes, while sweat glands produce sweat to regulate body temperature. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine glands.

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  • 14. 

    The layer that consists of cells that look like distinct granules and are pushed to the surface to replace cells that shed is the:

    • A.

      Basal cell layer

    • B.

      Stratum germinativum

    • C.

      Stratum granulosm

    • D.

      Stratum lucidum

    Correct Answer
    C. Stratum granulosm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is stratum granulosm. This layer consists of cells that appear as distinct granules and are pushed to the surface to replace the cells that shed. The stratum granulosm is located above the basal cell layer and the stratum germinativum, and below the stratum lucidum. It plays a crucial role in the skin's barrier function and the production of keratin, a protein that helps protect the skin from damage.

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  • 15. 

    The stratum germinativum is composed of several layers with special cells that produce a dark skin pigment called:

    • A.

      Spiny

    • B.

      Elongated

    • C.

      Melanin

    • D.

      Granules

    Correct Answer
    C. Melanin
    Explanation
    The stratum germinativum is a layer of the skin that contains special cells called melanocytes, which produce a pigment called melanin. Melanin is responsible for giving color to the skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of the sun's ultraviolet (UV) rays by absorbing and scattering the UV radiation.

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  • 16. 

    The muscle that causes goose bumps when a person is frightened or cold is the:

    • A.

      Angled muscle

    • B.

      Secretory muscle

    • C.

      Absorption muscle

    • D.

      Arrector pili muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Arrector pili muscle
    Explanation
    The arrector pili muscle is responsible for causing goosebumps when a person is frightened or cold. This muscle is attached to the hair follicles and contracts in response to stimuli such as fear or low temperatures. When the muscle contracts, it causes the hair follicles to stand upright, resulting in the appearance of goosebumps on the skin.

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  • 17. 

    The visible part of the matrix that extends underneath the living skin is called the:

    • A.

      Cuticle

    • B.

      Nail walls

    • C.

      Lunula

    • D.

      Mantle

    Correct Answer
    C. Lunula
    Explanation
    The lunula is the correct answer because it refers to the visible part of the matrix that extends underneath the living skin. The lunula is a white, crescent-shaped area located at the base of the nail, and it is the part of the nail matrix that is visible through the nail plate. It is often lighter in color compared to the rest of the nail and is a distinguishing feature of healthy nails.

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  • 18. 

    The fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells that contains melanin pigment is the:

    • A.

      Cuticle layer

    • B.

      Overlapping layer

    • C.

      Cortex layer

    • D.

      Medulla layer

    Correct Answer
    C. Cortex layer
    Explanation
    The cortex layer is the correct answer because it is the fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells that contains melanin pigment. The cortex layer is located between the cuticle layer and the medulla layer in hair. It provides strength, elasticity, and color to the hair shaft.

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  • 19. 

    The medulla, the innermost layer of the hair, is composed of cells that are:

    • A.

      Transparent

    • B.

      Elongated

    • C.

      Flat

    • D.

      Round

    Correct Answer
    D. Round
    Explanation
    The medulla, which is the innermost layer of the hair, is composed of round cells. This can be understood by considering the structure and composition of the hair. The medulla is the central core of the hair shaft and is made up of loosely packed cells. These cells are typically round in shape, providing a central canal-like structure within the hair. This round shape of the medulla cells helps to provide support and strength to the hair shaft.

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  • 20. 

    Hair flowing in the same direction, the result of follicles sloping in the same direction form a:

    • A.

      Section

    • B.

      Hair stream

    • C.

      Hair whorl

    • D.

      Cowlick

    Correct Answer
    B. Hair stream
    Explanation
    A hair stream refers to the direction in which the hair flows due to the alignment of the hair follicles. When the follicles slope in the same direction, the hair strands also flow in that same direction, creating a hair stream. A hair stream is typically smooth and uniform, with all the hair strands moving in a consistent pattern. This is in contrast to a hair whorl, which refers to a circular or spiral pattern of hair growth, and a cowlick, which is a section of hair that stands up or grows in a different direction than the surrounding hair.

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  • 21. 

    Oily hair and scalp are caused by improper washing or overactive:

    • A.

      Sudoriferous glands

    • B.

      Monilethrix

    • C.

      Sebaceous glands

    • D.

      Arrector glands

    Correct Answer
    C. Sebaceous glands
    Explanation
    Oily hair and scalp are caused by overactive sebaceous glands. These glands are responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that helps to moisturize and protect the hair and skin. When the sebaceous glands produce an excess amount of sebum, it can result in oily hair and scalp. This can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetics, or even environmental factors. Proper washing techniques and using products specifically designed for oily hair can help to manage and control the production of sebum, reducing the oiliness of the hair and scalp.

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  • 22. 

    A condition that is characterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft is the:

    • A.

      Fragilitas crinium

    • B.

      Trichorrhexis nodosa

    • C.

      Alopecia areata

    • D.

      Hypertrichosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Trichorrhexis nodosa
    Explanation
    Trichorrhexis nodosa is a condition characterized by the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft and brittleness. It is commonly caused by excessive heat, chemical damage, or nutritional deficiencies. The hair becomes weak and prone to breakage, leading to the formation of nodules. Fragilitas crinium refers to brittle hair, but it does not involve the formation of nodular swellings. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss, while hypertrichosis refers to excessive hair growth.

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  • 23. 

    Change in the form of a substance that does not cause a chemical change is a(n):

    • A.

      Anion change

    • B.

      Solid change

    • C.

      Matter change

    • D.

      Physical change

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical change
    Explanation
    A physical change refers to a change in the form or state of a substance without altering its chemical composition. In this context, anion change, solid change, and matter change do not accurately describe the concept of a change that does not cause a chemical change. Only physical change correctly represents the idea of a change that is purely physical, such as a change in state (e.g., melting, freezing) or appearance (e.g., cutting, tearing), without any chemical reactions occurring.

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  • 24. 

    Chemical reactions that are characterized by or formed by giving off heat are:

    • A.

      Neutralization

    • B.

      Acidic

    • C.

      Electrons

    • D.

      Exothermic

    Correct Answer
    D. Exothermic
    Explanation
    Exothermic reactions release heat energy during the process. This means that the reactants have a higher energy level than the products, and the excess energy is given off as heat. Examples of exothermic reactions include combustion, such as burning wood or gasoline. In contrast, endothermic reactions absorb heat energy from the surroundings, resulting in a decrease in temperature. Neutralization, acidic, and electrons are not directly related to the release of heat energy in chemical reactions.

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  • 25. 

    When oxygen is subtracted from a substance, the chemical reaction is called:

    • A.

      Removal

    • B.

      Reduction

    • C.

      Suspended

    • D.

      Transferred

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduction
    Explanation
    When oxygen is subtracted from a substance, the chemical reaction is called reduction. Reduction is a type of chemical reaction where there is a gain of electrons or a decrease in oxidation state. In this case, the substance is undergoing a reduction because it is losing oxygen. This reduction reaction can often be observed in various chemical processes, such as in the rusting of iron where iron reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide.

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  • 26. 

    The path of an electric current from the generating source back to the original source is a(n):

    • A.

      Incomplete circuit

    • B.

      Complete circuit

    • C.

      Insulating current

    • D.

      Direct circuit

    Correct Answer
    B. Complete circuit
    Explanation
    A complete circuit refers to a continuous loop where the electric current can flow from the generating source back to the original source without any interruptions or breaks. In a complete circuit, all the necessary components such as wires, switches, and loads are connected properly, allowing the current to flow freely. This ensures that the electrical energy is able to complete its intended path and power the devices or systems connected to the circuit.

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  • 27. 

    Rapid and interrupted current that flows in one direction and then in the opposite direction is:

    • A.

      Alternating current

    • B.

      Auxiliary current

    • C.

      Automatic current

    • D.

      Indirect current

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternating current
    Explanation
    Alternating current is the correct answer because it refers to the rapid and interrupted flow of electric charge that changes direction periodically. Unlike direct current, which flows in only one direction, alternating current reverses its direction at regular intervals. This type of current is commonly used in homes and businesses for powering electrical appliances and devices.

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  • 28. 

    Cordless electric clippers and battery chargers convert AC current from a wall unit to DC current needed to recharge DC batteries with the use of:

    • A.

      A rectifier

    • B.

      Ohms

    • C.

      A converter

    • D.

      A conductor

    Correct Answer
    A. A rectifier
    Explanation
    Cordless electric clippers and battery chargers convert AC current from a wall unit to DC current needed to recharge DC batteries with the use of a rectifier. A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) by allowing current to flow in only one direction. It does this by utilizing diodes, which are electronic components that only allow current to flow in one direction. Therefore, a rectifier is essential in converting the AC current from the wall unit to the DC current required for recharging DC batteries.

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  • 29. 

    The electrical appliance connection that supplies current to the circuit is the:

    • A.

      Prong connection

    • B.

      Indirect connection

    • C.

      Live connection

    • D.

      Grounded connection

    Correct Answer
    C. Live connection
    Explanation
    The live connection refers to the electrical appliance connection that supplies current to the circuit. It is the connection through which the electric current enters the appliance and powers it. This connection is usually connected to the live wire of the electrical supply, which carries the alternating current from the power source. The live connection is an essential part of the circuit as it provides the necessary electrical energy for the appliance to function properly.

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  • 30. 

    The thermal or heat-producing current with a high rate of oscillation or vibration is:

    • A.

      Tesla current

    • B.

      Acidic current

    • C.

      Direct current

    • D.

      Electrode current

    Correct Answer
    A. Tesla current
    Explanation
    Tesla current refers to the thermal or heat-producing current that has a high rate of oscillation or vibration. This type of current is named after Nikola Tesla, a renowned inventor and engineer. It is different from other options such as acidic current, direct current, and electrode current, as they do not specifically refer to a high rate of oscillation or vibration in the context of thermal or heat-producing current.

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  • 31. 

    Infrared lamps used during hair treatments and to process hair color should be operated a a distance of at least:

    • A.

      10 inches

    • B.

      20 inches

    • C.

      30 inches

    • D.

      40 inches

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 inches
    Explanation
    Infrared lamps used during hair treatments and to process hair color should be operated at a distance of at least 30 inches. This is because infrared lamps emit heat, and placing them too close to the hair can cause damage or burns. Keeping a distance of 30 inches allows for a safe and effective treatment without risking harm to the hair or scalp.

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  • 32. 

    Rays with short wavelengths that are the least penetrating, produce chemical effects, and kill germs are:

    • A.

      Blue light

    • B.

      Infrared rays

    • C.

      Ultraviolet rays

    • D.

      Red light rays

    Correct Answer
    C. Ultraviolet rays
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet rays have short wavelengths and are the least penetrating among the given options. They are capable of producing chemical effects and have germicidal properties, making them effective in killing germs. Blue light, infrared rays, and red light rays have longer wavelengths and do not possess the same germicidal properties as ultraviolet rays.

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  • 33. 

    The area surrounding the form is:

    • A.

      Texture

    • B.

      Line

    • C.

      Silhouette

    • D.

      Space

    Correct Answer
    D. Space
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "space". In the context of this question, "space" refers to the area surrounding the form or object being depicted. It is the empty or negative space that helps define the shape and form of the object. In visual arts, the effective use of space can create a sense of balance, depth, and composition within the artwork.

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  • 34. 

    To draw a line in a hairstyle in the direction you want the eye to travel, use a:

    • A.

      Light color

    • B.

      Dark color

    • C.

      Recessed color

    • D.

      Warm color

    Correct Answer
    A. Light color
    Explanation
    Using a light color to draw a line in a hairstyle helps to create a visual pathway for the eye to follow. Light colors tend to attract attention and stand out more than dark or recessed colors. By strategically placing a light-colored line in the desired direction, it can guide the viewer's gaze and create a sense of movement or flow in the hairstyle. This technique is commonly used in hair styling to enhance the overall visual appeal and create a desired visual effect.

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  • 35. 

    Substances that absorb moisture and promote the retention of moisture, are known as:

    • A.

      Astringents

    • B.

      Humectants

    • C.

      Keratin

    • D.

      Decionized

    Correct Answer
    B. Humectants
    Explanation
    Humectants are substances that have the ability to absorb moisture from the environment and retain it, thus helping to keep the surrounding area or material moist. They are commonly used in skincare products, cosmetics, and food to prevent drying out. Astringents, on the other hand, are substances that cause contraction of body tissues and are used to tighten and dry out the skin. Keratin is a protein found in hair, skin, and nails, and decionized is not a recognized term.

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  • 36. 

    Shampoos that are created by combing the surfactant base with basic color pigments are:

    • A.

      Moisturizing

    • B.

      Clarifying

    • C.

      Color-enhancing

    • D.

      Neutralizing

    Correct Answer
    C. Color-enhancing
    Explanation
    Shampoos that are created by combining the surfactant base with basic color pigments are referred to as color-enhancing shampoos. These shampoos are specifically formulated to help maintain and enhance the color of dyed or treated hair. The addition of color pigments in the shampoo helps to refresh and intensify the hair color, making it appear more vibrant and shiny. Color-enhancing shampoos are commonly used by individuals who have colored their hair and want to extend the longevity of their hair color while keeping it looking fresh and vibrant.

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  • 37. 

    The hair type that requires less elevation and should be left a bit longer because of shrinkage when it dries is:

    • A.

      Coarse hair

    • B.

      Dry hair

    • C.

      Straight hair

    • D.

      Curly hair

    Correct Answer
    D. Curly hair
    Explanation
    Curly hair requires less elevation and should be left a bit longer because it tends to shrink when it dries. The natural curl pattern causes the hair to contract and appear shorter when it dries, so leaving it slightly longer compensates for this shrinkage. This helps to achieve the desired length and shape once the hair is dry.

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  • 38. 

    In creating a length increase in the design of graduated and layered haircuts, the technique to use is:

    • A.

      Over-direction

    • B.

      Beveling

    • C.

      Stacking

    • D.

      Traveling

    Correct Answer
    A. Over-direction
    Explanation
    Over-direction is the technique used to create a length increase in the design of graduated and layered haircuts. This technique involves combing the hair away from its natural fall and cutting it at a higher elevation than the desired length. By doing so, the hair is left longer and creates a gradual increase in length, resulting in a layered or graduated effect. This technique is commonly used to add movement and texture to the hair.

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  • 39. 

    Haircuts that generally have less weight than graduated haircuts are:

    • A.

      One-length cuts

    • B.

      Blunt cuts

    • C.

      Layered cuts

    • D.

      Tension cuts

    Correct Answer
    C. Layered cuts
    Explanation
    Layered cuts generally have less weight than graduated haircuts because they involve cutting the hair at different lengths throughout the hairstyle. This creates layers and removes bulk from the hair, resulting in a lighter and more textured look. In contrast, graduated haircuts involve cutting the hair at a consistent angle to create a stacked effect, which adds weight and density to the hair. Therefore, layered cuts are a suitable option for those who prefer a lighter and more voluminous hairstyle.

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  • 40. 

    Electric or battery-operated tools that cut the hair by using two moving blades held in olace by a metal plate with teeth are:

    • A.

      Trimmers

    • B.

      Cutting shears

    • C.

      Clippers

    • D.

      Notching shears

    Correct Answer
    C. Clippers
    Explanation
    Electric or battery-operated tools that cut hair using two moving blades held in place by a metal plate with teeth are called clippers. Clippers are commonly used in barbershops and salons for cutting hair to a desired length. They provide a quick and efficient way to trim or shave hair, making them a popular tool for hairstylists. Unlike cutting shears or trimming shears, which are typically used for more precise cutting and shaping, clippers are designed to remove larger amounts of hair quickly. Notching shears, on the other hand, are used for creating textured or layered looks and are not typically electric or battery-operated.

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  • 41. 

    Large, flat brushes with staggered pin patterns used for mid-to-longer hair length are:

    • A.

      Vent brushed

    • B.

      Grooming brushes

    • C.

      Classic styling brushes

    • D.

      Paddle brushes

    Correct Answer
    D. Paddle brushes
    Explanation
    Paddle brushes are large, flat brushes with staggered pin patterns that are specifically designed for mid-to-longer hair lengths. These brushes are ideal for detangling and smoothing out hair, as well as for creating sleek and straight hairstyles. The wide surface area of paddle brushes allows for faster and more efficient brushing, making them a popular choice for everyday styling.

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  • 42. 

    The correct temperature setting of the iron when termal curling is determined by the:

    • A.

      Texture of the hair

    • B.

      Length of the hair

    • C.

      Type of iron used

    • D.

      Size of iron needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Texture of the hair
    Explanation
    The correct temperature setting of the iron when thermal curling is determined by the texture of the hair. Different hair textures require different levels of heat to achieve the desired curl. Fine or damaged hair may require a lower temperature setting to prevent further damage, while coarse or thick hair may need a higher temperature to effectively curl. It is important to consider the texture of the hair when determining the temperature setting to ensure that the curling process is safe and effective.

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  • 43. 

    The process of temporarily straightening extremely curly hair by means of a heated comby is called:

    • A.

      Hair pressing

    • B.

      Hair texturizing

    • C.

      Hair relaxing

    • D.

      Hair treatments

    Correct Answer
    B. Hair texturizing
    Explanation
    Hair texturizing is the process of temporarily straightening extremely curly hair by means of a heated comb. This technique helps to loosen the curl pattern and create a more textured look. It is different from hair relaxing, which permanently straightens the hair, and hair treatments, which encompass a wide range of procedures for improving the health and appearance of the hair. Therefore, hair texturizing is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 44. 

    The wig type recommended for a client with no hair or extremely thin hair is the:

    • A.

      Capless wig

    • B.

      Cascade

    • C.

      Toupee

    • D.

      Cap wig

    Correct Answer
    D. Cap wig
    Explanation
    A cap wig is the recommended wig type for a client with no hair or extremely thin hair. This type of wig has a cap that covers the entire head, providing full coverage and a natural look. The cap is usually made of a breathable material that allows the scalp to breathe and prevents discomfort. The cap wig also has adjustable straps and clips, allowing for a secure and comfortable fit. This type of wig is ideal for individuals with no hair or thin hair as it provides the necessary coverage and support.

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  • 45. 

    Prior to a full-color application to a wig or hairpiece, it is recommended to perform a (n)

    • A.

      Elasticity test

    • B.

      Strand test

    • C.

      Allergy test

    • D.

      Porosity test

    Correct Answer
    B. Strand test
    Explanation
    A strand test is recommended prior to a full-color application to a wig or hairpiece. This test involves taking a small strand of hair and applying the color to it to see how it reacts. It helps to determine the final color result and also allows for testing the hair's porosity and elasticity. By conducting a strand test, any potential issues or adverse reactions can be identified and addressed before applying the color to the entire wig or hairpiece.

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  • 46. 

    A simple quick stitch that can be used to secure the entire length of a weft to a track is the:

    • A.

      Double-lock stitch

    • B.

      Lock stitch

    • C.

      Moving stitch

    • D.

      Overcast stitch

    Correct Answer
    D. Overcast stitch
    Explanation
    The overcast stitch is a simple and quick stitch that can be used to secure the entire length of a weft to a track. This stitch involves looping the thread over the weft and track, creating a secure and durable hold. It is commonly used in sewing and hair extension applications to prevent the weft from unraveling or coming loose. The overcast stitch is an effective way to ensure that the weft stays in place and maintains its integrity.

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  • 47. 

    Chemical hair texturizers temporarily raise the pH of the hair in order to:

    • A.

      Expand and harden the shaft

    • B.

      Harden and close the shaft

    • C.

      Swell and set the shaft

    • D.

      Soften and swell the shaft

    Correct Answer
    D. Soften and swell the shaft
    Explanation
    Chemical hair texturizers work by temporarily raising the pH of the hair. This process helps to soften and swell the shaft of the hair. By softening the hair, the texturizer makes it more pliable and easier to manipulate into the desired style. The swelling of the hair shaft adds volume and body to the hair, creating a fuller and more textured look.

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  • 48. 

    The building blocks of proteins are:

    • A.

      Polypeptide chains

    • B.

      Chemical acids

    • C.

      Amino acids

    • D.

      Peptide acids

    Correct Answer
    C. Amino acids
    Explanation
    Proteins are composed of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Amino acids are organic compounds that contain an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH). They are linked together through peptide bonds to form polypeptide chains, which then fold and interact to create functional proteins. Chemical acids and peptide acids are not accurate terms to describe the building blocks of proteins, as they do not specifically refer to the amino acids that make up proteins.

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  • 49. 

    Chemical services performed on overly porous hair require solutions that are:

    • A.

      High pH

    • B.

      Alkaline

    • C.

      Diluted

    • D.

      Low pH

    Correct Answer
    D. Low pH
    Explanation
    Chemical services performed on overly porous hair require solutions that are low pH. This is because overly porous hair has a damaged cuticle layer, which makes it more prone to damage and breakage. Using a low pH solution helps to balance the hair's pH level, close the cuticle, and strengthen the hair shaft. It also helps to prevent further damage and improve the overall condition of the hair. Using high pH or alkaline solutions can further damage the hair and worsen its condition. Diluted solutions may not be effective enough to address the specific needs of overly porous hair.

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  • 50. 

    More than any other single factor, what determines the ability of the hair to hold a curl?

    • A.

      Porosity

    • B.

      Absorprion

    • C.

      Elasticity

    • D.

      Density

    Correct Answer
    C. Elasticity
    Explanation
    Elasticity is the ability of hair to stretch and return to its original shape. It determines how well the hair can hold a curl because hair with high elasticity will bounce back and maintain its shape after being curled, while hair with low elasticity will struggle to hold a curl and may straighten out quickly. Porosity refers to the hair's ability to absorb and retain moisture, absorption refers to the process of taking in substances, and density refers to the number of hair strands on the scalp.

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