Simulated CT Exam 1

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Simulated CT Exam 1 - Quiz

Registry review for Computed Tomography


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     The normal range of respiration for an adult is:

    • A.

      5-10 breaths per minute

    • B.

      12-20 breaths per minute

    • C.

      20-30 breaths per minute

    • D.

      35-50 breaths per minute

    Correct Answer
    B. 12-20 breaths per minute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12-20 breaths per minute. This range is considered the normal respiratory rate for an adult. Breathing rates outside of this range may indicate an underlying medical condition or distress.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration:

    • A.

      Sublingual

    • B.

      Intramuscular

    • C.

      Transdermal

    • D.

      Oral

    Correct Answer
    B. Intramuscular
    Explanation
    Intramuscular is a parenteral route of medication administration because it involves injecting the medication directly into the muscle tissue. This bypasses the gastrointestinal tract, allowing for faster absorption and onset of action compared to oral administration. Sublingual administration involves placing the medication under the tongue, transdermal administration involves applying the medication to the skin, and oral administration involves swallowing the medication.

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  • 3. 

    A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following:

    • A.

      Tachycardia

    • B.

      Rapid, shallow breathing

    • C.

      Cyanosis

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A patient in shock may exhibit tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This is because the body tries to compensate for the decreased blood flow by increasing the heart rate. They may also have rapid, shallow breathing as the body tries to get more oxygen. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, may also be present due to inadequate oxygenation. Therefore, all of the above symptoms can be seen in a patient in shock.

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  • 4. 

    A common site for the intravenous injection of iosinated contrast media is the:

    • A.

      Cephalic vein

    • B.

      Antecubital vein

    • C.

      Basilic vein

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all the options provided - the cephalic vein, antecubital vein, and basilic vein - are common sites for the intravenous injection of iosinated contrast media.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following technical factors exhibits a direct effect on patient dose:

    • A.

      Matrix size

    • B.

      Algorithm

    • C.

      Milliampere-seconds (mAs)

    • D.

      Window level

    Correct Answer
    C. Milliampere-seconds (mAs)
    Explanation
    Milliampere-seconds (mAs) directly affects patient dose in medical imaging. mAs is a measure of the total amount of radiation delivered to the patient during an X-ray examination. Increasing the mAs increases the amount of radiation exposure, resulting in a higher patient dose. Conversely, decreasing the mAs reduces the radiation exposure and patient dose. Therefore, mAs is a critical technical factor that directly impacts the amount of radiation a patient receives during a medical imaging procedure.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following infection control techniques is required at the site of an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media:

    • A.

      Contact isolation

    • B.

      Surgical asepsis

    • C.

      Medical asepsis

    • D.

      Enteric precautions

    Correct Answer
    B. Surgical asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical asepsis is the correct answer for this question because it involves the use of sterile techniques to prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the injection site. This is important during intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media to minimize the risk of infection. Contact isolation, medical asepsis, and enteric precautions are not specifically required for this procedure.

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  • 7. 

    Prior to an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast materials, the patient should be questioned regarding:1. renal function2. allergic history3. cardiac history

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      3 only

    • D.

      1,2,3

    Correct Answer
    D. 1,2,3
    Explanation
    Prior to an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast materials, it is important to question the patient regarding their renal function, allergic history, and cardiac history. This is because iodinated contrast materials can have potential adverse effects on these systems. Assessing renal function is crucial as the contrast material is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can increase the risk of complications. Inquiring about allergic history is essential to identify any previous allergic reactions to contrast materials, as this can help determine the appropriate course of action. Additionally, assessing cardiac history is important as contrast materials can affect cardiac function and may need to be used with caution in patients with certain cardiac conditions.

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  • 8. 

    Used in determining the biologic effect of iodinated contrast media, the term ___________ refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociates in solution:

    • A.

      Solubility

    • B.

      Osmolality

    • C.

      Concentration

    • D.

      Iodination

    Correct Answer
    B. Osmolality
    Explanation
    Osmolality refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociates in solution. It is used to determine the biologic effect of iodinated contrast media. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution per kilogram of solvent. It is important in medical imaging as it helps assess the potential for adverse reactions to contrast media. The higher the osmolality of a contrast agent, the greater the risk of causing osmotic imbalances and potential harm to the patient.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following laboratory values can be used to evaluate the renal function of a patient:

    • A.

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

    • B.

      Partial thromboplastin time

    • C.

      Creatinine

    • D.

      Both a and c

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and c
    Explanation
    Both blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine can be used to evaluate the renal function of a patient. BUN is a measure of the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea, which is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated BUN levels can indicate impaired kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product produced by the muscles and filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. High levels of creatinine can also indicate kidney dysfunction. Therefore, both BUN and creatinine are useful laboratory values for assessing renal function.

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  • 10. 

    A (n) _____________ infection is one that patients acquire during their stay in a health care institution:

    • A.

      Blood-borne

    • B.

      Noscomial

    • C.

      Iatrogenic

    • D.

      Staphylococcal

    Correct Answer
    B. Noscomial
    Explanation
    A noscomial infection is one that patients acquire during their stay in a healthcare institution. This type of infection is often associated with hospitals and other healthcare settings, where patients may be exposed to various pathogens. Noscomial infections can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi, and they can affect different parts of the body. These infections are a significant concern in healthcare facilities as they can lead to increased morbidity and mortality rates among patients. Effective infection control measures, such as hand hygiene and proper disinfection protocols, are crucial in preventing noscomial infections.

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  • 11. 

    During CT examinations, patients should be shielded above and below because of:

    • A.

      The rotational nature of the x-ray tube

    • B.

      Extremely high kilovolt peak (kVp) techniques

    • C.

      Lack of filtration of the CT beam

    • D.

      Reduced collimation of the CT beam

    Correct Answer
    A. The rotational nature of the x-ray tube
    Explanation
    During CT examinations, patients should be shielded above and below because of the rotational nature of the x-ray tube. This is because the x-ray tube rotates around the patient, which means that the radiation is emitted from different angles. Shielding above and below helps to protect sensitive organs and tissues from unnecessary radiation exposure.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following would be best suited for intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector:

    • A.

      A butterfly needle

    • B.

      A central venous line

    • C.

      A 23 gauge spinal needle

    • D.

      An angiocatheter

    Correct Answer
    D. An angiocatheter
    Explanation
    An angiocatheter would be best suited for intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector because it is specifically designed for this purpose. It has a sharp needle that can easily penetrate the vein and a catheter that allows for the contrast material to be injected smoothly and efficiently. The angiocatheter also has a connector that can be easily attached to the power injector, ensuring a secure and controlled injection of the contrast material.

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  • 13. 

    Thorough explanation of the CT procedure and proper communication with the patient is vital in ensuring that:1. breathing instructions are properly followed2. misregistration does not occur3. patient anxiety is kept to a minimum

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      1 and 3 only

    • C.

      2 and 3 only

    • D.

      1,2,3

    Correct Answer
    D. 1,2,3
    Explanation
    A thorough explanation of the CT procedure and proper communication with the patient is important to ensure that breathing instructions are properly followed. This is crucial for obtaining accurate images and reducing the risk of motion artifacts. Additionally, clear communication helps to prevent misregistration, which is the misalignment of different images or image slices. Lastly, effective communication helps to alleviate patient anxiety, which can improve cooperation and overall patient experience during the procedure. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

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  • 14. 

    A (n) _______________ contrast material may described as one that does not dissociate into charged particles in solution:

    • A.

      Neutral

    • B.

      Non-ionic

    • C.

      Osmolar

    • D.

      Ionic

    Correct Answer
    D. Ionic
    Explanation
    An ionic contrast material is described as one that dissociates into charged particles in solution. This means that it breaks apart into positive and negative ions. In contrast, a non-ionic contrast material does not dissociate into charged particles in solution. It remains as intact molecules without any charge. Therefore, the correct answer is ionic, as it describes a contrast material that does dissociate into charged particles in solution.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is an accurate method of verifying patient identity:

    • A.

      Calling patients by their full name

    • B.

      Checking the name listed on the medical record

    • C.

      Examining the patient's wrist identification band

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that all of the methods mentioned - calling patients by their full name, checking the name listed on the medical record, and examining the patient's wrist identification band - are accurate methods of verifying patient identity. These methods ensure that the patient's identity is correctly matched with their medical record and helps prevent any potential errors or mix-ups in healthcare settings.

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  • 16. 

    Advantages of automatic power injectors over manual bolus method of intravenous contrast administration include:1. increased tissue enhancement due to faster injection times2. uniform contrast administration over the entire length of the study3. decreased volume of contrast administered

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      3 only

    • C.

      1 and 2 only

    • D.

      2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 and 2 only
    Explanation
    Automatic power injectors have advantages over the manual bolus method of intravenous contrast administration. Firstly, they can provide increased tissue enhancement due to faster injection times. This means that the contrast agent is delivered more quickly and efficiently, resulting in better visualization of the tissues being studied. Secondly, automatic power injectors can ensure uniform contrast administration over the entire length of the study. This helps to maintain consistent image quality throughout the procedure. However, there is no mention of a decreased volume of contrast administered, so option 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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  • 17. 

    The average range for normal adult blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels is approximately:

    • A.

      1-4 mg/dL

    • B.

      5-20 m/dL

    • C.

      23-30 mg/dL

    • D.

      45-60 mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    B. 5-20 m/dL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5-20 mg/dL. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a measure of the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea. Normal adult BUN levels typically range from 5 to 20 mg/dL. This range is considered normal because it indicates that the kidneys are functioning properly and effectively removing waste products from the body. Higher or lower levels may indicate kidney dysfunction or other health issues.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following terms describes a condition in which cerebral ischemia is caused by systemic hypotension?

    • A.

      Vasovagal reaction

    • B.

      Myocardial infarction

    • C.

      Transient ischemic attack

    • D.

      Hydrocephalus

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasovagal reaction
    Explanation
    A vasovagal reaction is a condition in which cerebral ischemia is caused by systemic hypotension. This occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to reduced blood flow to the brain. This can result in symptoms such as lightheadedness, fainting, and loss of consciousness. It is often triggered by emotional stress or pain.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following interactions between x-ray beam and matter results in the largest amount of patient dose?

    • A.

      Characteristic

    • B.

      Compton scatter

    • C.

      Bremsstrahlung

    • D.

      Photoelectric effect

    Correct Answer
    B. Compton scatter
    Explanation
    Compton scatter is the interaction between an x-ray photon and an outer-shell electron, resulting in the photon losing energy and changing direction. This interaction can occur multiple times, leading to a larger amount of scattered radiation and a higher patient dose compared to other interactions like characteristic, bremsstrahlung, or photoelectric effect.

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