Do You Know About SEC+ Study Guide G Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Ctstravis
C
Ctstravis
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 2,494
| Attempts: 134 | Questions: 100
Please wait...
Question 1 / 100
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Which of the following would BEST prevent night shift workers from logging in with IDs and passwords stolen from the day shift workers?

Explanation

Time of day restriction would be the best option to prevent night shift workers from logging in with IDs and passwords stolen from the day shift workers. By implementing time of day restrictions, the system would only allow access during specific hours designated for the night shift workers. This would prevent unauthorized access during other times of the day and limit the potential for misuse of stolen credentials.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Do You Know About SEC+ Study Guide G Quiz - Quiz


To the entire tech crazy people out there who want to see how much they really know about sec+, take this quiz. It is specifically designed to help... see moreyou find out your knowledge that is based on Sec+ study guide. see less

2. QUESTION NO: 607 Which of the following would BEST ensure that users have complex passwords?

Explanation

The domain password policy would be the best option to ensure that users have complex passwords. A domain password policy allows administrators to set specific requirements for passwords, such as minimum length, inclusion of numbers or special characters, and regular password changes. By implementing a domain password policy, users are forced to create passwords that are more complex and difficult to guess, which enhances the overall security of the system.

Submit
3. QUESTION NO: 640 Which of the following BEST describes when a hashing algorithm generates the same hash for two different messages?

Explanation

A collision occurred when a hashing algorithm generates the same hash for two different messages. This means that two different inputs produce the same output, which is undesirable in a hashing algorithm. A collision can happen due to the limited number of possible outputs for a given hash function compared to the infinite number of possible inputs. It is important for hashing algorithms to minimize the likelihood of collisions to ensure the integrity and security of the data.

Submit
4. QUESTION NO: 641 Which of the following is BEST known for self-replication in networks?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious software that is best known for self-replicating in networks. Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to a host program or file in order to spread. Instead, they can independently replicate and spread across a network, taking advantage of vulnerabilities in computer systems. This ability to self-replicate and spread quickly makes worms a particularly dangerous form of malware. Spyware, spam, and adware are different types of malicious software that do not have the same self-replicating capabilities as worms.

Submit
5. QUESTION NO: 644 An outside auditor has been contracted to determine if weak passwords are being used on the network. To do this, the auditor is running a password cracker against the master password file. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a vulnerability assessment. The outside auditor is conducting a systematic evaluation of the network to identify any weak passwords. By running a password cracker against the master password file, the auditor is actively searching for vulnerabilities in the network's security. This assessment helps to identify potential weaknesses and allows for appropriate measures to be taken to strengthen the network's password security.

Submit
6. QUESTION NO: 654 Which of the following is the primary purpose of an audit trail?

Explanation

The primary purpose of an audit trail is to detect when a user changes security permissions. An audit trail is a record of all activities and actions taken within a system, including any changes made to security settings or permissions. By monitoring the audit trail, administrators can identify and investigate any unauthorized or suspicious changes made by users, ensuring the integrity and security of the system.

Submit
7. QUESTION NO: 677 Which of the following is MOST likely to cause pop-ups?

Explanation

Adware is the most likely to cause pop-ups. Adware is a type of software that displays unwanted advertisements on a user's computer, often in the form of pop-up windows. It is designed to generate revenue for the creators by promoting products or services. Unlike other options listed, such as botnets, spam, or rootkits, adware specifically focuses on delivering advertisements to the user, making it the most probable cause of pop-ups.

Submit
8. QUESTION NO: 681 Which of the following is a reason to use digital signatures?

Explanation

A digital signature is used to provide non-repudiation, which means that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it. It ensures the authenticity and integrity of the message by using cryptographic techniques. This is important in situations where it is necessary to prove the identity of the sender and prevent them from denying their involvement in the communication.

Submit
9. QUESTION NO: 686 Which of the following is a true statement in regards to incident response?

Explanation

If a technician finds illegal content, they should follow company incident response procedures. This is a true statement in regards to incident response because it is important for technicians to adhere to their company's established procedures when dealing with illegal content. Following these procedures ensures that the incident is handled appropriately and in accordance with legal requirements. It also helps to protect the company's reputation and minimize any potential legal consequences.

Submit
10. QUESTION NO: 602 Which of the following would be disabled to prevent SPIM?

Explanation

Instant messaging would be disabled to prevent SPIM (spam over instant messaging). SPIM refers to unsolicited messages or advertisements sent through instant messaging platforms. By disabling instant messaging, users can prevent the influx of unwanted messages and reduce the risk of falling victim to scams or malware distributed through these channels.

Submit
11. QUESTION NO: 604 According to a good disaster recovery plan, which of the following must happen during a power outage before an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) drains its battery?

Explanation

During a power outage, a good disaster recovery plan states that the backup generator should activate before the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) drains its battery. This ensures that there is a continuous and reliable power source to keep critical systems and equipment operational until the electrical service is fully restored. By activating the backup generator, it helps to prevent any disruption or downtime that may occur during the power outage.

Submit
12. QUESTION NO: 614 After reading about the vulnerability issues with open SMTP relays, a technician runs an application to see if port 25 is open. This would be considered a:

Explanation

A port scan is a technique used to identify open ports on a network device. In this scenario, the technician is running an application to check if port 25, which is the default port for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), is open. This is done to determine if the network device has an open SMTP relay, which can be a vulnerability. Therefore, the action of checking if port 25 is open is considered a port scan.

Submit
13. QUESTION NO: 619 Which of the following would define document destruction requirements?

Explanation

Storage and retention policies would define document destruction requirements. These policies outline how long documents should be stored and when they should be destroyed. By following these policies, organizations can ensure that sensitive information is securely disposed of when it is no longer needed, reducing the risk of data breaches and unauthorized access.

Submit
14. QUESTION NO: 642 Which of the following security threats affects PCs and can have its software updated remotely by a command and control center?

Explanation

A zombie is a type of malware that infects PCs and allows them to be controlled remotely by a command and control center. This means that the software on the infected PC can be updated and manipulated by the attackers without the user's knowledge or consent. Unlike other types of malware such as worms, viruses, and adware, zombies specifically refer to infected PCs that are under the control of a remote attacker.

Submit
15. QUESTION NO: 648 A vulnerability has recently been identified for a servers OS. Which of the following describes the BEST course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action is to visit the operating system manufacturer's website for a possible patch. This is because the manufacturer's website is the most reliable source for obtaining patches and updates for the operating system. Searching for a patch on a search engine may lead to unreliable or malicious sources. Waiting for an automatic update may take longer and leave the server vulnerable in the meantime. Shutting down all affected servers without proper notification from management may disrupt operations unnecessarily.

Submit
16. QUESTION NO: 667 Which of the following creates an emulated or virtual environment to detect and monitor malicious activity?

Explanation

A honeypot is a tool used to create a virtual environment that mimics a real system or network in order to attract and monitor malicious activity. It is designed to deceive attackers and gather information about their methods and intentions. By luring attackers into the honeypot, security professionals can study their behavior, identify new threats, and develop effective countermeasures. Unlike a firewall, which is used to filter network traffic, a honeypot is specifically created to detect and monitor malicious activity. NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) and NAC (Network Access Control) are not directly related to creating virtual environments for monitoring malicious activity.

Submit
17. QUESTION NO: 685 A technician has come across content on a server that is illegal. Which of the following should the technician do?

Explanation

The technician should follow company approved incident response procedures because they are designed to handle situations like this. These procedures will outline the appropriate steps to take in order to address the illegal content on the server, ensuring that the situation is handled in a legal and appropriate manner. Making a backup of the account and contacting the owner of the data may not be sufficient, as it is important to involve the appropriate authorities and follow established protocols. Copying the system files and contacting the ISP may not be necessary or effective in addressing the illegal content.

Submit
18. QUESTION NO: 690 An instance where an IDS identifies legitimate traffic as malicious activity is called which of the following?

Explanation

A false positive is when an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) incorrectly identifies legitimate traffic as malicious activity. This can occur due to various reasons such as misconfiguration, outdated signature databases, or unusual behavior patterns. It can lead to unnecessary alerts and potentially waste resources by investigating non-existent threats.

Submit
19. QUESTION NO: 610 After performing a vulnerability analysis and applying a security patch, which of the following nonintrusive actions should an administrator take to verify that the vulnerability was truly removed?

Explanation

After performing a vulnerability analysis and applying a security patch, repeating the vulnerability scan is the most appropriate nonintrusive action to verify that the vulnerability was truly removed. This is because a vulnerability scan checks for specific vulnerabilities in a system and identifies any weaknesses that may still exist. By repeating the scan, the administrator can ensure that the patch successfully addressed the vulnerability and that the system is now secure. Applying a security patch from the vendor is a necessary step, but it does not guarantee that the vulnerability is completely removed. Performing a penetration test and updating the antivirus definition file are unrelated to verifying the removal of the vulnerability.

Submit
20. QUESTION NO: 622 Which of the following hidden programs gathers information with or without the users knowledge with the primary purpose of advertising?

Explanation

Spyware is a type of hidden program that collects information from a user's device without their knowledge or consent. The primary purpose of spyware is to gather data for advertising purposes. It can track a user's browsing habits, collect personal information, and display targeted advertisements. Unlike viruses, worms, and Trojans, spyware is specifically designed to gather information rather than causing direct harm to a user's device.

Submit
21. QUESTION NO: 647 A firewall differs from a NIDS in which of the following ways?

Explanation

A firewall operates on a rule list, meaning that it uses a set of predetermined rules to allow or block network traffic. On the other hand, a NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) attempts to detect patterns in network traffic that may indicate an intrusion or attack. This means that a NIDS analyzes the content and behavior of network packets to identify any suspicious activity. Therefore, the correct answer is that a firewall operates on a rule list and a NIDS attempts to detect patterns.

Submit
22. QUESTION NO: 669 Bluetooth discover mode is similar to which of the following?

Explanation

Bluetooth discover mode is similar to SSID broadcast. Just like SSID broadcast is used by Wi-Fi devices to announce their presence and allow other devices to connect to them, Bluetooth discover mode is used by Bluetooth devices to broadcast their availability and allow other devices to discover and connect to them. Both SSID broadcast and Bluetooth discover mode serve the same purpose of facilitating device discovery and connection in their respective wireless technologies.

Submit
23. QUESTION NO: 672 In which of the following logs would notation of a quarantined file appear?

Explanation

A quarantined file is a file that has been identified as potentially harmful or infected by a virus or malware and has been isolated by the antivirus software. Therefore, the notation of a quarantined file would appear in the logs of the antivirus software.

Submit
24. QUESTION NO: 676
Which of the following simplifies user and computer security administration?

Explanation

Directory services simplify user and computer security administration by providing a centralized system for managing and organizing user accounts, permissions, and resources. This allows administrators to easily control access to files, applications, and network resources, reducing the complexity and time required for security administration tasks. Directory services also enable features such as single sign-on, group policies, and authentication services, further enhancing security and streamlining administration processes.

Submit
25. QUESTION NO: 683 Using the same initial computer image for all systems is similar to which of the following?

Explanation

Using the same initial computer image for all systems is similar to configuration baseline. A configuration baseline is a documented set of specifications or standards that all systems must adhere to. By using the same initial computer image for all systems, it ensures that all systems have the same baseline configuration, which simplifies management and ensures consistency across the environment. This approach helps in reducing configuration drift and makes it easier to troubleshoot and maintain systems.

Submit
26. QUESTION NO: 603 A user sees an MD5 hash number beside a file that they wish to download. Which of the following BEST describes a hash?

Explanation

A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the files contents and should be verified after download. This means that the hash is calculated using the content of the file itself, and it serves as a way to ensure the integrity of the downloaded file. By comparing the calculated hash with the provided hash, the user can verify that the file has not been tampered with or corrupted during the download process.

Submit
27. QUESTION NO: 611 Which of the following could be used by a technician needing to send data while ensuring that any data tampering is easily detectible?

Explanation

SHA-1 (Secure Hash Algorithm 1) could be used by a technician needing to send data while ensuring that any data tampering is easily detectable. SHA-1 is a cryptographic hash function that produces a fixed-size output (160 bits) from any given input. It is designed to be a one-way function, meaning that it is computationally infeasible to retrieve the original input from the output. Therefore, if any changes are made to the data during transmission, the resulting hash value will be different, making it easily detectable.

Submit
28. QUESTION NO: 624 Which of the following sites has the means (E. g. equipment, software, and communications) to facilitate a full recovery within minutes?

Explanation

A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has all the necessary equipment, software, and communications in place to facilitate a full recovery within minutes. This means that in the event of a disaster, the hot site can quickly take over and resume operations with minimal downtime. Unlike other types of disaster recovery sites such as warm, reciprocal, or cold sites, a hot site is fully operational and ready to be used immediately.

Submit
29. QUESTION NO: 643 Multiple web servers are fed from a load balancer. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of redundant servers. Multiple web servers are being used to distribute the workload and provide backup in case one server fails. This setup increases reliability and availability of the system, as if one server goes down, the load balancer can redirect traffic to the remaining servers. RAID refers to a data storage technology, backup generator is unrelated to web servers, and a hot site is a backup location for disaster recovery, none of which are applicable in this context.

Submit
30. QUESTION NO: 651 Which of the following tools would be BEST for monitoring changes to the approved system baseline?

Explanation

Enterprise performance monitoring software would be the best tool for monitoring changes to the approved system baseline. This software is specifically designed to track and analyze the performance of an enterprise system, including any changes that occur. It can monitor various metrics such as system uptime, response time, and resource utilization, allowing administrators to identify any deviations from the approved baseline. By using this software, organizations can ensure that the system is functioning as expected and quickly identify any unauthorized or unexpected changes that may impact its performance.

Submit
31. QUESTION NO: 663 Which of the following overwrites the return address within a program to execute malicious code?

Explanation

A buffer overflow occurs when a program tries to write more data into a buffer than it can hold. This can cause the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations, including the return address of a program. By carefully crafting the excess data, an attacker can overwrite the return address with the address of their malicious code. When the function returns, the program jumps to the attacker's code instead of the intended location, allowing them to execute their malicious actions.

Submit
32. QUESTION NO: 670 All of the following are Bluetooth threats EXCEPT:

Explanation

A smurf attack is not a Bluetooth threat. It is a type of DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack that floods a network with ICMP echo request packets, causing it to become overwhelmed and unavailable to users. Bluetooth threats, on the other hand, include blue snarfing (unauthorized access to information on a Bluetooth-enabled device), discovery mode (allowing unauthorized devices to discover and connect to a Bluetooth device), and blue jacking (sending unsolicited messages to nearby Bluetooth devices).

Submit
33. QUESTION NO: 678 Which of the following is MOST likely to open a backdoor on a system?

Explanation

A Trojan is a type of malicious software that disguises itself as a legitimate program or file, tricking the user into downloading or executing it. Once installed on a system, a Trojan can open a backdoor, providing unauthorized access to the system. This backdoor can be used by hackers to gain control over the infected system, steal sensitive information, or launch further attacks. Therefore, a Trojan is the most likely option to open a backdoor on a system compared to a botnet, logic bomb, or worm.

Submit
34. QUESTION NO: 687 If a technician is unable to get to a website by its address but the technician can get there by the IP address, which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

Explanation

If a technician is unable to get to a website by its address but can access it using the IP address, the most likely issue is a problem with the DNS server. DNS servers are responsible for translating domain names (website addresses) into IP addresses. If the DNS server is not functioning properly, it will be unable to resolve the domain name to the correct IP address, resulting in the technician being unable to access the website using the address.

Submit
35. QUESTION NO: 636 Which of the following BEST describes how steganography can be accomplished in graphic files?

Explanation

Steganography in graphic files can be accomplished by replacing the least significant bit of each byte. This method allows for hiding information within the image without significantly altering its appearance. By replacing the least significant bit, the changes made to the image are minimal and difficult to detect, making it an effective technique for concealing information.

Submit
36. QUESTION NO: 627 When placing a NIDS onto the network, the NIC has to be placed in which of the following modes to monitor all network traffic?

Explanation

When placing a NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) onto the network, the NIC (Network Interface Card) has to be placed in promiscuous mode to monitor all network traffic. In promiscuous mode, the NIC captures all packets on the network, including those not addressed to its own MAC address. This allows the NIDS to analyze all network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. Full-duplex, auto, and half-duplex are not relevant to the question and do not allow the NIC to capture all network traffic.

Submit
37. QUESTION NO: 629 Once a system has been compromised, often the attacker will upload various tools that can be used at a later date. The attacker could use which of the following to hide these tools?

Explanation

A rootkit is a type of malicious software that is designed to hide itself and other malicious tools or activities on a compromised system. It is often used by attackers to maintain unauthorized access to a system while avoiding detection. Rootkits can modify system files, processes, and configurations to conceal their presence and make it difficult for security tools to detect and remove them. Therefore, a rootkit is the most suitable option for hiding the tools uploaded by an attacker on a compromised system.

Submit
38. QUESTION NO: 649 Personal software firewalls can be updated automatically using:

Explanation

Personal software firewalls can be updated automatically using group policy. Group policy is a feature in Windows operating systems that allows administrators to manage and control settings for multiple computers in a network. By using group policy, administrators can centrally manage and update the settings of personal software firewalls installed on multiple computers, ensuring that they are up to date and providing the necessary protection against threats.

Submit
39. QUESTION NO: 668 A technician wants better insight into the websites that employees are visiting.Which of the following is BEST suited to accomplish this?

Explanation

A proxy server is the best option to gain better insight into the websites that employees are visiting. A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the user's device and the internet. It can log and monitor all web traffic passing through it, allowing the technician to analyze the websites being accessed by employees. This provides valuable insights into internet usage patterns and helps in enforcing acceptable use policies or identifying potential security risks. DHCP, DNS, and firewall do not provide the same level of visibility and control over web traffic as a proxy server does.

Submit
40. QUESTION NO: 675 All of the following provide a host active protection EXCEPT:

Explanation

Host-based firewall, antivirus, and HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System) all provide active protection for a host. They monitor and control network traffic, scan for and remove malware, and detect and prevent unauthorized access and attacks. However, HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System) is a passive protection system that monitors and logs activity on a host, but does not actively prevent or block threats.

Submit
41. QUESTION NO: 692 An instance where a biometric system identifies users that are authorized and allows them access is called which of the following?

Explanation

A true positive refers to a situation where a biometric system correctly identifies and grants access to users who are authorized. In other words, the system accurately recognizes and accepts individuals who have the proper credentials or biometric data to gain access. This is the desired outcome for a biometric system, as it ensures that authorized individuals are granted access while unauthorized individuals are denied.

Submit
42. QUESTION NO: 698 Which of the following BEST describes the disaster recovery plan?

Explanation

The correct answer is A detailed process of recovering information or IT systems after a catastrophic event. This option accurately describes a disaster recovery plan as a comprehensive process that outlines the steps and procedures for recovering information or IT systems in the event of a catastrophic event. It emphasizes the focus on recovering and restoring the affected systems and data.

Submit
43. QUESTION NO: 618 A company is addressing backup and recovery issues. The company is looking for a compromise between speed of backup and speed of recovery. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

Explanation

Performing full backups weekly ensures that all data is backed up, providing a comprehensive backup solution. Additionally, performing daily differential backups captures any changes made since the last full backup, minimizing data loss in the event of a failure. This approach strikes a balance between the speed of backup (weekly) and the speed of recovery (daily differentials), offering a compromise between the two.

Submit
44. QUESTION NO: 630 Which of the following is the perfect encryption scheme and is considered unbreakable when properly used?

Explanation

The one-time pad is considered the perfect encryption scheme and is considered unbreakable when properly used. This is because it uses a random key that is as long as the plaintext, making it impossible for an attacker to decipher the message without the key. The key is only used once and then discarded, hence the name "one-time pad." This ensures that there are no patterns or repetitions that could be exploited by an attacker.

Submit
45. QUESTION NO: 658 Which of the following is the primary purpose of removing audit logs from a server?

Explanation

The primary purpose of removing audit logs from a server is to protect against the log file being changed. By removing the logs, unauthorized individuals are prevented from tampering with or altering the records, ensuring the integrity and reliability of the information stored in the logs. This helps to maintain the accuracy of the audit trail and preserve the evidence of any potential security incidents or unauthorized activities that may have occurred on the server.

Submit
46. QUESTION NO: 664 Heaps and stacks are susceptible to which of the following?

Explanation

Heaps and stacks are susceptible to buffer overflows. A buffer overflow occurs when a program tries to write more data into a buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to the corruption of data, crashing of the program, and potentially the execution of malicious code. Buffer overflows are a common vulnerability in software and can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or control over a system.

Submit
47. QUESTION NO: 679 If a company has a distributed IT staff, each being responsible for separate facilities, which of the following would be the BEST way to structure a directory information tree?

Explanation

The best way to structure a directory information tree for a company with a distributed IT staff responsible for separate facilities would be to structure it by location. This would allow for easy navigation and organization based on the physical location of each facility. It would also make it simpler to assign and manage access rights and permissions based on the specific needs and requirements of each location.

Submit
48. QUESTION NO: 632 Which of the following is the MOST basic form of IDS?

Explanation

Signature-based IDS is the most basic form of IDS. It works by comparing network traffic or system activity against a database of known attack patterns or signatures. When a match is found, it alerts the system administrator. This type of IDS is effective in detecting known attacks but may not be able to detect new or unknown attacks.

Submit
49. QUESTION NO: 608 A technician finds that a malicious user has introduced an unidentified virus to a single file on the network. Which of the following would BEST allow for the user to be identified?

Explanation

Access logs would be the best option to identify the malicious user who introduced the virus to the file on the network. Access logs record information about user activities, including login attempts, file access, and network connections. By analyzing the access logs, the technician can track the user's actions and determine who accessed the file at the time when the virus was introduced. This can help in identifying the malicious user and taking appropriate actions to prevent further incidents.

Submit
50. QUESTION NO: 609 Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to find the IP address of an external attacker?

Explanation

Firewall logs would be the best option to find the IP address of an external attacker. Firewall logs record all incoming and outgoing network traffic, including the IP addresses of the source and destination. By analyzing the firewall logs, an administrator can identify suspicious or unauthorized connections and determine the IP address of the attacker. Antivirus logs may provide information about detected threats, but they may not necessarily include the IP address of the attacker. DNS logs can help identify domain names associated with the attacker, but not their IP address. Performance logs are unlikely to provide any relevant information in this context.

Submit
51. QUESTION NO: 666 Which of the following would a technician use to validate whether specific network traffic is indeed an attack

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool used by technicians to capture and analyze network traffic. It can help validate whether specific network traffic is indeed an attack by examining the packets and protocols used. By analyzing the data, the technician can identify any suspicious or malicious activity, such as unusual or unauthorized network connections, abnormal traffic patterns, or known attack signatures. This allows them to take appropriate action to mitigate the attack and protect the network.

Submit
52. QUESTION NO: 671 Which of the following is the BEST approach when reducing firewall logs?

Explanation

The best approach when reducing firewall logs is to discard known traffic first. This means that any traffic that is already known to be safe and legitimate can be filtered out and not included in the log analysis. By doing this, the focus can then be shifted to reviewing and analyzing the remaining traffic that may be potentially suspicious or malicious. This approach helps to streamline the log analysis process and prioritize the investigation of potentially risky traffic.

Submit
53. QUESTION NO: 689 In a NIDS, which of the following provides a user interface?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Console". In a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS), the console provides the user interface. The console allows the user to interact with the NIDS, view alerts and logs, configure settings, and manage the system. It serves as a central point of control and monitoring for the NIDS. The filter is a component of the NIDS that helps to analyze network traffic, while the screen and appliance are not directly related to the user interface in this context.

Submit
54. QUESTION NO: 694 An instance where a biometric system identifies unauthorized users and allows them access is called:

Explanation

False acceptance refers to a situation where a biometric system incorrectly identifies unauthorized users as authorized and grants them access. This means that the system fails to accurately distinguish between authorized and unauthorized individuals, leading to a security breach. In this instance, the biometric system mistakenly accepts the unauthorized users, allowing them access to the system or facility.

Submit
55. QUESTION NO: 697 Who should be notified FIRST before testing the disaster recovery plan?

Explanation

Before testing the disaster recovery plan, senior management should be notified first. This is because senior management holds the highest level of authority and decision-making power within an organization. They need to be informed about the testing process so that they can provide guidance, support, and allocate necessary resources for the successful implementation of the plan. Additionally, senior management's involvement ensures that the plan aligns with the organization's overall goals and objectives.

Submit
56. QUESTION NO: 601 A user ID, PIN, and a palm scan are all required to authenticate a system. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of two-factor authentication because it requires two different factors (user ID and PIN, and palm scan) to authenticate the system. Two-factor authentication provides an extra layer of security by combining something the user knows (PIN) with something the user has (palm scan) to verify their identity.

Submit
57. QUESTION NO: 631 When using a digital signature, the message digest is encrypted with which of the following keys?

Explanation

When using a digital signature, the message digest is encrypted with the sender's private key. This is because the sender's private key is used to create the digital signature, which is a unique encrypted representation of the message digest. By encrypting the message digest with the sender's private key, it ensures that only the sender, who possesses the corresponding private key, could have created the digital signature. This provides authentication and integrity to the message, as the receiver can verify the digital signature using the sender's public key.

Submit
58. QUESTION NO: 639 An administrator in an organization with 33,000 users would like to store six months of Internet proxy logs on a dedicated logging server for analysis and content reporting. The reports are not time critical, but are required by upper management for legal obligations. All of the following apply when determining the requirements for the logging server EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given correct answer is "performance baseline and audit trails." This means that when determining the requirements for the logging server, factors such as log details and level of verbose logging, time stamping and integrity of the logs, and log storage and backup requirements should be considered. However, the performance baseline and audit trails are not mentioned as factors to consider.

Submit
59. QUESTION NO: 646 Logic bombs differ from worms in that:

Explanation

Logic bombs are malicious code that are programmed to execute a harmful action when a specific condition is met, such as a certain date or time. Unlike worms, logic bombs do not have the ability to spread from computer to computer or be sent through email. While logic bombs can potentially contain a Trojan component, this is not a defining characteristic of logic bombs. Therefore, the correct answer is that logic bombs always have a date or time component.

Submit
60. QUESTION NO: 617 The company policy for availability requires full backups on Sunday and incremental backups each week night at 10 p.m. The file server crashes on Wednesday afternoon; how many tapes will the technician need to restore the data on the file server for Thursday morning?

Explanation

The technician will need three tapes to restore the data on the file server for Thursday morning. This is because the company policy requires full backups on Sunday and incremental backups each weeknight at 10 p.m. Since the file server crashed on Wednesday afternoon, the technician will need the full backup from Sunday, as well as the incremental backups from Monday and Tuesday night, to restore the data up until Thursday morning. Therefore, a total of three tapes will be needed.

Submit
61. QUESTION NO: 695 When executing a disaster recovery plan the MOST important thing to consider is:

Explanation

When executing a disaster recovery plan, the safety and welfare of personnel should be the most important consideration. This means ensuring that employees and individuals are safe and protected during the recovery process. While financial obligations to stockholders and legal and financial responsibilities are important, the immediate concern should be the well-being of the people involved. Additionally, data backups and recovery tapes are essential for the recovery process, but without prioritizing the safety and welfare of personnel, the execution of the plan may be compromised.

Submit
62. QUESTION NO: 605 Which of the following would give a technician the MOST information regarding an external attack on the network?

Explanation

A Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) would provide the technician with the most information regarding an external attack on the network. NIDS monitors network traffic and analyzes it for signs of malicious activity or unauthorized access attempts. It can detect various types of attacks, such as port scanning, denial of service attacks, and malware infections. By analyzing network packets, NIDS can provide detailed information about the source, destination, and nature of the attack, allowing the technician to take appropriate actions to mitigate the threat.

Submit
63. QUESTION NO: 637
An application developer is looking for an encryption algorithm which is fast and hard to break if a large key size is used. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?

Explanation

Symmetric encryption algorithms are fast and provide strong security when a large key size is used. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making it efficient for large amounts of data. The encryption and decryption processes are relatively simple and quick, making it a suitable choice for applications that require speed. Additionally, by using a large key size, the encryption becomes harder to break, providing a higher level of security. Therefore, symmetric encryption is the best choice for the application developer's requirements.

Submit
64. QUESTION NO: 623
Which of the following provides best practice with a wireless network?

Explanation

WPA with RADIUS is considered the best practice for a wireless network because it combines the security features of WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) with the authentication and authorization capabilities of RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service). This combination provides stronger encryption and authentication, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to access the network. WPA with RADIUS also allows for centralized management and control of user access, making it easier to monitor and manage the network's security.

Submit
65. QUESTION NO: 625 When conducting an environmental security assessment, which of the following items should be included in the assessment? (Select THREE).

Explanation

When conducting an environmental security assessment, it is important to include the assessment of HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) systems as they can impact the overall security and safety of the environment. Utilities should also be included in the assessment as they play a crucial role in maintaining the functionality and security of the environment. Fire detection systems are essential for identifying and preventing fire hazards, making them an important component of the assessment.

Submit
66. QUESTION NO: 645 Password crackers:

Explanation

Password crackers are software tools or programs that are designed to guess or crack passwords. They use various techniques such as brute force attacks, dictionary attacks, and rainbow table attacks to try and guess the password. In some cases, password crackers are able to crack passwords for both Windows and UNIX systems. This means that they can be used to gain unauthorized access to user accounts on both types of operating systems. However, it is important to note that password crackers cannot exploit weaknesses in encryption algorithms and they cannot be run remotely.

Submit
67. QUESTION NO: 650 An accountant has logged onto the company's external banking website. An administrator using a TCP/IP monitoring tool discovers that the accountant was actually using a spoofed banking website. Which of the following could have caused this attack? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The accountant could have fallen victim to an attack involving an altered hosts file, which redirects the user to a fake banking website instead of the legitimate one. This can be done by modifying the hosts file on the accountant's computer to point to the IP address of the spoofed website. Additionally, DNS poisoning could have been used to redirect the accountant's requests for the legitimate banking website to the spoofed website, leading them to believe they were accessing the real site.

Submit
68. QUESTION NO: 652 All of the following security applications can proactively detect workstation anomalies EXCEPT:

Explanation

NIDS stands for Network Intrusion Detection System, which is designed to detect and prevent network-based attacks. While NIDS can detect anomalies at the network level, it is not specifically designed to detect anomalies on individual workstations. On the other hand, antivirus software, personal software firewalls, and HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System) are all security applications that can proactively detect anomalies on workstations by monitoring for malicious software, unauthorized access attempts, and abnormal behavior.

Submit
69. QUESTION NO: 700 In order to provide management with a prioritized list of time critical business processes, an administrator would assist in conducting a:

Explanation

A business impact assessment is conducted in order to provide management with a prioritized list of time critical business processes. This assessment helps determine the potential impact of disruptions to these processes and allows management to prioritize their resources and efforts accordingly. It helps identify the criticality of each process and the potential consequences of their failure, enabling management to make informed decisions and allocate resources effectively.

Submit
70. QUESTION NO: 613
Which of the following is the primary security risk associated with removable storage?

Explanation

The primary security risk associated with removable storage is confidentiality. This means that there is a risk of unauthorized individuals gaining access to the data stored on the removable storage device. This could be through theft or loss of the device, or through hacking or unauthorized access to the device. If the data on the removable storage device contains sensitive or confidential information, such as personal or financial data, its confidentiality could be compromised if it falls into the wrong hands.

Submit
71. QUESTION NO: 628 An administrator wants to obtain a view of the type of attacks that are being targeted against the network perimeter. The recommended placement of a NIDS would be:

Explanation

Placing a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) outside the firewall is the recommended placement to obtain a view of the type of attacks targeting the network perimeter. By positioning the NIDS outside the firewall, it can monitor traffic before it reaches the protected network, allowing for early detection and prevention of potential attacks. Placing the NIDS inside the firewall or DMZ would limit its visibility and effectiveness in detecting perimeter attacks. Similarly, placing it inside the proxy would only provide visibility into traffic that has already passed through the firewall. Therefore, the best placement for the NIDS is outside the firewall.

Submit
72. QUESTION NO: 653 A periodic security audit of group policy can:

Explanation

A periodic security audit of group policy can show that unnecessary services are blocked on workstations. This means that the audit can identify and verify that only essential services are enabled on workstations, reducing the attack surface and minimizing potential vulnerabilities. By blocking unnecessary services, organizations can enhance the security posture of their network and reduce the risk of exploitation by malicious actors.

Submit
73. QUESTION NO: 655 Which of the following describes a characteristic of the session key in an SSL connection?

Explanation

The session key in an SSL connection is symmetric, meaning that the same key is used for both encryption and decryption of data. This allows for efficient and fast encryption and decryption processes. Symmetric encryption algorithms are commonly used in SSL/TLS to secure data transmitted over the internet.

Submit
74. QUESTION NO: 659 Which of the following describes a common problem encountered when conducting audit log reviews?

Explanation

A common problem encountered when conducting audit log reviews is that the timestamp for the servers are not synchronized. This means that the time recorded in the audit logs may not accurately reflect the actual sequence of events. This can make it difficult to analyze and correlate the logs, potentially leading to inaccurate conclusions or missed security incidents. It is important for the servers to have synchronized time settings to ensure the integrity and reliability of the audit logs.

Submit
75. QUESTION NO: 661 A technician is conducting a password audit using a password cracking tool. Which of the following describes a BEST business practice when conducting a password audit?

Explanation

Using password masking is the best business practice when conducting a password audit. Password masking ensures that the passwords being audited are not revealed or exposed to anyone, including the technician conducting the audit. This helps maintain the security and confidentiality of the passwords being audited, preventing any unauthorized access or misuse. By using password masking, the technician can still analyze the strength and complexity of the passwords without compromising their security.

Submit
76. QUESTION NO: 662 Which of the following is a security risk when using peer-to-peer software?

Explanation

When using peer-to-peer software, one of the security risks is data leakage. This refers to the unauthorized or accidental release of sensitive or confidential information. Peer-to-peer software allows users to share files directly with each other, which can potentially lead to the unintentional sharing of sensitive data. This can occur if users mistakenly share files that contain personal or confidential information, or if the software is not properly secured and allows unauthorized access to files. Data leakage can pose a significant risk to individuals and organizations, as it can result in identity theft, financial loss, or damage to reputation.

Submit
77. QUESTION NO: 680 A technician wants to be able to add new users to a few key groups by default, which of the following would allow this?

Explanation

A template would allow the technician to add new users to a few key groups by default. By creating a template, the technician can define the necessary group memberships for new users, making it easier to add them to the desired groups without having to manually assign the memberships each time. This saves time and ensures consistency in the group assignments for new users.

Submit
78. QUESTION NO: 682 All of the following are logical access control methods EXCEPT:

Explanation

Biometrics is not a logical access control method because it involves using physical characteristics, such as fingerprints or iris scans, to authenticate a user's identity. Logical access control methods, on the other hand, involve the use of software or policies to control access to computer systems or data. ACL (Access Control List), software tokens, and group policy are all examples of logical access control methods that are commonly used in computer security.

Submit
79. QUESTION NO: 699 Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing a disaster recovery plan?

Explanation

Management buy-in is the most important consideration when developing a disaster recovery plan because without the support and commitment of top-level management, it will be difficult to allocate the necessary resources, budget, and personnel for the plan. Management buy-in ensures that the plan is given priority and that it will be effectively implemented and maintained. It also helps in obtaining necessary approvals and support from stakeholders, which is crucial for the success of the disaster recovery plan.

Submit
80. QUESTION NO: 612 Which of the following BEST allows for a high level of encryption?

Explanation

AES with ECC (Elliptic Curve Cryptography) is the best option for achieving a high level of encryption. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm widely recognized for its security and efficiency. ECC is a public-key cryptography algorithm that uses the mathematics of elliptic curves to provide strong encryption. Combining AES with ECC provides a high level of security and is commonly used in modern cryptographic systems. DES with SHA-1, PGP with SHA-1, and 3DES with MD5 are all older encryption algorithms that are considered less secure compared to AES with ECC.

Submit
81. QUESTION NO: 665 All of the following are inline devices EXCEPT:

Explanation

Inline devices are devices that are placed in the network path and actively inspect and control the traffic passing through them. NIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention System), firewalls, and routers are all examples of inline devices as they are placed between different network segments and actively monitor and control the traffic. HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System), on the other hand, is not an inline device as it is installed on individual host systems and monitors the activities on those specific hosts.

Submit
82. QUESTION NO: 693 An instance where an IDS identifies malicious activity as being legitimate activity is called which of the following?

Explanation

A false negative occurs when an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) incorrectly identifies malicious activity as being legitimate activity. This means that the IDS fails to detect the actual threat and allows it to go unnoticed. False negatives can be problematic as they can lead to security breaches and allow attackers to carry out their malicious activities undetected.

Submit
83. QUESTION NO: 635 Steganography could be used by attackers to

Explanation

Steganography is a technique used to hide and conceal messages within different types of media files, such as images, audio files, or videos. In this case, the correct answer states that steganography can be used by attackers to hide and conceal messages specifically in WAV files. WAV files are audio files commonly used for storing high-quality audio recordings. Attackers can exploit the unused space within the WAV file to embed secret messages, making it difficult to detect the presence of the hidden information.

Submit
84. QUESTION NO: 626 Which of the following security steps must a user complete before access is given to the network?

Explanation

Before access is given to the network, a user must complete the steps of identification and authentication. Identification refers to the process of providing a unique identifier, such as a username or email address, to verify the user's identity. Authentication, on the other hand, involves validating the user's identity by providing a password or some other form of credentials. These two steps ensure that the user is who they claim to be before granting them access to the network.

Submit
85. QUESTION NO: 674 Which of the following encryption algorithms relies on the inability to factor large prime numbers?

Explanation

RSA is an encryption algorithm that relies on the inability to factor large prime numbers. It is based on the fact that it is computationally difficult to factorize the product of two large prime numbers. This property makes RSA a secure encryption algorithm, as it would take an impractical amount of time and resources to factorize the large prime numbers used in the encryption process.

Submit
86. QUESTION NO: 634 Which of the following can steganography be used for?

Explanation

Steganography can be used to embed hidden information within digital media, such as images or audio files, without altering the perceptual quality. In this case, watermarking graphics for copyright protection involves hiding a unique identifier or ownership information within an image, making it difficult for unauthorized users to remove or claim ownership of the image. Steganography does not involve decrypting or encrypting data, but rather focuses on concealing information within media files.

Submit
87. QUESTION NO: 638 Which of the following if used incorrectly would be susceptible to frequency analysis?

Explanation

Transposition ciphers would be susceptible to frequency analysis if used incorrectly. Frequency analysis is a technique used to analyze the frequency of letters or characters in a ciphertext to determine the underlying plaintext. Transposition ciphers, unlike symmetric and asymmetric algorithms, do not change the letters themselves but rearrange their positions. If the transposition cipher is used incorrectly, the frequency patterns of the original plaintext may still be visible in the ciphertext, making it vulnerable to frequency analysis.

Submit
88. QUESTION NO: 616 Which of the following backup techniques resets the archive bit and allows for the fastest recovery?

Explanation

A full backup is a backup technique that copies all the data and files from a system. It resets the archive bit, which is a flag that indicates whether a file has been modified since the last backup. By resetting the archive bit, a full backup ensures that all the data is backed up, regardless of whether it has been modified or not. This allows for the fastest recovery because all the data is readily available in the backup, eliminating the need to restore multiple incremental or differential backups.

Submit
89. QUESTION NO: 660 A technician is conducting a web server audit and discovers that SSLv2 is implementeD. The technician wants to recommend that the organization consider using TLS. Which of the following reasons could the technician use to support the recommendation?

Explanation

SSLv2 is susceptible to man-in-the-middle attacks. This means that an attacker could intercept the communication between the web server and the client, allowing them to eavesdrop on sensitive information or even modify the data being transmitted. By recommending the use of TLS (Transport Layer Security), the technician is suggesting a more secure protocol that is not vulnerable to these types of attacks.

Submit
90. QUESTION NO: 688 Which of the following is placed in promiscuous mode, in line with the data flow, to allow a NIDS to monitor the traffic?

Explanation

A sensor is placed in promiscuous mode to allow a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) to monitor the traffic. In promiscuous mode, the sensor captures all network traffic passing through it, regardless of the destination or source. This allows the NIDS to analyze the traffic for any suspicious or malicious activity. The sensor acts as a passive observer, monitoring the data flow without actively participating in it.

Submit
91. QUESTION NO: 633 Which of the following BEST applies to steganography?

Explanation

Steganography is the practice of hiding information within other information in such a way that it is not easily detectable. Unlike encryption, which uses algorithms to scramble data, steganography does not involve encryption algorithms. Instead, it focuses on concealing the existence of the hidden data. Therefore, the statement "Algorithms are not used to encrypt data" is the best description of steganography.

Submit
92. QUESTION NO: 673 Which of the following provides the MOST mathematically secure encryption for a file?

Explanation

AES256 provides the most mathematically secure encryption for a file. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a 256-bit key size, making it extremely difficult to crack. It has been widely adopted and is considered one of the most secure encryption methods available. The other options, such as 3DES, One-time pad, and Elliptic curve, may also provide security but AES256 is considered the most secure among them.

Submit
93. QUESTION NO: 620 Part of a standard policy for hardening workstations and servers should include applying the company security template and:

Explanation

Applying the company security template helps to enforce consistent security configurations across workstations and servers. Installing the NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) is a separate security measure that helps to detect and prevent network-based attacks. Applying all updates, patches, and hotfixes immediately is also important for maintaining the security and stability of the systems. Disabling SSID broadcast is a measure specifically related to wireless network security. However, closing unnecessary network ports is a critical step in hardening workstations and servers as it reduces the attack surface and limits potential entry points for attackers.

Submit
94. QUESTION NO: 656 Which of the following describes the cryptographic algorithm employed by TLS to establish a session key?

Explanation

Diffie-Hellman is the cryptographic algorithm employed by TLS to establish a session key. Diffie-Hellman allows two parties to securely exchange cryptographic keys over an insecure channel. It provides a way for the client and server to agree on a shared secret without transmitting it directly. This key exchange is an important step in establishing a secure and encrypted communication channel between the client and server in TLS.

Submit
95. QUESTION NO: 657 Which of the following describes how TLS protects against man-in-the-middle attacks?

Explanation

TLS protects against man-in-the-middle attacks by ensuring that the client compares the actual DNS name of the server to the DNS name on the certificate. This helps to verify the authenticity of the server and prevent attackers from intercepting the communication between the client and server. By comparing the DNS names, the client can detect if there is any mismatch or discrepancy, which could indicate a potential man-in-the-middle attack. This verification process adds an extra layer of security to the TLS protocol and helps to establish a secure and trusted connection between the client and server.

Submit
96. QUESTION NO: 691 An instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as being unauthorized is called which of the following?

Explanation

False rejection refers to a situation where a biometric system incorrectly identifies legitimate users as unauthorized. This means that the system fails to recognize and authenticate individuals who should have been granted access. It is a type of error that can occur in biometric systems and can be caused by various factors such as poor quality of biometric data, environmental conditions, or technical issues with the system itself. False rejection can lead to inconvenience and frustration for legitimate users who are denied access, highlighting the importance of ensuring the accuracy and reliability of biometric systems.

Submit
97. QUESTION NO: 615 A companys accounting application requires users to be administrators for the software to function correctly. Because of the security implications of this, a network administrator builds a user profile which allows the user to still use the application but no longer requires them to have administrator permissions. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of a security template. A security template is a predefined configuration that sets the security settings for a system or application. In this case, the network administrator has created a security template that modifies the user profile to allow users to use the accounting application without needing administrator permissions. This ensures that the application can still function correctly while reducing the security implications of granting administrative access to all users.

Submit
98. QUESTION NO: 684 Which of the following has the LEAST amount of issues when inspecting encrypted traffic?

Explanation

When inspecting encrypted traffic, antivirus software typically has the least amount of issues compared to the other options listed. This is because antivirus software is specifically designed to scan and detect malware or malicious activities within encrypted traffic. It is equipped with advanced algorithms and heuristics that can analyze the behavior and patterns of encrypted data without compromising privacy or security. On the other hand, firewalls, NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection Systems), and NIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention Systems) may face challenges in inspecting encrypted traffic due to the complexity of encryption protocols and the inability to decrypt the data for analysis.

Submit
99. QUESTION NO: 621 Setting a baseline is required in which of the following? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Setting a baseline is required in anomaly-based monitoring and NIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention System). In anomaly-based monitoring, a baseline is established to determine what is considered normal behavior in a system or network. Any deviations from this baseline are flagged as potential anomalies or threats. Similarly, in NIPS, a baseline is set to establish the normal network traffic patterns and behavior. This baseline helps in identifying and preventing any abnormal or malicious activities on the network.

Submit
100. QUESTION NO: 696 When choosing a disaster recovery site, which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Explanation

The most important consideration when choosing a disaster recovery site is the amount of emergency rescue personnel available. This is crucial because in the event of a disaster, the safety and well-being of individuals is of utmost importance. Having an adequate number of emergency rescue personnel ensures that prompt and effective assistance can be provided to those affected by the disaster. This can help save lives and minimize the impact of the disaster. Therefore, the amount of emergency rescue personnel is the most important consideration when selecting a disaster recovery site.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 26, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Ctstravis
Cancel
  • All
    All (100)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Which of the following would BEST prevent night shift workers from...
QUESTION NO: 607 ...
QUESTION NO: 640 ...
QUESTION NO: 641 ...
QUESTION NO: 644 ...
QUESTION NO: 654 ...
QUESTION NO: 677 ...
QUESTION NO: 681 ...
QUESTION NO: 686 ...
QUESTION NO: 602 ...
QUESTION NO: 604 ...
QUESTION NO: 614 ...
QUESTION NO: 619 ...
QUESTION NO: 642 ...
QUESTION NO: 648 ...
QUESTION NO: 667 ...
QUESTION NO: 685 ...
QUESTION NO: 690 ...
QUESTION NO: 610 ...
QUESTION NO: 622 ...
QUESTION NO: 647 ...
QUESTION NO: 669 ...
QUESTION NO: 672 ...
QUESTION NO: 676 ...
QUESTION NO: 683 ...
QUESTION NO: 603 ...
QUESTION NO: 611 ...
QUESTION NO: 624 ...
QUESTION NO: 643 ...
QUESTION NO: 651 ...
QUESTION NO: 663 ...
QUESTION NO: 670 All of the following are Bluetooth threats EXCEPT:
QUESTION NO: 678 ...
QUESTION NO: 687 ...
QUESTION NO: 636 ...
QUESTION NO: 627 ...
QUESTION NO: 629 ...
QUESTION NO: 649 ...
QUESTION NO: 668 ...
QUESTION NO: 675 ...
QUESTION NO: 692 ...
QUESTION NO: 698 ...
QUESTION NO: 618 ...
QUESTION NO: 630 ...
QUESTION NO: 658 ...
QUESTION NO: 664 ...
QUESTION NO: 679 ...
QUESTION NO: 632 ...
QUESTION NO: 608 ...
QUESTION NO: 609 ...
QUESTION NO: 666 ...
QUESTION NO: 671 ...
QUESTION NO: 689 ...
QUESTION NO: 694 ...
QUESTION NO: 697 ...
QUESTION NO: 601 ...
QUESTION NO: 631 ...
QUESTION NO: 639 ...
QUESTION NO: 646 Logic bombs differ from worms in that:
QUESTION NO: 617 ...
QUESTION NO: 695 ...
QUESTION NO: 605 ...
QUESTION NO: 637 ...
QUESTION NO: 623 ...
QUESTION NO: 625 ...
QUESTION NO: 645 Password crackers:
QUESTION NO: 650 ...
QUESTION NO: 652 ...
QUESTION NO: 700 ...
QUESTION NO: 613 ...
QUESTION NO: 628 ...
QUESTION NO: 653 A periodic security audit of group policy can:
QUESTION NO: 655 ...
QUESTION NO: 659 ...
QUESTION NO: 661 ...
QUESTION NO: 662 ...
QUESTION NO: 680 ...
QUESTION NO: 682 ...
QUESTION NO: 699 ...
QUESTION NO: 612 ...
QUESTION NO: 665 All of the following are inline devices EXCEPT:
QUESTION NO: 693 ...
QUESTION NO: 635 Steganography could be used by attackers to
QUESTION NO: 626 ...
QUESTION NO: 674 ...
QUESTION NO: 634 ...
QUESTION NO: 638 ...
QUESTION NO: 616 ...
QUESTION NO: 660 ...
QUESTION NO: 688 ...
QUESTION NO: 633 ...
QUESTION NO: 673 ...
QUESTION NO: 620 ...
QUESTION NO: 656 ...
QUESTION NO: 657 ...
QUESTION NO: 691 ...
QUESTION NO: 615 ...
QUESTION NO: 684 ...
QUESTION NO: 621 ...
QUESTION NO: 696 ...
Alert!

Advertisement