How Well You Know SEC+ Study Guide D Quiz

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1. QUESTION NO: 324 Which of the following should the technician recommend as a way to logically separate various internal networks from each other?

Explanation

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical network that allows for the segmentation and separation of different internal networks. By creating separate VLANs, the technician can ensure that each network remains isolated and secure, while still being able to communicate with each other when necessary. This can help to prevent unauthorized access and improve network performance by reducing broadcast traffic. VLANs can be configured on network switches, and devices within the same VLAN can communicate with each other as if they were connected to the same physical network, even if they are physically located in different areas.

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How Well You Know SEC+ Study Guide D Quiz - Quiz


A majority of people spends most of their time on the internet either doing research or just checking on their online presence. If you are a Sec+ student... see moretake this quiz to find how much you know about the subject and more. see less

2. QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following is commonly programmed into an application for ease of administration?

Explanation

A back door is commonly programmed into an application for ease of administration. It allows authorized individuals to bypass normal authentication processes and gain access to the system or application. This can be useful for system administrators or developers who need to troubleshoot or make changes without going through the usual authentication steps. However, back doors can also be exploited by unauthorized individuals, making them a potential security risk if not properly managed and secured.

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3. QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of telephone social engineering?

Explanation

Awareness training reduces the effectiveness of telephone social engineering by educating individuals about the tactics and techniques used by social engineers. This training helps individuals recognize and respond appropriately to suspicious or manipulative phone calls, reducing the likelihood of falling victim to social engineering attacks. By increasing awareness and knowledge, individuals are better equipped to identify and protect against social engineering attempts, ultimately reducing their effectiveness.

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4. QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following will execute malicious code at a pre-specified time?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is designed to execute at a pre-specified time or when a specific condition is met. It is typically inserted into a computer system by a malicious insider, and its purpose is to cause harm or disruption to the system or its data. Once triggered, a logic bomb can delete files, corrupt data, or perform other malicious actions. Unlike a worm or a rootkit, which are designed to spread or gain unauthorized access, a logic bomb is specifically programmed to activate at a certain time or under certain conditions.

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5. QUESTION NO: 318 When should a technician perform disaster recovery testing?

Explanation

The correct answer is "In accordance with the disaster recovery plan". Disaster recovery testing should be performed according to the plan that has been developed and documented for the organization. This plan outlines the procedures and steps to be taken in the event of a disaster, including when and how testing should be conducted. Following the plan ensures that testing is done at the appropriate times and in the most effective way to ensure the organization's ability to recover from a disaster.

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6. QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following should be done if an organization intends to prosecute an attacker once an attack has been completed?

Explanation

If an organization intends to prosecute an attacker once an attack has been completed, they should apply proper forensic techniques. Forensic techniques involve collecting and analyzing evidence from the affected systems to identify the attacker, understand the attack methodology, and gather evidence that can be used in legal proceedings. This includes preserving and documenting the state of the affected systems, conducting a thorough investigation, and following legal procedures to ensure the collected evidence is admissible in court. Updating antivirus definitions, disconnecting the network, and restoring missing files are important steps in incident response but do not directly relate to prosecuting the attacker.

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7. QUESTION NO: 361 Which of the following would allow a technician to compile a visual view of an infrastructure?

Explanation

A network mapper is a tool that allows a technician to compile a visual view of an infrastructure. It scans the network and creates a map of all the devices and connections present. This map provides a visual representation of the network, making it easier for the technician to understand and analyze the infrastructure. It helps in identifying any potential vulnerabilities or issues in the network.

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8. QUESTION NO: 344
Which of the following is planted on an infected system and deployed at a predetermined time?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a malicious code that is planted on an infected system and is programmed to execute a specific action at a predetermined time or when certain conditions are met. Unlike a Trojan horse or a worm, which are designed to spread and infect other systems, a logic bomb remains dormant until triggered. Once triggered, it can cause damage to the system, such as deleting files, stealing data, or disrupting operations. Therefore, a logic bomb fits the description of being planted on an infected system and deployed at a predetermined time.

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9. QUESTION NO: 346 According to company policy an administrator must logically keep the Human Resources department separated from the Accounting department. Which of the following would be the simplest way to accomplish this?

Explanation

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) would be the simplest way to logically separate the Human Resources department from the Accounting department. VLANs allow for the creation of separate virtual networks within a physical network infrastructure, allowing for different departments to be isolated from each other while still sharing the same physical resources. This would ensure that the two departments remain separate and their network traffic does not mix, in accordance with the company policy.

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10. QUESTION NO: 354 Which of the following documents specifies the uptime guarantee of a web server?

Explanation

A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that specifies the terms and conditions of a service, including the uptime guarantee of a web server. It outlines the agreed-upon level of service that the provider will deliver to the customer, including details such as response time, availability, and performance metrics. The SLA ensures that both parties are aware of their responsibilities and sets clear expectations for the quality and reliability of the service.

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11. QUESTION NO: 393 An administrator is asked to recommend the most secure transmission mediA. Which of the following should be recommended?

Explanation

Fiber optic cable should be recommended as the most secure transmission media. This is because it uses light signals to transmit data, which makes it immune to electromagnetic interference and difficult to tap into. It also has a low signal loss over long distances and is resistant to physical damage and environmental factors.

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12. QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following is the primary incident response function of a first responder?

Explanation

The primary incident response function of a first responder is to secure the scene and preserve evidence. This involves taking immediate action to ensure the safety and security of the area where the incident occurred, as well as collecting and preserving any evidence that may be relevant to the investigation. By securing the scene and preserving evidence, the first responder helps to maintain the integrity of the incident and ensure that a thorough investigation can take place.

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13. QUESTION NO: 323 After an attacker has successfully gained remote access to a server with minimal privileges, which of the following is their next step?

Explanation

After an attacker has gained remote access to a server with minimal privileges, their next step would be to elevate their system privileges. By doing so, the attacker can gain higher levels of access and control over the server, allowing them to carry out more advanced attacks and potentially gain access to sensitive information or perform malicious activities. Monitoring network traffic, capturing private keys, and beginning key recovery may be subsequent steps that the attacker takes, but elevating system privileges is the immediate priority to gain more control over the compromised server.

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14. QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following is the GREATEST problem with low humidity in a server room?

Explanation

Low humidity in a server room can lead to an increase in static electricity. Static electricity can cause damage to sensitive electronic equipment, such as servers, by creating sparks that can disrupt or destroy circuitry. This can result in data loss, system failures, and potentially costly repairs or replacements. Therefore, the greatest problem with low humidity in a server room is the increased risk of static electricity and its potential impact on the equipment.

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15. QUESTION NO: 347 Which of the following is an attack which is launched from multiple zombie machines in attempt to bring down a service?

Explanation

A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack is launched from multiple zombie machines, which are compromised computers or devices controlled by an attacker. The goal of a DDoS attack is to overwhelm a targeted service or website with a flood of traffic, making it unavailable to legitimate users. This attack is different from a DoS (Denial of Service) attack, which is launched from a single source, as it utilizes multiple sources to amplify the impact and make it harder to defend against. A DDoS attack can cause significant disruption and financial loss for the targeted organization.

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16. QUESTION NO: 363 Which of the following is an area of the network infrastructure that allows a technician to place public facing systems into it without compromising the entire infrastructure?

Explanation

A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is an area of the network infrastructure that allows a technician to place public facing systems into it without compromising the entire infrastructure. It acts as a buffer zone between the internet and the internal network, providing an additional layer of security. By placing public facing systems in the DMZ, any potential attacks or compromises are isolated to that area and do not have direct access to the internal network. This helps to protect sensitive data and resources from being compromised in the event of a breach.

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17. QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following media is LEAST susceptible to a tap being placed on the line?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables are the least susceptible to taps being placed on the line because they use light signals to transmit data. Unlike UTP, STP, and coaxial cables, fiber optic cables do not emit electromagnetic signals that can be easily intercepted or tapped into. The use of light signals makes it difficult for unauthorized individuals to access the data being transmitted through the fiber optic cable, making it a more secure option.

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18. QUESTION NO: 375 Which of the following would be MOST effective in stopping phishing attempts?

Explanation

User training would be the most effective in stopping phishing attempts because it educates users on how to recognize and avoid phishing scams. By teaching users how to identify suspicious emails, websites, and requests for personal information, they are less likely to fall victim to phishing attacks. Antivirus software, NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System), and HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System) can also provide additional layers of security, but they may not be as effective in preventing phishing attempts as user training.

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19. QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement to reduce unsolicited email?

Explanation

The BEST solution to reduce unsolicited email is to implement an anti-spam solution. Anti-spam software is specifically designed to filter out and block unwanted emails, preventing them from reaching the user's inbox. This helps to reduce the amount of unsolicited email and minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing scams or malware contained in spam emails. Pop-up blockers, antivirus software, and personal software firewalls are not specifically designed to address the issue of unsolicited email, making anti-spam the most appropriate solution.

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20. QUESTION NO: 314 Which of the following BEST describes the form used while transferring evidence?

Explanation

The form used while transferring evidence is called the chain of custody. This form is used to document the movement and handling of evidence from the time it is collected until it is presented in court. It includes details such as who collected the evidence, where it was stored, who had access to it, and any changes or transfers that occurred. The chain of custody is crucial in maintaining the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in court.

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21. QUESTION NO: 330 Human Resources has requested that staff members be moved to different parts of the country into new positions. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

Job rotation refers to the practice of moving employees to different positions or departments within an organization. This can be done for various reasons, such as providing employees with new learning opportunities, preventing burnout, or enhancing their skills and knowledge. In this case, Human Resources has requested staff members to be moved to different parts of the country into new positions, which aligns with the concept of job rotation.

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22. QUESTION NO: 334 An administrator is asked to improve the physical security of a data center located inside the office building. The data center already maintains a physical access log and has a video surveillance system. Which of the following additional controls could be implemented?

Explanation

A mantrap is an additional control that could be implemented to improve the physical security of a data center. A mantrap is a small enclosed area with two or more doors, where one door must be closed and locked before the other door can be opened. This prevents unauthorized individuals from entering the data center by only allowing one person at a time and ensuring that the doors cannot be opened simultaneously. Implementing a mantrap adds an extra layer of security to the data center, enhancing the overall physical security measures already in place.

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23. QUESTION NO: 352 Which of the following disaster recovery components is a location that is completely empty, but allows the infrastructure to be built if the live site goes down?

Explanation

A cold site is a disaster recovery component that is a completely empty location. It does not have any infrastructure in place but allows for the infrastructure to be built if the live site goes down. In the event of a disaster, the necessary equipment, systems, and data would need to be transported and set up at the cold site before operations can resume. Compared to other disaster recovery components like hot sites or warm sites, a cold site typically has a longer recovery time objective as it requires more time and effort to bring the infrastructure online.

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24. QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following logs would reveal activities related to an ACL?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Firewall" because a firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It logs activities related to access control lists (ACLs), which are used to control network traffic flow and determine what network resources can be accessed by which users or devices. The firewall logs would provide information about any activities or events related to the ACLs, such as denied or allowed connections, blocked or permitted ports, and other security-related actions.

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25. QUESTION NO: 378 Which of the following could involve moving physical locations every two years to help mitigate security risks?

Explanation

Job rotation could involve moving physical locations every two years to help mitigate security risks. This practice ensures that employees are not in the same position for an extended period of time, reducing the risk of insider threats or unauthorized access. By regularly changing their work environment, it becomes more difficult for individuals to exploit their knowledge or access to sensitive information. This strategy also helps in cross-training employees and increasing their understanding of different roles within the organization.

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26. QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following should be included in a forensic toolkit?

Explanation

A digital camera should be included in a forensic toolkit because it allows forensic investigators to capture high-quality photographs of crime scenes, evidence, and other relevant details. These photographs can be used as visual documentation and can provide crucial information during the investigation and in court proceedings. Additionally, digital cameras offer the advantage of easily transferring and storing images, making them an essential tool for forensic analysis.

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27. QUESTION NO: 387 Which of the following is BEST used to determine whether network utilization is abnormal?

Explanation

A performance baseline is the best tool to determine whether network utilization is abnormal. A performance baseline is a measurement of normal network behavior and usage over a period of time. By comparing current network utilization to the baseline, any abnormal spikes or deviations can be identified, indicating potential network issues or abnormal activity. This allows for proactive monitoring and troubleshooting to ensure optimal network performance and security. The security log and application log may provide information on specific security events or application errors, but they do not provide a comprehensive view of network utilization.

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28. QUESTION NO: 371 Which of the following is responsible for establishing trust models?

Explanation

The certificate authority is responsible for establishing trust models. A certificate authority is an entity that issues digital certificates, which are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of electronic documents and communications. These certificates contain information about the identity of the certificate holder and are digitally signed by the certificate authority. By trusting the certificate authority, users can trust the certificates it issues, allowing for secure and trusted communication over networks.

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29. QUESTION NO: 384 Which of the following scenarios would a penetration test BEST be used for?

Explanation

A penetration test is typically used to identify vulnerabilities in a system or network by simulating an attack. It involves attempting to exploit these vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access or perform other malicious activities. In this scenario, conducting a penetration test would be most appropriate when providing a proof of concept demonstration for a vulnerability. This would involve demonstrating how a potential attacker could exploit the vulnerability to gain unauthorized access or cause harm to the system.

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30. QUESTION NO: 369 Which of the following would be the BEST choice to ensure only ports 25, 80 and 443 were open from outside of the network?

Explanation

A firewall would be the best choice to ensure only ports 25, 80, and 443 are open from outside of the network. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. By configuring the firewall to only allow traffic on ports 25, 80, and 443, it can effectively restrict access to only those specific ports while blocking all other ports. This helps to enhance network security by minimizing the potential attack surface and reducing the risk of unauthorized access to the network.

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31. QUESTION NO: 331 An administrator is worried about an attacker using a compromised user account to gain administrator access to a system. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario describes a privilege escalation attack, where an attacker exploits a compromised user account to gain higher privileges, such as administrator access, on a system. This allows the attacker to perform unauthorized actions and potentially compromise the entire system.

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32. QUESTION NO: 336 A technician notices delays in mail delivery on the mail server. Which of the following tools could be used to determine the cause of the service degradation?

Explanation

Performance monitor is the correct answer because it is a tool that can be used to monitor and analyze the performance of a system, including network performance. By using performance monitor, the technician can track various performance metrics such as CPU usage, memory usage, disk activity, and network traffic. This will help the technician identify any bottlenecks or issues that may be causing the delays in mail delivery on the mail server.

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33. QUESTION NO: 351
Which of the following authentication models uses a KDC?

Explanation

Kerberos is the correct answer because it is an authentication model that uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC). The KDC acts as a trusted third party that issues tickets to clients and servers, allowing them to authenticate and establish secure communication. The KDC generates a session key that is shared between the client and the server, ensuring secure authentication and encryption of data.

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34. QUESTION NO: 362 Which of the following creates separate logical networks?

Explanation

Subnetting creates separate logical networks by dividing a larger network into smaller subnetworks, each with its own unique network address. This allows for more efficient use of IP addresses and better network management. Each subnet acts as a separate network, with its own network ID and broadcast address, allowing for better organization and control of network traffic. NAT (Network Address Translation) is used to translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses, DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is a separate network segment used to provide additional security for publicly accessible servers, and NAC (Network Access Control) is a security technology used to enforce policies on devices connecting to a network.

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35. QUESTION NO: 396 To prevent the use of previously issued PKI credentials which have expired or otherwise become invalid, administrators should always design programs to check which of the following?

Explanation

Administrators should always design programs to check the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) to prevent the use of previously issued PKI credentials that have expired or become invalid. The CRL is a list maintained by the Certification Authority (CA) that contains the serial numbers of revoked certificates. By checking the CRL, programs can ensure that only valid and active certificates are being used, enhancing the security and integrity of the PKI system.

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36. QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following describes an implementation of PKI where a copy of a users private key is stored to provide third party access and to facilitate recovery operations?

Explanation

Key escrow is a method of implementing Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) where a copy of a user's private key is stored by a trusted third party. This is done to provide third party access and to facilitate recovery operations in case the user loses their private key or it becomes compromised. The third party, known as a key escrow agent, securely holds the copy of the private key and can release it to authorized parties when necessary. This allows for the recovery of encrypted data or the restoration of access to encrypted systems.

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37. QUESTION NO: 386 Which of the following implements the strongest hashing algorithm?

Explanation

NTLMv2 implements the strongest hashing algorithm among the given options. NTLMv2 (NT LAN Manager version 2) is a security protocol that provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality for users in a Windows network. It uses a stronger hashing algorithm compared to NTLM, VLAN, and LANMAN, making it more secure against various attacks such as brute force and rainbow table attacks.

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38. QUESTION NO: 325 An organization has requested the ability to monitor all network traffic as it traverses their network. Which of the following should a technician implement?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool that allows technicians to capture and analyze network traffic. By implementing a protocol analyzer, the organization will be able to monitor all network traffic as it traverses their network. This tool will provide detailed information about the protocols being used, the source and destination of the traffic, and any potential issues or security threats. It is an effective solution for network monitoring and troubleshooting purposes.

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39. QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following provides the MOST control when deploying patches?

Explanation

Patch management provides the most control when deploying patches. Patch management refers to the process of acquiring, testing, and deploying patches or updates to software systems. It allows organizations to centrally manage and control the deployment of patches across multiple devices or systems. With patch management, organizations can schedule and automate patch deployments, prioritize critical patches, and ensure that patches are applied consistently and efficiently. This level of control ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and organized manner, reducing the risk of system vulnerabilities and improving overall security.

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40. QUESTION NO: 376 Which of the following consists of markings outside a building that indicate the connection speed of a nearby unsecured wireless network?

Explanation

War chalking consists of markings outside a building that indicate the connection speed of a nearby unsecured wireless network. It is a method used by individuals to identify and share information about open Wi-Fi networks in a specific area. The markings are typically made with chalk or other visible materials to indicate the presence of an unsecured network and provide information such as the network's name and speed. This practice was popularized in the early 2000s as a way for hackers and enthusiasts to locate and access unsecured Wi-Fi networks.

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41. QUESTION NO: 391 Which of the following BEST describes the practice of dumpster diving?

Explanation

Dumpster diving is the practice of sorting through the garbage of an organization to obtain information that can be used for a subsequent attack. This can include finding discarded documents or electronic devices that contain sensitive information such as passwords, customer data, or internal documents. By obtaining this information, an attacker can gain unauthorized access to systems or use it for other malicious purposes.

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42. QUESTION NO: 397 To prevent the use of stolen PKI certificates on web servers, which of the following should an administrator ensure is available to their web servers?

Explanation

To prevent the use of stolen PKI certificates on web servers, an administrator should ensure that a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is available to their web servers. A CRL is a list maintained by a Certificate Authority (CA) that contains the serial numbers of revoked certificates. By regularly checking the CRL, web servers can verify if a certificate has been revoked and prevent its use. This helps in maintaining the security and integrity of the PKI infrastructure.

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43. QUESTION NO: 317 Which of the following protocols is used to ensure secure transmissions on port 443?

Explanation

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the correct answer because it is the protocol used to ensure secure transmissions on port 443. HTTPS uses encryption to secure the communication between a client and a server, providing confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data. It is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, where sensitive information like credit card details needs to be protected from unauthorized access.

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44. QUESTION NO: 308 If a technician wants to know when a computer application is accessing the network, which of the following  logs should be reviewed?

Explanation

The host firewall log should be reviewed if a technician wants to know when a computer application is accessing the network. The host firewall log keeps a record of all the network traffic that is allowed or blocked by the firewall on the computer. By reviewing this log, the technician can determine when and how the application is accessing the network, providing valuable information for troubleshooting or security purposes.

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45. QUESTION NO: 327
Which of the following is the MOST difficult security concern to detect when contractors enter a secured facility?

Explanation

Copying sensitive information with cellular phones is the most difficult security concern to detect when contractors enter a secured facility because it can be done discreetly and without any physical evidence. Unlike installing rogue access points or removing storage devices, copying sensitive information with cellular phones does not require any additional hardware or obvious actions. Contractors can easily use their personal phones to take pictures or record confidential information without raising suspicion. This makes it challenging for security personnel to detect and prevent this type of security breach.

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46. QUESTION NO: 337 Penetration testing should only be used once which of the following items is in place?

Explanation

Penetration testing involves simulating an attack on a system to identify vulnerabilities. It is a highly invasive and potentially disruptive process. Therefore, it should only be conducted with proper authorization. Written permission ensures that the organization is aware of and has approved the testing, and it helps establish clear boundaries and expectations for the testing process. Without written permission, there is a risk of unauthorized testing, which can lead to legal and security issues. Therefore, written permission is a crucial requirement before conducting penetration testing.

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47. QUESTION NO: 332 Which of the following is used to deny authorized users access to services?

Explanation

Botnets are a network of compromised computers that are controlled by a malicious actor. These computers, also known as "zombies" or "bots," can be used to launch coordinated attacks on websites or services, overwhelming them with traffic and denying access to legitimate users. By utilizing the power of multiple computers, botnets can generate a significant amount of traffic, making it difficult for authorized users to access the targeted services. Therefore, botnets are used to deny authorized users access to services.

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48. QUESTION NO: 338 An administrator recommends that management establish a trusted third party central repository to maintain all employees private keys. Which of the following BEST describes the administrators recommendation?

Explanation

The administrator's recommendation is to establish a trusted third party central repository to maintain all employees' private keys. This is known as key escrow. Key escrow involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party in case they need to be recovered or accessed in the future. This ensures that the keys are securely stored and can be retrieved if necessary.

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49. QUESTION NO: 372 Which of the following allows attackers to gain control over the web camera of a system?

Explanation

An ActiveX component is a type of software module that can be used to add functionality to a web browser. However, it can also be exploited by attackers to gain control over a system's web camera. This can be done by tricking the user into downloading and executing a malicious ActiveX control, which then gives the attacker access to the camera. Therefore, the correct answer is ActiveX component.

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50. QUESTION NO: 400 To increase the security of the network authentication process, an administrator decides to implement three-factor authentication. Which of the following authentication combinations is a three-factor system?

Explanation

The combination of a retina scanner, PKI enabled smart card, and a six-digit PIN is a three-factor authentication system because it includes three different factors of authentication: something the user is (retina scanner), something the user has (PKI enabled smart card), and something the user knows (six-digit PIN). This combination provides a higher level of security compared to the other options, which only include two factors of authentication.

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51. QUESTION NO: 305 Which of the following reduces the attack surface of an operating system?

Explanation

Disabling unused services reduces the attack surface of an operating system because it eliminates any potential vulnerabilities that may exist within those services. By disabling services that are not needed, the system reduces the number of entry points that attackers can exploit, thereby reducing the overall attack surface. This practice helps to minimize the potential for unauthorized access and compromises to the operating system.

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52. QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following is the BEST backup method to restore the entire operating system and all related software?

Explanation

A disk image is the best backup method to restore the entire operating system and all related software. A disk image is a complete copy of the entire hard drive, including the operating system, software, and data. It captures the exact state of the system at the time the backup was created, allowing for a complete restoration of the system to its previous state. This method is more comprehensive and reliable compared to other backup methods like weekly, incremental, or differential backups, which may only backup specific files or changes made since the last backup.

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53. QUESTION NO: 322 Which of the following is the LAST step to granting access to specific domain resources?

Explanation

The last step to granting access to specific domain resources is to authorize the user. Once the user has been authenticated and their identity has been verified, the next step is to determine if they have the necessary permissions and privileges to access the specific resources they are requesting. This involves checking the user's role, permissions, and any other access control mechanisms in place to ensure that the user is authorized to access the requested resources.

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54. QUESTION NO: 329 The staff must be cross-trained in different functional areas so that fraud can be detected. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

Job rotation is the practice of moving employees between different roles or departments within an organization. This helps to prevent fraud by ensuring that no single individual has complete control over a particular area of the business. By cross-training staff in different functional areas, organizations can detect and deter fraudulent activities as employees are able to identify irregularities or suspicious behavior more easily. This also helps to foster a culture of accountability and transparency within the organization.

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55. QUESTION NO: 392 Implementation of proper environmental controls should be considered by administrators when recommending facility security controls because of which of the following?

Explanation

Proper environmental controls help ensure the availability of IT systems. This means that by implementing these controls, the facility can prevent or mitigate environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, and power fluctuations that could potentially disrupt or damage IT systems. By maintaining a stable and controlled environment, the facility can minimize downtime and ensure that the IT systems are accessible and operational when needed.

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56. QUESTION NO: 320 How many keys are utilized in symmetric cryptography?

Explanation

Symmetric cryptography uses only one key for both encryption and decryption. This key is shared between the sender and the receiver, allowing them to communicate securely by encrypting and decrypting the messages using the same key. This differs from asymmetric cryptography, which uses a pair of keys (public and private) for encryption and decryption. In symmetric cryptography, the same key is used for both operations, making it faster and more efficient for encrypting large amounts of data.

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57. QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following authentication models uses a time stamp to prevent the risks associated with a replay attack?

Explanation

Kerberos authentication model uses a time stamp to prevent the risks associated with a replay attack. A replay attack is when an attacker intercepts and retransmits a valid authentication message to gain unauthorized access. By using a time stamp, Kerberos ensures that each authentication message is only valid for a limited period of time, making it difficult for an attacker to replay the message and gain access. This helps to enhance the security of the authentication process.

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58. QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following would a former employee MOST likely plant on a server that is not traceable?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is intentionally planted by a person with insider knowledge or access to a system. It is designed to execute a specific action or trigger an event at a certain time or under specific conditions. In this case, a former employee would most likely plant a logic bomb on a server because it is not easily traceable, allowing them to cause damage or disrupt operations without being detected easily. Unlike worms, trojans, or viruses, a logic bomb is specifically designed to remain hidden and only activate at a predetermined time or trigger.

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59. QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following could be used to capture website GET requests?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool that can be used to capture and analyze network traffic. It can intercept and capture website GET requests, allowing the user to examine the details of the requests, such as the URL, headers, and parameters. By capturing and analyzing the GET requests, one can gain insights into the communication between the client and server, identify potential vulnerabilities, and troubleshoot any issues with the website.

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60. QUESTION NO: 341 Which of the following is the MOST efficient way that an administrator can restrict network access to certain ports enterprise wide?

Explanation

An ACL (Access Control List) is the most efficient way for an administrator to restrict network access to certain ports enterprise-wide. ACLs are used to filter network traffic based on predetermined rules, allowing or denying access to specific ports or IP addresses. By implementing ACLs, the administrator can control and manage network traffic at a granular level, ensuring that only authorized users or systems have access to the desired ports while blocking unauthorized access. This helps to enhance network security and prevent potential threats or attacks.

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61. QUESTION NO: 309 All of the following are components of IPSec EXCEPT:

Explanation

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a protocol suite used to secure IP communications. It consists of several components, including the encapsulating security payload (ESP), Internet Key Exchange (IKE), and authentication header (AH). The temporal key interchange protocol is not a component of IPSec. It is possible that the temporal key interchange protocol is a made-up term or a distractor option in this question.

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62. QUESTION NO: 345 Which of the following allows a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?

Explanation

Kiting allows a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days. Kiting refers to the practice of registering a domain name and then canceling the registration within the grace period, which is typically five days. This allows the user to temporarily use the domain without actually paying for it. It is a deceptive practice that takes advantage of the grace period offered by domain registrars.

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63. QUESTION NO: 339 To combat transaction fraud, a bank has implemented a requirement that all bank customers enter a different, unique code to confirm every transaction. Which of the following is the MOST effective method to accomplish this?

Explanation

A one-time password is the most effective method to combat transaction fraud because it provides a unique code that can only be used for a single transaction. This means that even if the password is intercepted or stolen, it cannot be used again to authorize any other transactions. This adds an extra layer of security to the banking system and reduces the risk of fraudulent transactions.

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64. QUESTION NO: 367 Which of the following is a collection of servers that is setup to attract hackers?

Explanation

A honeynet is a collection of servers that is purposely set up to attract hackers. It is designed to be vulnerable and simulate a real network environment, allowing organizations to gather information about the tactics, techniques, and tools used by hackers. By monitoring the activities of hackers in a controlled environment, organizations can gain valuable insights into their techniques and strengthen their overall security posture.

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65. QUESTION NO: 321 Which of the following terms is BEST associated with public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Explanation

Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system that uses public key cryptography to provide secure communication and authentication. Digital signatures are a key component of PKI as they provide a way to verify the authenticity and integrity of digital documents or messages. By using a private key to sign a document, the recipient can use the corresponding public key to verify that the document has not been tampered with and that it was indeed signed by the expected sender. Therefore, digital signatures are the most closely associated term with PKI.

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66. QUESTION NO: 342 An administrator is responsible for a server which has been attacked repeatedly in the past. The only recourse has been to reload the server from scratch. Which of the following techniques could be used to decrease the recovery time following an incident?

Explanation

Implementing the server as a virtual server instance would decrease the recovery time following an incident. This is because a virtual server can be easily backed up and restored, allowing for quick recovery in the event of an attack. Additionally, virtual servers can be easily replicated and deployed on different physical servers, providing redundancy and minimizing downtime.

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67. QUESTION NO: 365 Which of the following type of attacks is TCP/IP hijacking?

Explanation

Man-in-the-middle attack is a type of attack where an attacker intercepts communication between two parties, without their knowledge, and can manipulate or eavesdrop on the communication. In TCP/IP hijacking, the attacker intercepts and manipulates TCP/IP packets to gain unauthorized access or control over a communication session. This allows the attacker to impersonate one or both parties involved in the communication, leading to potential data theft or unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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68. QUESTION NO: 335 In regards to physical security, which of the following BEST describes an access control system which implements a non-trusted but secure zone immediately outside of the secure zone?

Explanation

A mantrap is an access control system that creates a secure zone with two or more interlocking doors. It is designed to prevent unauthorized access by allowing only one person to enter or exit at a time. This physical security measure ensures that individuals cannot bypass the secure zone by tailgating or piggybacking. The non-trusted but secure zone immediately outside of the secure zone adds an extra layer of protection by creating a buffer area where individuals must be authenticated or verified before gaining access to the secure zone.

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69. QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following hashing algorithms is the LEAST secure?

Explanation

The LANMAN hashing algorithm is the least secure among the options given. LANMAN is an outdated algorithm that was used in older versions of Microsoft Windows for password hashing. It is known to have several vulnerabilities, including a limited character set and being susceptible to rainbow table attacks. In contrast, SHA-1, NTLM, and MD5 are also considered to have security weaknesses, but they are generally more secure than LANMAN.

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70. QUESTION NO: 326 A large amount of viruses have been found on numerous domain workstations. Which of the following should the technician implement?

Explanation

The technician should implement centralized antivirus. This solution allows for the management and monitoring of antivirus software from a central location, making it easier to deploy updates and patches to all workstations. It also provides a centralized view of virus activity, allowing for quicker detection and response to any threats. Decentralized antivirus would not be as effective as it lacks centralized management and monitoring capabilities. Host-based intrusion detection and spyware detection are important security measures but do not specifically address the issue of viruses on domain workstations.

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71. QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following attacks commonly result in a buffer overflow?

Explanation

A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is the correct answer because it commonly results in a buffer overflow. In a DoS attack, the attacker floods a target system with an overwhelming amount of traffic, causing it to become overwhelmed and unable to respond to legitimate requests. This flood of traffic can cause the system's buffers to overflow, leading to a buffer overflow vulnerability. This vulnerability can then be exploited by the attacker to execute malicious code or crash the system.

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72. QUESTION NO: 385 Which of the following would be the easiest to use in detection of a DDoS attack?

Explanation

The performance monitor would be the easiest to use in detection of a DDoS attack because it provides real-time monitoring of system resources such as CPU usage, memory usage, network traffic, and disk I/O. By analyzing these metrics, it is possible to identify abnormal spikes in network traffic or resource consumption, which could indicate a DDoS attack. The performance monitor provides a user-friendly interface and can generate alerts or notifications when certain thresholds are exceeded, making it easier to quickly detect and respond to a DDoS attack.

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73. QUESTION NO: 399 A security administrator has been asked to deploy a biometric authentication system in a corporation. Which of the following devices is the MOST reliable and has the lowest cross over error rate?

Explanation

A retina scanner is the most reliable and has the lowest cross over error rate among the given options. Retina scanning technology uses unique patterns of blood vessels in the back of the eye to authenticate individuals. These patterns are highly distinctive and remain stable over time, making it difficult for imposters to replicate. As a result, the likelihood of false positives and false negatives is significantly reduced, leading to a lower cross over error rate compared to other biometric authentication methods such as fingerprint or handprint scanning.

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74. QUESTION NO: 328 When are port scanners generally used on systems?

Explanation

Port scanners are generally used at the beginning of a vulnerability assessment. This is because port scanning is a method used to identify open ports on a system, which can help determine potential vulnerabilities. By conducting a port scan at the beginning of the assessment, the tester can gather information about the target system's network services and identify any potential entry points for exploitation. This information is then used to prioritize and focus on areas that require further investigation and testing.

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75. QUESTION NO: 366 Which of the following ports does SNMP run on?

Explanation

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) runs on port 161. SNMP is used to monitor and manage network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers. By running on port 161, SNMP allows network administrators to collect information and perform actions on these devices, such as retrieving statistics, configuring settings, and receiving notifications. Ports 25, 110, and 443 are commonly used for other network protocols, such as SMTP, POP3, and HTTPS respectively, but they are not associated with SNMP.

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76. QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices should be deployed to protect a network against attacks launched from a business to business intranet? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) should be deployed to protect a network against attacks launched from a business to business intranet. NIPS monitors network traffic and detects and prevents any malicious activity or unauthorized access attempts. A Firewall should also be deployed as it acts as a barrier between the internal network and external networks, controlling and filtering incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. This helps to block any malicious traffic from entering the network and protects against attacks.

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77. QUESTION NO: 357 Which of the following will set an account to lockout for 30 minutes after the maximum number attempts have failed?

Explanation

The Account lockout duration setting determines the amount of time an account will be locked out after the maximum number of failed login attempts. In this case, setting the Account lockout duration to 30 minutes will lock the account for that duration after the maximum number of attempts have failed. The other options mentioned, such as Key distribution center, Account lockout threshold, and Password complexity requirements, do not directly relate to the account lockout duration.

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78. QUESTION NO: 333 An administrator recommends implementing whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays, and strong authentication techniques to a server administrator. Which of the following threats are being addressed?

Explanation

The recommended measures of implementing whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays, and strong authentication techniques are aimed at addressing the threat of spam. Whitelisting and blacklisting help filter out unwanted emails, while closing-open relays prevent unauthorized use of the email server. Strong authentication techniques ensure that only authorized users can access the server, reducing the risk of spam being sent from unauthorized accounts. Therefore, by implementing these measures, the server administrator can effectively mitigate the threat of spam.

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79. QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following could be used to determine which flags are set in a TCP/IP handshake?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool that can be used to capture and analyze network traffic. It can be used to determine which flags are set in a TCP/IP handshake by capturing the packets exchanged during the handshake process and examining the TCP header. The flags in the TCP header, such as FIN, RST, SYN, and ACK, indicate different stages and actions in the TCP/IP handshake. By analyzing the captured packets, the protocol analyzer can provide information about which flags are set during the handshake.

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80. QUESTION NO: 348 Which of the following will MOST likely allow an attacker to make a switch function like a hub?

Explanation

MAC flooding is a technique in which an attacker floods a switch with fake MAC addresses, causing the switch to enter into a fail-open mode and behave like a hub. This allows the attacker to intercept and view all network traffic passing through the switch, compromising the security of the network. ARP poisoning, DNS poisoning, and DNS spoofing are all different attack techniques that can be used to manipulate network traffic, but they do not specifically cause a switch to function like a hub.

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81. QUESTION NO: 311 Which of the following will provide a 128-bit hash?

Explanation

MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) is a widely used cryptographic hash function that produces a 128-bit (16-byte) hash value. It is commonly used to verify data integrity by generating a unique hash value for a given input. Despite its popularity, MD5 is considered to be weak and insecure for cryptographic purposes due to its vulnerability to collision attacks. However, it can still be used for non-cryptographic purposes such as checksums and fingerprinting.

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82. QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following type of attacks sends out numerous MAC resolution requests to create a buffer overflow attack?

Explanation

ARP poisoning is a type of attack where an attacker sends out numerous MAC resolution requests with the intention of creating a buffer overflow attack. In this attack, the attacker sends fake ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages to a target network, tricking the network into associating the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate device. This allows the attacker to intercept and manipulate network traffic, potentially leading to a buffer overflow attack where the attacker overflows a buffer in a system's memory and gains unauthorized access or control.

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83. QUESTION NO: 310 IPSec connection parameters are stored in which of the following?

Explanation

IPSec connection parameters are stored in the Security Association Database (SAD). The SAD is a database that contains all the security parameters, such as encryption algorithms, authentication methods, and key management information, for each IPSec connection. It is used by the IPSec protocol to establish and maintain secure communication between two endpoints. The SAD keeps track of the security associations, which are the rules and policies that govern the IPSec connections. By storing the IPSec connection parameters in the SAD, the system can easily retrieve and apply the necessary security settings for each connection.

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84. QUESTION NO: 350 Which of the following is a technique used by hackers to identify unsecured wireless network locations to other hackers?

Explanation

War chalking is a technique used by hackers to identify unsecured wireless network locations to other hackers. It involves marking or drawing symbols on public spaces, such as walls or pavements, to indicate the presence of an unsecured Wi-Fi network. These symbols serve as a signal to other hackers that the network is vulnerable and can be easily exploited. By using war chalking, hackers can quickly identify and target unsecured networks for unauthorized access or malicious activities.

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85. QUESTION NO: 389 Identification is a critical component of the authentication process because it is:

Explanation

Identification is a critical component of the authentication process because it is the step where the user's identity is confirmed or verified. This step ensures that the user is who they claim to be and establishes their identity within the system. Once the user is verified, further steps such as authorization can take place to determine the privileges and access rights of the user. Identification helps prevent unauthorized access by ensuring that only legitimate users are granted access to the system.

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86. QUESTION NO: 343 Validating the users claimed identity is called which of the following?

Explanation

Authentication is the process of verifying the claimed identity of a user. It involves confirming the user's identity through the use of credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or security tokens. This ensures that the user is who they claim to be before granting them access to a system or resource. Identification refers to the act of identifying a user, while verification is the process of confirming the accuracy of the information provided. Validation, on the other hand, typically refers to the process of checking the integrity and validity of data.

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87. QUESTION NO: 380
Which of the following does the process of least privilege fall under?

Explanation

The process of least privilege falls under the category of confidentiality. Least privilege refers to the principle of providing users with only the minimum level of access and privileges necessary to perform their job functions. By implementing least privilege, organizations can ensure that sensitive information is protected and only accessible to authorized individuals, thus maintaining confidentiality.

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88. QUESTION NO: 304 Which of the following is LEAST likely to help reduce single points of failure?

Explanation

Mandatory vacations are least likely to help reduce single points of failure because they do not directly address the technical or operational aspects of a system. While they may provide some level of redundancy by ensuring that multiple employees are familiar with a particular task, they do not directly mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. On the other hand, cross training, clustered servers, and disaster recovery exercises are all measures that can help minimize the impact of a single point of failure by providing redundancy, distributing workload, and ensuring the ability to recover from failures.

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89. QUESTION NO: 394 An administrator is selecting a device to secure an internal network segment from traffic external to the segment. Which of the following devices could be selected to provide security to the network segment?

Explanation

NIPS, or Network Intrusion Prevention System, could be selected to provide security to the network segment. NIPS is designed to monitor network traffic and detect and prevent any malicious activity or unauthorized access attempts. It can analyze network packets in real-time, identify potential threats, and take immediate action to block or mitigate them. By deploying a NIPS, the administrator can effectively protect the internal network segment from external threats and ensure the security of the network.

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90. QUESTION NO: 340 All of the following should be identified within the penetration testing scope of work EXCEPT:

Explanation

The question asks for an exception to be identified within the penetration testing scope of work. The correct answer is "a complete list of all network vulnerabilities." This means that a complete list of all network vulnerabilities should not be included in the scope of work. Instead, the scope should include identifying the IP addresses of machines from which penetration testing will be executed, a list of acceptable testing techniques and tools to be utilized, and the handling of information collected by the penetration testing team.

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91. QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following encryption algorithms has the largest overhead?

Explanation

3DES (Triple Data Encryption Standard) has the largest overhead among the given encryption algorithms. This is because 3DES applies the DES algorithm three times in a row, making it slower and requiring more processing power compared to AES256 and AES. RSA, on the other hand, is an asymmetric encryption algorithm and has a different overhead compared to symmetric encryption algorithms like AES and 3DES.

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92. QUESTION NO: 312 Which of the following describes a hash algorithms ability to avoid the same output from two guessed inputs?

Explanation

Collision resistance is the ability of a hash algorithm to avoid producing the same output for two different inputs. In other words, it ensures that it is computationally infeasible to find two different inputs that result in the same hash value. This property is essential for the security of hash functions, as it prevents attackers from finding collisions and potentially exploiting vulnerabilities in systems that rely on hash functions for data integrity and authentication.

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93. QUESTION NO: 360 Which of the following hashing algorithms is the MOST secure?

Explanation

MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) is the correct answer. While MD5 is considered to be a relatively weak hashing algorithm compared to more modern options, such as SHA-1 or SHA-256, it is still more secure than the other options listed. LANMAN, SHA-1, and CHAP are all vulnerable to various attacks and have known weaknesses, making MD5 the most secure option among the given choices. However, it is important to note that MD5 is no longer recommended for cryptographic purposes due to its vulnerabilities.

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94. QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following is LEAST effective when hardening an operating system?

Explanation

Installing a Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) is the least effective method for hardening an operating system. While HIDS can help detect and prevent unauthorized access and malicious activities, it is not as effective as other measures such as configuration baselines, which provide a standardized and secure configuration for the system. Limiting administrative privileges helps minimize the risk of unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface. Installing a software firewall adds an additional layer of protection by controlling network traffic. Therefore, compared to these methods, installing HIDS is the least effective in hardening an operating system.

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95. QUESTION NO: 303 All of the following are weaknesses of WEP EXCEPT:

Explanation

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a security protocol used to secure wireless networks. It has several weaknesses, including the lack of integrity checking, which means that it does not verify the integrity of the data being transmitted. This weakness allows for the possibility of data tampering or modification during transmission. The other weaknesses mentioned in the options are valid weaknesses of WEP, such as the vulnerability of the initialization vector, susceptibility to replay attacks, and the use of weak keys.

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96. QUESTION NO: 377 Which of the following would be of MOST interest to someone that is dumpster diving?

Explanation

Someone who is dumpster diving is likely looking for discarded items that they can use or sell. The business card of a computer contractor would be of most interest because it indicates that the contractor may have discarded or thrown away valuable computer equipment or parts. This could be a potential treasure for someone who is dumpster diving and looking for electronics to salvage.

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97. QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following protocols is used for encryption between email servers?

Explanation

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the correct answer because it is a protocol that provides secure communication over a network. It is commonly used to encrypt data between email servers, ensuring that the information exchanged between them remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. TLS establishes a secure connection between the servers, encrypting the data transmitted between them and verifying the authenticity of the servers involved in the communication. This protocol is widely used in email communication to ensure the privacy and security of email exchanges.

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98. QUESTION NO: 356 Which of the following protocols can be implemented as an alternative to the overhead of a VPN?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) can be implemented as an alternative to the overhead of a VPN. SSL is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It uses encryption to protect data transmitted between a client and a server, ensuring privacy and integrity. By implementing SSL, organizations can establish secure connections without the need for a separate VPN infrastructure, reducing the complexity and overhead associated with VPNs. SSL is commonly used for secure web browsing (HTTPS) and can also be used for other applications that require secure communication.

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99. QUESTION NO: 390 Identity proofing occurs during which phase of identification and authentication

Explanation

Identity proofing is the process of verifying the identity of an individual. It involves collecting and verifying personal information such as name, date of birth, and address. This process typically occurs during the identification phase of identification and authentication. During this phase, the individual's identity is established and authenticated through various means such as presenting identification documents, providing personal information, or undergoing biometric verification. Once the identity is successfully proofed, the individual can proceed to the authentication phase, where they prove their identity to gain access to a system or service.

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100. QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following is the MOST secure transmission algorithm?

Explanation

TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is not the most secure transmission algorithm. It was designed as a temporary solution for WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) to address the vulnerabilities of WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy). However, TKIP has known weaknesses and has been deprecated in favor of more secure encryption algorithms such as AES (Advanced Encryption Standard). AES256, a variant of AES with a key size of 256 bits, is considered more secure than TKIP and provides stronger encryption for data transmission.

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