SEC+ Study Guide E

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1. QUESTION NO: 411 Which of the following describes a logic bomb?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a piece of malicious code that is designed to execute based on a specific event or date. Once triggered, it can cause damage to a computer system or network. Unlike a virus or worm, a logic bomb does not have the ability to spread on its own. Instead, it remains dormant until the specified condition is met, such as a specific date or the occurrence of a particular event. When the condition is met, the logic bomb is activated and carries out its intended malicious actions.

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About This Quiz
SEC+ Study Guide E - Quiz

Sec+ study guide E assesses knowledge on network security, risk management, and cryptographic techniques. It tests understanding of corporate security policies, USB security risks, and the importance of... see moreperformance monitoring. Ideal for learners aiming to validate their cybersecurity skills. see less

2. QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following is an example of an attack that executes once a year on a certain date?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is designed to execute at a specific time or when certain conditions are met. It is often used by attackers to cause damage or disrupt systems. In this case, the logic bomb is set to execute once a year on a particular date, making it an example of an attack that occurs annually on a specific date.

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3. QUESTION NO: 464 Which of the following can BEST aid in preventing a phishing attack?

Explanation

Conducting user awareness training can be the best way to prevent a phishing attack. By educating users about the tactics used by attackers, they can become more vigilant and cautious when interacting with suspicious emails or websites. This training can help users identify phishing attempts, avoid clicking on malicious links, and report any suspicious activity. While implementing two-factor authentication, enabling complex password policies, and requiring the use of stronger encryption are all important security measures, they may not directly address the human element of phishing attacks.

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4. QUESTION NO: 467 One of the reasons that DNS attacks are so universal is DNS services are required for a computer to access:

Explanation

DNS (Domain Name System) is a crucial component of the internet infrastructure that translates domain names into IP addresses, allowing computers to locate and connect to websites and services. Without DNS services, computers would not be able to access the internet. This makes DNS attacks universal because they can disrupt or manipulate the DNS system, causing widespread impact on internet connectivity and access.

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5. QUESTION NO: 470 An administrator wants to set up a new web server with a static NAT. Which of the following is the BEST reason for implementing NAT?

Explanation

NAT (Network Address Translation) is used to hide the internal network addressing scheme of an organization. By implementing NAT, the internal IP addresses are translated to a single public IP address when communicating with external networks. This provides an additional layer of security by preventing external entities from directly accessing the internal network and potentially exposing sensitive information.

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6. QUESTION NO: 457 When testing a newly released patch, a technician should do all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

A technician should not deploy the patch immediately using Patch Management because deploying a patch without testing it first can potentially cause issues or conflicts with the system. It is important to verify the integrity of the patch, ensure its relevance to the system, and test it in a non-production environment before deploying it to production systems.

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7. QUESTION NO: 466 Which of the following is MOST commonly used to secure a web browsing session?

Explanation

HTTPS is the most commonly used protocol to secure a web browsing session. It stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure and is a combination of the HTTP protocol and the SSL/TLS encryption protocol. HTTPS ensures that the data transmitted between the web browser and the website is encrypted, making it difficult for unauthorized individuals to intercept and access sensitive information such as passwords, credit card details, and personal data. This encryption provides a secure and private connection, protecting the integrity and confidentiality of the user's browsing session.

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8. QUESTION NO: 499 Which of the following is the common mail format for digitally signed and encrypted messages?

Explanation

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is the common mail format for digitally signed and encrypted messages. It provides a secure way to send and receive emails by using cryptography. S/MIME ensures the integrity and privacy of the message content, as well as the authentication of the sender. It is widely used in email communication to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or tampering. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol for sending emails, SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a security protocol, and MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a standard for email formatting, but they do not specifically address digital signatures and encryption.

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9. QUESTION NO: 409 Which of the following is a BEST practice when implementing a new system?

Explanation

Disabling unneeded services is a best practice when implementing a new system because it helps to minimize the attack surface and reduce the potential vulnerabilities. By disabling unnecessary services, the system becomes more secure as there are fewer entry points for attackers. This practice also helps to optimize system resources and improve performance by eliminating unnecessary background processes. Additionally, disabling unneeded services can help to simplify system management and reduce the overall complexity of the system.

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10. QUESTION NO: 420 Weak encryption is a common problem with which of the following wireless protocols?

Explanation

Weak encryption is a common problem with WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) wireless protocol. WEP is known for its vulnerabilities and has been deprecated due to its weak security measures. It uses a 40-bit or 104-bit encryption key, which can be easily cracked by attackers. This makes WEP susceptible to various attacks, such as packet sniffing and unauthorized access to the network. As a result, it is not recommended to use WEP for securing wireless networks.

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11. QUESTION NO: 415
Management has asked a technician to prevent data theft through the use of portable drives. Which of the following should the technician implement?

Explanation

The technician should implement the solution of disabling USB drives to prevent data theft through the use of portable drives. This solution will restrict the ability to connect any external storage devices, such as USB drives, to the system, thereby preventing unauthorized copying or transfer of data. This is a proactive measure that directly addresses the issue at hand and reduces the risk of data theft.

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12. QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following verifies control for granting access in a PKI environment?

Explanation

A certificate authority (CA) is responsible for verifying the identity of individuals or entities in a PKI environment and issuing digital certificates to them. These digital certificates are used to authenticate and authorize access to resources. The CA ensures that only authorized individuals or entities are granted access by verifying their identity through a rigorous process. The CA plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the PKI environment by controlling the granting of access.

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13. QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following describes the standard load for all systems?

Explanation

A configuration baseline refers to a set of specifications and settings that are considered standard and necessary for all systems. It includes the standard load of software, hardware, and network configurations that are required for a system to function properly. This baseline ensures consistency and standardization across all systems, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot them. It helps in maintaining security, performance, and compatibility across the organization's systems.

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14. QUESTION NO: 481 Which of the following BEST describes an application or string of code that cannot automatically spread from one system to another but is designed to spread from file to file?

Explanation

A virus is a type of malicious software that is designed to spread from file to file within a system, but it cannot automatically spread from one system to another. It requires a user action, such as opening an infected file or executing a malicious program, to initiate its spread. Unlike worms, which can self-replicate and spread across networks without user intervention, viruses rely on human interaction to propagate. Therefore, a virus is the best description for an application or string of code that is designed to spread from file to file within a system.

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15. QUESTION NO: 402
The marketing department wants to distribute pens with embedded USB drives to clients. In the past this client has been victimized by social engineering attacks which led to a loss of sensitive datA. The security administrator advises the marketing department not to distribute the USB pens due to which of the following?

Explanation

The risks associated with the large capacity of USB drives and their concealable nature pose a threat to the security of sensitive data. USB drives can easily be lost or stolen, and their large storage capacity makes it possible for a significant amount of data to be compromised. Additionally, their small size makes them easy to conceal and transport without detection. Given the client's history of social engineering attacks and data loss, the security administrator advises against distributing the USB pens to mitigate the risk of further data breaches.

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16. QUESTION NO: 410 When installing and securing a new system for a home user which of the following are best practices? (Select THREE).

Explanation

The best practices for installing and securing a new system for a home user include using a strong firewall to protect against unauthorized access, applying all system patches to ensure the latest security updates are installed, and applying all service packs to keep the system up to date with the latest features and bug fixes. Blocking inbound access to port 80 can also be beneficial as it is commonly used for web traffic and can be a target for hackers. However, input validation and installing remote control software are not mentioned as best practices in this context and may not be relevant to securing a new system for a home user.

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17. QUESTION NO: 414 Which of the following is the GREATEST threat to highly secure environments?

Explanation

USB devices pose the greatest threat to highly secure environments because they can be easily used to introduce malware or unauthorized software into the system. USB devices can also be used to steal sensitive data or bypass security measures. Even if the network and BIOS configurations are secure, USB devices can still be used to compromise the security of the environment. RSA256, on the other hand, is a cryptographic algorithm and not a threat to secure environments.

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18. QUESTION NO: 479 Which of the following is the primary objective of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Explanation

The primary objective of a business continuity plan (BCP) is to address the recovery of an organization's business operations. This means that the plan is designed to ensure that the organization can continue its essential functions and operations even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The BCP outlines the steps and procedures to be followed in order to minimize downtime, maintain productivity, and quickly recover from any potential threats or incidents. It focuses on the overall business operations rather than specific systems, facilities, or backup sites.

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19. QUESTION NO: 429
Which of the following tools will allow a technician to detect security-related TCP connection anomalies?

Explanation

Performance monitor is a tool that allows a technician to detect security-related TCP connection anomalies. It provides real-time monitoring and analysis of system performance, including network activity. By monitoring TCP connections, the technician can identify any abnormal or suspicious behavior that may indicate a security breach or attack. This tool helps in identifying and addressing security issues promptly, enhancing the overall security of the system.

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20. QUESTION NO: 451 Which of the following allows directory permissions to filter down through the sub-directory hierarchy?

Explanation

Inheritance allows directory permissions to filter down through the sub-directory hierarchy. This means that the permissions set for a parent directory will automatically apply to all the sub-directories and files within it. This simplifies the process of managing permissions and ensures consistency throughout the directory structure.

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21. QUESTION NO: 452 Which of the following access control models BEST follows the concept of separation of duties?

Explanation

Role-based access control (RBAC) is the access control model that best follows the concept of separation of duties. RBAC assigns permissions and access rights based on an individual's role or job function within an organization. This ensures that individuals only have access to the resources and information necessary to perform their specific duties, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of privileges. RBAC helps enforce the principle of separation of duties by preventing conflicts of interest and limiting the potential for abuse of power within an organization.

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22. QUESTION NO: 497 A technician has implemented a new network attached storage solution for a client. The technician has created many shares on the storage. Which of the following is the MOST secure way to assign permissions?

Explanation

The most secure way to assign permissions is by using the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only be given the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job functions. By granting users only the specific permissions they need, the risk of unauthorized access or accidental data modification is minimized. This is in contrast to giving users full control, which would grant them unrestricted access to all resources on the network attached storage. Authentication is important for verifying the identity of users, but it does not directly address the issue of assigning permissions. Separation of duties is a concept related to assigning different responsibilities to different individuals, but it does not specifically address permissions.

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23. QUESTION NO: 404 As a best practice, risk assessments should be based upon which of the following?

Explanation

Risk assessments should be based on a quantitative measurement of risk, impact, and asset value. This means that the assessment should involve a numerical evaluation of the likelihood and potential consequences of risks, as well as the value of the assets that could be affected. This approach allows for a more objective and systematic analysis of risks, enabling organizations to prioritize and allocate resources effectively to mitigate and manage those risks. A qualitative measurement may not provide enough detail or precision, while an absolute measurement of threats may not consider the potential impact or value of assets.

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24. QUESTION NO: 412 Which of the following is a prerequisite for privilege escalation to occur?

Explanation

Privilege escalation refers to the act of gaining higher levels of access or privileges on a system than originally intended. In order for privilege escalation to occur, the attacker must first have already gained entry into the system. This means that they have bypassed any initial security measures and have successfully infiltrated the system. Once inside, they can then attempt to escalate their privileges to gain even more control over the system.

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25. QUESTION NO: 447
If hashing two different files creates the same result, which of the following just occurred?

Explanation

A collision just occurred. Hashing is a process of converting data into a fixed-size value, and it is expected that different inputs will produce different hash values. However, if two different files produce the same hash value, it indicates a collision, meaning that the hash function has generated the same output for different inputs. This can happen due to the limited range of hash values compared to the infinite number of possible inputs.

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26. QUESTION NO: 480 A software manufacturer discovered a design flaw in a new application. Rather than recall the software, management decided to continue manufacturing the product with the flaw. Which of the following risk management strategies was adopted by management?

Explanation

The management's decision to continue manufacturing the software with the known design flaw indicates that they have chosen to accept the risk associated with the flaw. They have acknowledged the existence of the risk but have decided not to take any further action to mitigate or avoid it. This strategy can be adopted when the potential impact of the risk is deemed acceptable or when the cost of addressing the risk outweighs the potential consequences.

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27. QUESTION NO: 483 All of the following are considered malware EXCEPT:

Explanation

The question asks for an exception among the given options, which are spam, Trojan, virus, and logical bombs. Spam is not considered malware because it refers to unsolicited and unwanted emails or messages, typically used for advertising purposes, rather than being malicious software designed to harm or exploit computer systems. On the other hand, Trojans, viruses, and logical bombs are all types of malware that can cause damage to computer systems or steal sensitive information.

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28. QUESTION NO: 426 Which of the following explains the difference between a public key and a private key?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the private key is only used by the client and kept secret, while the public key is available to all. This is because in asymmetric encryption, the private key is used for decryption and is kept confidential by the client, while the public key is used for encryption and can be freely shared with others. The keys are mathematically related, but their usage and accessibility differ.

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29. QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following would MOST likely prevent a PC application from accessing the network?

Explanation

A host-based firewall is a software firewall that is installed on the host computer and is designed to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic. It acts as a barrier between the PC application and the network, blocking unauthorized access and preventing the application from accessing the network without proper permissions or configurations. Therefore, a host-based firewall is the most likely option to prevent a PC application from accessing the network.

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30. QUESTION NO: 454 A technician is investigating intermittent switch degradation. The issue only seems to occur when the buildings roof air conditioning system runs. Which of the following would reduce the connectivity issues?

Explanation

Shielding would reduce the connectivity issues by protecting the switch from electromagnetic interference caused by the roof air conditioning system. Shielding involves using materials that block or absorb electromagnetic waves, preventing them from interfering with the switch's operation. By adding shielding, the switch will be protected from the electromagnetic interference caused by the HVAC system, ensuring a more stable and reliable connection.

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31. QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following BEST describes external security testing?

Explanation

External security testing refers to the process of evaluating the security of an organization's systems and infrastructure from outside the organization's security perimeter. This means that the testing is conducted from a location or network that is external to the organization, such as from the internet or from a remote location. The purpose of external security testing is to simulate real-world attacks and assess the vulnerabilities and weaknesses that an attacker could exploit from outside the organization's network.

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32. QUESTION NO: 485 Which of the following only looks at header information of network traffic?

Explanation

A packet filter only looks at the header information of network traffic. It examines the source and destination addresses, ports, and protocols of each packet to determine whether to allow or block the traffic. Unlike an internet content filter, which analyzes the content of the data being transmitted, a packet filter does not inspect the actual data payload. An application firewall, on the other hand, focuses on the application layer of the network stack and monitors and controls specific applications or protocols. A hybrid firewall combines multiple types of filtering techniques to provide comprehensive security.

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33. QUESTION NO: 430 Which of the following monitoring methodologies will allow a technician to determine when there is a security related problem that results in an abnormal condition?

Explanation

Anomaly-based monitoring methodologies are designed to detect abnormal behavior or patterns that deviate from the expected or normal behavior. This means that when there is a security-related problem that results in an abnormal condition, an anomaly-based monitoring methodology will be able to identify and alert the technician about it. Unlike signature-based monitoring, which relies on known patterns or signatures of attacks, anomaly-based monitoring is more effective in detecting new or unknown threats. Therefore, it is the most appropriate choice for determining security-related problems that result in abnormal conditions.

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34. QUESTION NO: 442 The method of controlling how and when users can connect in from home is called which of the following?

Explanation

A remote access policy is a method of controlling how and when users can connect in from home. It outlines the rules and guidelines for remote access to a network, including the authentication methods, encryption protocols, and user permissions. This policy helps ensure the security and integrity of the network by defining who can access it remotely and under what conditions. It also helps prevent unauthorized access and protects sensitive data from being compromised.

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35. QUESTION NO: 445 Which of the following typically use IRC for command and control activities?

Explanation

Botnets typically use IRC (Internet Relay Chat) for command and control activities. IRC provides a platform for communication between the botmaster (the person controlling the botnet) and the compromised computers (known as bots) within the botnet. The botmaster can issue commands to the bots through IRC channels, allowing them to coordinate and control the activities of the botnet, such as launching DDoS attacks, sending spam emails, or stealing sensitive information. IRC offers anonymity and a decentralized structure, making it a popular choice for botnet command and control.

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36. QUESTION NO: 419 Which of the following is a reason to use a Faraday cage?

Explanation

A Faraday cage is a metallic enclosure that is designed to block electromagnetic fields. It is used to mitigate data emanation, which refers to the unintentional leakage of electromagnetic signals from electronic devices. By using a Faraday cage, the electromagnetic signals are contained within the enclosure, preventing unauthorized access or interception of sensitive information. This is especially important in environments where data security is crucial, such as government agencies, military facilities, or research labs.

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37. QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following is the FIRST step in the implementation of an IDS?

Explanation

The first step in the implementation of an IDS is to document the existing network. This involves gathering information about the network infrastructure, including the network topology, devices, and their configurations. By documenting the existing network, organizations can gain a better understanding of their network environment and identify potential vulnerabilities or areas where an IDS may be needed. This information is crucial for effectively implementing an IDS and ensuring its proper functioning.

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38. QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following access control methods could the administrator implement because of constant hiring of new personnel?

Explanation

The administrator could implement role-based access control methods because of constant hiring of new personnel. Role-based access control assigns permissions to users based on their roles within the organization. This allows the administrator to easily manage access rights for new personnel by assigning them to specific roles that have predefined permissions. As new employees are hired, they can be assigned to appropriate roles, ensuring that they have the necessary access privileges for their job responsibilities. This method simplifies access management and reduces the administrative overhead of constantly updating individual user permissions.

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39. QUESTION NO: 489 A HIDS is installed to monitor which of following?

Explanation

A HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is installed to monitor system files. System files are critical components of an operating system and contain important configurations, settings, and executable code. Monitoring system files allows the HIDS to detect any unauthorized modifications or tampering, which could indicate a potential security breach or intrusion. By monitoring system files, the HIDS can alert system administrators or take automated actions to mitigate any potential threats or attacks on the system.

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40. QUESTION NO: 492 Which of the following is a system that will automate the deployment of updates to workstations and servers?

Explanation

Patch management is a system that automates the deployment of updates to workstations and servers. It ensures that software applications, operating systems, and other components are kept up to date with the latest patches, bug fixes, and security updates. This helps to enhance system performance, stability, and security by addressing vulnerabilities and resolving issues. Patch management also streamlines the update process by automating the distribution and installation of patches across multiple devices, saving time and effort for IT administrators.

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41. QUESTION NO: 493 A user is concerned with the security of their laptops BIOS. The user does not want anyone to be able to access control functions except themselves. Which of the following will make the BIOS more secure?

Explanation

Setting a password for the BIOS will make it more secure. By setting a password, only authorized users will be able to access and make changes to the BIOS settings. This helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that only the user themselves can control the functions of the BIOS.

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42. QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following are the functions of asymmetric keys?

Explanation

Asymmetric keys are used in public key cryptography, where a pair of keys (public and private) are generated. The public key is used for encryption and verification, while the private key is used for decryption and signing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Encrypt, sign, decrypt and verify."

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43. QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following is the main limitation with biometric devices?

Explanation

The main limitation with biometric devices is that they are expensive and complex. This means that the cost of implementing and maintaining biometric devices can be high, making it a less viable option for some organizations. Additionally, the complexity of these devices can make them difficult to set up and use, requiring specialized knowledge and expertise.

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44. QUESTION NO: 478 Which of the following would BEST describe a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Explanation

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a plan that outlines the steps and procedures that an organization will take to recover its IT infrastructure in the event of a disaster. This includes the recovery of servers, networks, data centers, and other technology systems that are critical to the organization's operations. The DRP is designed to minimize downtime and ensure that the organization can quickly resume normal operations after a disaster. It may also include provisions for data backup and restoration, as well as alternative infrastructure options such as backup sites or cloud services.

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45. QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following would be a method of securing the web browser settings on all network workstations?

Explanation

Group policy is a method of securing the web browser settings on all network workstations. Group policy allows administrators to manage and enforce specific settings and configurations across multiple computers in a network. By using group policy, administrators can restrict access to certain websites, disable certain browser features, and enforce security settings to ensure a secure browsing experience for all users on the network.

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46. QUESTION NO: 407 All of the following are methods used to conduct risk assessments EXCEPT:

Explanation

Disaster exercises are not typically used as a method to conduct risk assessments. While penetration tests, security audits, and vulnerability scans are all commonly used techniques to identify and assess potential risks and vulnerabilities in a system or organization, disaster exercises are typically focused on testing and evaluating the preparedness and response capabilities in the event of an actual disaster or emergency situation. Therefore, they are not directly related to assessing risks in the same way as the other methods mentioned.

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47. QUESTION NO: 465
A travel reservation company conducts the majority of its transactions through a public facing website. Any downtime to this website results in substantial financial damage for the company. One web server is connected to several distributed database servers. Which of the following describes this scenario?

Explanation

In this scenario, the company's website is a single point of failure. This means that if the website experiences any downtime, it will result in substantial financial damage for the company. The fact that the web server is connected to several distributed database servers does not change the fact that the website itself is the single point of failure.

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48. QUESTION NO: 477 A new Internet content filtering device installed in a large financial institution allows IT administrators to log in and manage the device, but not the content filtering policy. Only the IT security operation staff can modify policies on the Internet filtering device. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). RBAC is a security model that assigns permissions to users based on their roles within an organization. In this case, the IT administrators have the role of managing the device, while the IT security operation staff have the role of modifying policies. RBAC ensures that access to resources is based on job responsibilities and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or accidental changes to policies.

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49. QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following is the common way of implementing cryptography on network devices for encapsulating traffic between the device and the host managing them?

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) is a common way of implementing cryptography on network devices for encapsulating traffic between the device and the host managing them. SSH provides secure remote access and secure file transfer capabilities, allowing for encrypted communication between the device and the host. It uses encryption and authentication mechanisms to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted over the network. S/MIME, SNMP, and SMTP are not typically used for implementing cryptography on network devices for encapsulating traffic.

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50. QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following is the MOST common logical access control method?

Explanation

Usernames and passwords are the most common logical access control method because they are widely used and easy to implement. They provide a basic level of security by requiring users to enter a unique username and password combination to access a system or resource. This method is commonly used for online accounts, computer logins, and other digital systems. While it is not the most secure method, it is the most common due to its simplicity and familiarity to users.

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51. QUESTION NO: 446 When designing a firewall policy, which of the following should be the default action?

Explanation

The default action for designing a firewall policy should be "Implicit deny". This means that unless explicitly allowed, all traffic should be denied by default. This approach follows the principle of least privilege, where only necessary and authorized traffic is allowed through the firewall. Implicit deny ensures that any traffic that is not specifically permitted is automatically blocked, providing an extra layer of security for the network.

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52. QUESTION NO: 482
Which of the following is considered an independent program that can copy itself from one system to another and its main purpose is to damage data or affect system performance?

Explanation

A worm is considered an independent program that can copy itself from one system to another. Its main purpose is to damage data or affect system performance. Unlike viruses, worms do not require a host program to attach themselves to and can spread on their own. They often exploit vulnerabilities in computer networks to propagate and can cause significant harm by consuming network bandwidth, slowing down systems, or deleting files.

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53. QUESTION NO: 487 When using a single sign-on method, which of the following could adversely impact the entire network?

Explanation

When using a single sign-on method, the authentication server is responsible for verifying the identity of users and granting them access to the network. If the authentication server is compromised or experiences a failure, it can have a significant impact on the entire network. Without a functioning authentication server, users may be unable to access network resources, leading to disruptions in productivity and potential security risks. Therefore, any issues with the authentication server can adversely impact the entire network.

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54. QUESTION NO: 494 Which of the following is a method to apply system security settings to all workstations at once?

Explanation

A security template is a method to apply system security settings to all workstations at once. It is a predefined set of security configurations that can be applied to multiple systems simultaneously. This template includes settings such as password policies, account lockout policies, and user rights assignments. By applying a security template, organizations can ensure consistent security settings across all workstations, saving time and effort in individually configuring each system.

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55. QUESTION NO: 417 Which of the following BEST describes a way to prevent buffer overflows?

Explanation

Applying all security patches to workstations is the best way to prevent buffer overflows. Buffer overflows occur when a program tries to store more data in a buffer than it can hold, leading to the overflow of data into adjacent memory locations. By regularly applying security patches, any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the software that could be exploited by attackers to cause buffer overflows can be addressed and fixed, reducing the risk of such attacks.

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56. QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following is MOST likely to make a disaster recovery exercise valuable?

Explanation

Learning from the mistakes of the exercise is likely to make a disaster recovery exercise valuable because it allows for identifying and addressing any weaknesses or gaps in the plan. By analyzing the mistakes made during the exercise, organizations can make improvements to their disaster recovery plan, ensuring it is more effective and efficient in the event of a real disaster. This continuous improvement process helps to enhance the organization's preparedness and response capabilities, ultimately increasing the likelihood of successful recovery in the face of a disaster.

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57. QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following is a cryptographic hash function?

Explanation

SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) is a cryptographic hash function. It is commonly used to ensure data integrity and security in various applications. SHA takes an input (message) and produces a fixed-size output (hash value) that is unique to the input. This hash value is used to verify the integrity of the data and detect any changes or tampering. SHA is widely used in digital signatures, password storage, and data verification processes. RSA, RC4, and ECC are encryption algorithms, not hash functions.

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58. QUESTION NO: 422
Which of the following is a cross-training technique where organizations minimize collusion amongst staff?

Explanation

Job rotation is a cross-training technique where employees are moved between different roles and responsibilities within an organization. This technique helps to minimize collusion among staff by preventing individuals from becoming too familiar or comfortable with a specific role or task. By rotating employees, organizations can reduce the risk of collusion and promote transparency and accountability within the workforce.

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59. QUESTION NO: 427 Which of the following is a countermeasure when power must be delivered to critical systems no matter what?

Explanation

A backup generator is a countermeasure that ensures power can be delivered to critical systems even in the event of a power outage or failure. It serves as an alternative power source, providing electricity when the primary power source is unavailable. This helps to prevent disruptions and downtime in critical systems, ensuring their continuous operation and minimizing the impact of power failures. Backup generators are commonly used in industries and organizations where uninterrupted power supply is crucial for the functioning of critical systems.

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60. QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following is the MOST important step to conduct during a risk assessment of computing systems?

Explanation

The identification of missing patches is the most important step to conduct during a risk assessment of computing systems. This is because missing patches can leave systems vulnerable to security breaches and attacks. By identifying and addressing these missing patches, organizations can ensure that their systems are up to date with the latest security updates and minimize the risk of potential vulnerabilities being exploited.

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61. QUESTION NO: 431 Which of the following systems is BEST to use when monitoring application activity and modification?

Explanation

HIDS, or Host-based Intrusion Detection System, is the best system to use when monitoring application activity and modification. HIDS operates on individual hosts and monitors the activities and changes occurring on that specific host. It can detect suspicious behavior, unauthorized access, and modifications made to applications on the host. By monitoring at the host level, HIDS provides a more detailed and comprehensive view of the application activity, making it the ideal choice for this purpose.

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62. QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following describes a tool used by organizations to verify whether or not a staff member has been involved in malicious activity?

Explanation

Mandatory vacations are a tool used by organizations to verify whether or not a staff member has been involved in malicious activity. By requiring employees to take regular vacations, it allows for other employees to step in and perform the duties of the absent employee, potentially uncovering any suspicious or unauthorized activities that may have been taking place. This practice also helps to prevent fraud, as it becomes difficult for an employee to maintain a fraudulent scheme if they are required to take time off.

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63. QUESTION NO: 444 Who is ultimately responsible for the amount of residual risk?

Explanation

The senior management is ultimately responsible for the amount of residual risk. They are responsible for making strategic decisions and setting the overall direction and priorities of the organization. This includes determining the acceptable level of risk and ensuring that appropriate measures are in place to mitigate and manage that risk. The senior management has the authority and accountability to allocate resources and make decisions that impact the organization's overall risk posture.

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64. QUESTION NO: 458
A botnet zombie is using HTTP traffic to encapsulate IRC traffic. Which of the following would detect this encapsulated traffic?

Explanation

An anomaly-based IDS (Intrusion Detection System) would be able to detect the encapsulated traffic because it is designed to detect abnormal or unusual behavior on a network. In this case, the encapsulation of IRC traffic within HTTP traffic would be considered abnormal and would trigger an alert from the IDS. A vulnerability scanner, proxy server, or rootkit would not specifically be designed to detect this type of encapsulated traffic.

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65. QUESTION NO: 408
After conducting a risk assessment, the main focus of an administrator should be which of the following?

Explanation

After conducting a risk assessment, the main focus of an administrator should be to ensure that risk mitigation activities are implemented. This means taking action to reduce or eliminate the identified risks. While it is important to report the results of the assessment to the users, the primary goal is to address the risks and protect the system. Mitigating threats and eliminating vulnerabilities are important steps in this process, but the ultimate objective is to implement measures that will reduce the overall risk to an acceptable level.

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66. QUESTION NO: 448 Which of the following type of protection is hashing used to provide?

Explanation

Hashing is used to provide integrity protection. Hashing is a process that takes input data and produces a fixed-size string of characters, which is known as a hash value or hash code. This hash value is unique to the input data, so even a small change in the input data will result in a completely different hash value. By comparing the hash values of the original and received data, integrity can be verified. If the hash values match, it means that the data has not been tampered with and its integrity is intact.

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67. QUESTION NO: 468 One of the security benefits to using virtualization technology is:

Explanation

If an instance is compromised in a virtualized environment, the damage can be compartmentalized. This means that the impact of the compromise is limited to only the affected instance, and it does not spread to other instances or the underlying physical server. This is possible because virtualization technology allows for the isolation and separation of different instances, ensuring that they operate independently of each other. As a result, even if one instance is compromised, the security of other instances and the overall system remains intact.

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68. QUESTION NO: 474 An administrator is concerned that PCs on the internal network may be acting as zombies participating in external DDoS attacks. Which of the following could BEST be used to confirm the administrators suspicions

Explanation

Firewall logs would be the best choice to confirm the administrator's suspicions. Firewall logs provide information about network traffic and can help identify any suspicious or unauthorized activity. By analyzing the firewall logs, the administrator can look for patterns or anomalies that indicate PCs on the internal network participating in external DDoS attacks. HIDS logs, proxy logs, and AV server logs may provide some information, but they are more focused on host-based security and malware detection rather than network traffic analysis.

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69. QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following is a limitation of a HIDS?

Explanation

A HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities on a specific host or system. One limitation of a HIDS is that it does not automatically capture MAC addresses. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network interfaces, and while a HIDS can capture other network-related information, it does not specifically capture MAC addresses. Another limitation is that someone must manually review the logs generated by the HIDS. This is because the HIDS can detect potential intrusions and anomalies, but it requires human intervention to analyze and interpret the logs to determine if any actions need to be taken.

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70. QUESTION NO: 460 To determine whether a system is properly documented and to gain insight into the systems security aspects that are only available through documentation is the purpose of:

Explanation

Passive security testing techniques are used to analyze the documentation of a system in order to determine if it is properly documented and to gain insight into the security aspects that are only available through documentation. These techniques do not involve actively testing the system or making any changes to it. They rely on reviewing and analyzing the existing documentation to identify potential vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system's security.

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71. QUESTION NO: 441 Which of the following will allow wireless access to network resources based on certain ports?

Explanation

802.1x is a network authentication protocol that allows wireless access to network resources based on certain ports. It provides a way for devices to authenticate themselves before they are granted access to the network. By using 802.1x, network administrators can control which devices can connect to the network and what resources they can access based on the ports they use. This helps to enhance network security and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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72. QUESTION NO: 449 All of the following are part of the disaster recovery plan EXCEPT:

Explanation

The disaster recovery plan includes obtaining management buy-in, identifying all assets, and system backups. Patch management software, however, is not part of the disaster recovery plan. Patch management software is typically used to keep software and systems up to date with the latest patches and updates, but it is not directly related to recovering from a disaster.

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73. QUESTION NO: 455 A technician tracks the integrity of certain files on the server. Which of the following algorithms provide this ability?

Explanation

SHA-1 is a cryptographic hash function that can be used to track the integrity of files on a server. It generates a unique hash value for each file, which can be compared to ensure that the file has not been tampered with or corrupted. By comparing the hash values before and after transferring or storing files, a technician can verify the integrity of the files on the server.

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74. QUESTION NO: 440 Which of the following is true regarding authentication headers (AH)?

Explanation

The authentication information in AH is a keyed hash that is calculated based on all of the bytes in the packet. This means that any change in the packet's content will result in a different authentication information hash. Therefore, if the bytes change on transfer, the authentication information hash will also change. It is not possible for the authentication information to remain the same if the bytes change. Additionally, the authentication information will be different for different packets, even if the integrity remains intact.

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75. QUESTION NO: 488 RADIUS uses all of the following authentication protocols EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is L2TP. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) is not an authentication protocol, but rather a tunneling protocol used to create virtual private networks (VPNs). PAP (Password Authentication Protocol), CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol), and EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) are all authentication protocols commonly used in network security.

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76. QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following is the BEST reason for an administrator to use port address translation (PAT) instead of NAT on a new corporate mail gateway?

Explanation

PAT allows external users to access the mail gateway on pre-selected ports, which can provide an added layer of security by limiting access to specific ports. This can help protect the mail gateway from unauthorized access and potential attacks. Additionally, using pre-selected ports can also help with network management and troubleshooting, as it allows for easier identification and tracking of incoming traffic.

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77. QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following describes a static NAT?

Explanation

A static NAT uses a one to one mapping, meaning that it maps one private IP address to one public IP address. This allows for a direct and specific translation between the private and public IP addresses, ensuring that each private IP address has a unique corresponding public IP address. This is commonly used in scenarios where a company has a limited number of public IP addresses and needs to map them to individual devices on their private network.

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78. QUESTION NO: 401
To facilitate compliance with the Internet use portion of the corporate acceptable use policy, an administrator implements a series of proxy servers and firewalls. The administrator furtherrecommends installation of software based firewalls on each host on the network. Which of the following would have provided an alternative simpler solution?

Explanation

An internet content filter would have provided an alternative simpler solution to facilitate compliance with the Internet use portion of the corporate acceptable use policy. This type of filter allows the administrator to control and restrict access to certain websites and content, ensuring that employees adhere to the policy without the need for implementing proxy servers, firewalls, or additional software on each host. By using an internet content filter, the administrator can easily manage and enforce the acceptable use policy across the network.

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79. QUESTION NO: 490 Which of the following intrusion detection systems uses statistical analysis to detect intrusions?

Explanation

Anomaly intrusion detection systems use statistical analysis to detect intrusions by comparing current network activity to a baseline of normal behavior. They look for deviations or anomalies in network traffic patterns, such as unusual data transfers or unexpected connections, to identify potential intrusions. This approach is effective in detecting new and unknown threats that may not have a signature or known pattern. Anomaly-based systems can provide a higher level of detection accuracy and can adapt to evolving attack techniques.

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80. QUESTION NO: 459 Documentation review, log review, rule-set review, system configuration review, network sniffing, and  file integrity checking are examples of:

Explanation

Passive security testing techniques are those that do not actively interact with the system being tested. Documentation review, log review, rule-set review, system configuration review, network sniffing, and file integrity checking are all examples of passive security testing techniques as they involve analyzing existing information and data without actively manipulating or probing the system. These techniques are used to assess the security posture of a system or network without directly impacting its operations.

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81. QUESTION NO: 418 Which of the following is a security reason to implement virtualization throughout the network infrastructure?

Explanation

Implementing virtualization throughout the network infrastructure allows for the isolation of various network services and roles. By separating these services and roles into virtual machines, any potential security breaches or vulnerabilities in one service or role will not affect the others. This helps to prevent lateral movement within the network and limits the impact of an attack. Additionally, virtualization provides the ability to easily manage and control access to each virtual machine, enhancing overall network security.

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82. QUESTION NO: 403 USB drives create a potential security risk due to which of the following?

Explanation

USB drives create a potential security risk due to their potential for software introduction. USB drives can be easily infected with malware or viruses, and when inserted into a computer, they can transfer the malicious software onto the system. This can lead to unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security threats. Therefore, the potential for software introduction through USB drives poses a significant security risk.

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83. QUESTION NO: 435 Which of the following are the authentication header modes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Transport and Tunnel". These are the two modes of the authentication header (AH) protocol used in IPsec. The Transport mode is used to protect the payload of an IP packet, while the Tunnel mode is used to protect the entire IP packet by encapsulating it within a new IP packet. Both modes provide authentication and integrity protection for the IP packet, ensuring that it has not been modified during transit.

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84. QUESTION NO: 491 Which of the following intrusion detection systems uses well defined models of how an attack occurs?

Explanation

Signature-based intrusion detection systems use well-defined models of how an attack occurs. These systems compare network traffic or system activity against a database of known attack signatures or patterns. When a match is found, it alerts the system administrator about the potential intrusion. This approach is effective in detecting known attacks but may not be as effective against new or unknown attacks.

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85. QUESTION NO: 416 A technician has been informed that many of the workstations on the network are flooding servers. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the workstations flooding servers is a worm. Unlike viruses, worms do not require a host file or user interaction to spread. They can replicate themselves and spread across a network, consuming network resources and overwhelming servers. Worms are designed to exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems and can cause significant damage to network infrastructure.

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86. QUESTION NO: 476 Restricting access to files based on the identity of the user or group and security classification of the information is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Restricting access to files based on the identity of the user or group and security classification of the information is an example of MAC (Mandatory Access Control). MAC is a security model that enforces access controls based on the sensitivity or classification level of the information and the user's security clearance. It ensures that only authorized users with the necessary clearance can access certain files or information, regardless of the file's location or the user's identity. This helps to protect sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access or leakage.

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87. QUESTION NO: 434 Which of the following encryption algorithms is used for encryption and decryption of data?

Explanation

RC5 is an encryption algorithm that is used for both encryption and decryption of data. It is a symmetric key block cipher that operates on fixed-size blocks of data. RC5 uses a variable block size, key size, and number of rounds, making it flexible and adaptable to different security needs. It is known for its simplicity and efficiency, making it suitable for a wide range of applications that require secure data encryption and decryption.

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88. QUESTION NO: 463 All of the following are limitations of a vulnerability scanner EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is that a vulnerability scanner generates less network traffic than port scanning. This means that vulnerability scanners do not generate as much network traffic as port scanning tools. However, this statement does not represent a limitation of a vulnerability scanner. It is a comparison between vulnerability scanning and port scanning in terms of network traffic generation. The limitations of a vulnerability scanner include only uncovering vulnerabilities for active systems, generating a high false-positive error rate, and relying on a repository of signatures.

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89. QUESTION NO: 406 From a security standpoint, which of the following is the BEST reason to implement performance monitoring applications on network systems?

Explanation

Implementing performance monitoring applications on network systems is important from a security standpoint because it helps in detecting availability degradations caused by attackers. By monitoring the performance of the network systems, any abnormalities or anomalies caused by attackers can be identified and addressed promptly. This ensures that the network remains available and accessible to authorized users, minimizing the impact of potential attacks and maintaining the overall security of the system.

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90. QUESTION NO: 484 Which of the following NIDS configurations is solely based on specific network traffic?

Explanation

Signature-based NIDS configurations rely on specific network traffic patterns or signatures to identify and detect potential threats. This approach involves comparing network traffic against a database of known attack signatures or patterns. If a match is found, the NIDS can take appropriate action to mitigate the threat. Unlike host-based, behavior-based, or anomaly-based configurations, signature-based NIDS does not rely on analyzing host behavior or detecting anomalies in network traffic. Instead, it focuses solely on identifying known attack signatures.

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91. QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following is an example of a trust model?

Explanation

Managing the CA relationships is an example of a trust model. A trust model is a framework that defines how trust is established and maintained in a system. In the context of managing the relationships with a Certificate Authority (CA), trust is established by verifying the identity and reputation of the CA. This involves ensuring that the CA follows industry standards and practices, has proper security measures in place, and has a good track record of issuing trustworthy certificates. By managing the CA relationships, organizations can ensure that they are relying on trusted CAs for their digital certificates, establishing a foundation of trust in their security infrastructure.

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92. QUESTION NO: 423 Which of the following will allow a technician to restrict a users access to the GUI?

Explanation

Group policy implementation allows a technician to restrict a user's access to the GUI. Group policies are a feature in Windows operating systems that allow administrators to control the settings and configurations of multiple computers in a network. By implementing group policies, administrators can define specific access rights and permissions for users, including restricting their access to the graphical user interface (GUI). This can be useful in situations where certain users should only have limited access to certain features or applications on a computer.

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93. QUESTION NO: 462 Port scanners can identify all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Port scanners are tools used to scan computer systems or networks to identify open ports and services running on those ports. By analyzing the responses received from the scanned ports, port scanners can determine the operating system, applications, and active hosts. However, port scanners do not have the capability to directly identify vulnerabilities in the system. Vulnerability scanning is a separate process that involves identifying weaknesses or flaws in the system that could potentially be exploited by attackers.

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94. QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following if disabled will MOST likely reduce, but not eliminate the risk of VLAN jumping?

Explanation

Disabling DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) on all ports will most likely reduce, but not eliminate the risk of VLAN jumping. DTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows switches to negotiate trunk links automatically. By disabling DTP, the switches will not automatically form trunk links, which can help reduce the risk of unauthorized access to different VLANs. However, it is important to note that disabling DTP alone may not completely eliminate the risk, as there can be other methods or vulnerabilities that can still be exploited for VLAN jumping.

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95. QUESTION NO: 432 Which of the following is the MOST important thing to consider when implementing an IDS solution?

Explanation

The personnel to interpret results is the most important thing to consider when implementing an IDS solution. This is because even with the most advanced technology and accurate detection capabilities, the effectiveness of an IDS ultimately depends on the ability of trained personnel to interpret and respond to the results. Without skilled individuals to analyze the data and take appropriate action, the IDS solution would be ineffective in detecting and responding to potential threats. Therefore, having knowledgeable and experienced personnel is crucial for the successful implementation and operation of an IDS solution.

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96. QUESTION NO: 475 Restricting access to files based on the identity of the user or group is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Restricting access to files based on the identity of the user or group is an example of Discretionary Access Control (DAC). DAC allows the owner of a file or resource to determine who can access it and what level of access they have. This is typically done by assigning permissions or access control lists (ACLs) to specific users or groups. With DAC, the owner has the discretion to grant or deny access to their files or resources based on their own criteria.

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97. QUESTION NO: 469 A virtual server implementation attack that affects the:

Explanation

If a virtual server implementation attack affects the RAM, it will impact all virtual instances. RAM (Random Access Memory) is a crucial component of a virtual server as it stores temporary data that is actively being used by the virtual instances. If the RAM is compromised or corrupted, it can lead to system instability and data loss for all virtual instances running on the server. Therefore, any attack on the RAM will have a widespread impact on all virtual instances.

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98. QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following is the purpose of the AH?

Explanation

The purpose of the AH (Authentication Header) is to provide integrity. It ensures that the data has not been tampered with during transmission by calculating a hash value of the data and including it in the header. This allows the recipient to verify the integrity of the data by recalculating the hash value and comparing it to the one in the header. The AH does not provide non-repudiation, authorization, or confidentiality.

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99. QUESTION NO: 439 Which of the following describes the insertion of additional bytes of data into a packet?

Explanation

Padding refers to the process of adding extra bytes of data into a packet. This is commonly done to ensure that the packet meets a specific size requirement or to align the packet with a particular boundary. Padding can also be used for security purposes, such as to prevent attackers from being able to analyze the packet and determine its contents.

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100. QUESTION NO: 436
Which of the following would a technician use to check data integrity?

Explanation

A technician would use a message authentication code (MAC) to check data integrity. A MAC is a cryptographic checksum that is generated using a secret key and appended to a message. When the message is received, the recipient can recompute the MAC using the same key and compare it to the received MAC. If the two MACs match, it indicates that the message has not been tampered with during transmission and that the data integrity is intact.

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QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following is a limitation of a HIDS?
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QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following describes a static NAT?
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