Practice Exam IV

50 Questions

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Practice review exam 50 questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The most common cause of retinal detachment is:
    • A. 

      Trauma

    • B. 

      Aging

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Glaucoma

  • 2. 
    A fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea is:
    • A. 

      Pterygium

    • B. 

      Chalazion

    • C. 

      Strabismus

    • D. 

      Ecchymosis

  • 3. 
    What is another name for electro-surgical unit grounding pad?
    • A. 

      Surgical pencil

    • B. 

      Foot switch

    • C. 

      Active electrode

    • D. 

      Dispersive (or inactive electrode)

  • 4. 
    An uneven curvature of the cornea is known as:
    • A. 

      Myopia

    • B. 

      Strabismus

    • C. 

      Astigmatism

    • D. 

      Hypercopia

  • 5. 
    Endometrial laser ablation is most commonly treated by;
    • A. 

      Argon laser

    • B. 

      Nd: YAG laser

    • C. 

      Free electron laser

    • D. 

      Carbon dioxide

  • 6. 
    Abdominal laparoscopy may be indicated for:
    • A. 

      Lysis of adhesions

    • B. 

      Wedge resections

    • C. 

      Ablation of liver tumors

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    A thoraco-abdominal incision may be use for:
    • A. 

      Parietal gastrectomy

    • B. 

      Hiatal hernia repair

    • C. 

      Pancreatic procedures

    • D. 

      Cholecystectomy

  • 8. 
    How often are tourniquets deflated during surgery?
    • A. 

      Every 30 minutes

    • B. 

      Every hour for several minutes

    • C. 

      Every 2 hours for several minutes

    • D. 

      Every 3 hours for several minutes

  • 9. 
    A noninvasive test to study blood flow and metabolic functions in the brain and heart is:
    • A. 

      Positron emission tomography (PET)

    • B. 

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

    • C. 

      Angiography

    • D. 

      Computerized axial tomography (CAT)

  • 10. 
    The least inert of all the synthetic meshes is:
    • A. 

      Marlex mesh

    • B. 

      Vicryl mesh

    • C. 

      Mersilene mesh

    • D. 

      Gortex mesh

  • 11. 
    A mesh that is not preferred in the presence of infection is:
    • A. 

      Marlex mesh

    • B. 

      Braided Mersilene mesh

    • C. 

      Vicryl mesh

    • D. 

      Stainless steel mesh

  • 12. 
    Fibrin glue, methyl methacrylate, and butyl cyancarylate are examples of:
    • A. 

      Tissue adhesives

    • B. 

      Hemostatic agents

    • C. 

      Synthetic polymars

    • D. 

      Biologic dressings

  • 13. 
    A stapling device used to perform low anterior anastomosis is:
    • A. 

      TA 30

    • B. 

      GIA

    • C. 

      EEA

    • D. 

      LDS

  • 14. 
    Commonly used anesthesia equipment includes a:
    • A. 

      McGill forceps

    • B. 

      Miller blade

    • C. 

      Precordial stethoscope

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 15. 
    The laser light that is absorbed superficially by tissue to a shallow depth is:
    • A. 

      CO2 laser

    • B. 

      Argon laser

    • C. 

      Nd: YAG laser

    • D. 

      Helium

  • 16. 
    If the surgeons preference card called for a Bookwalter or Omnitract, you would be using a/an:
    • A. 

      Aortic clamp

    • B. 

      Self-retaining retractor

    • C. 

      Biliary tract instrument

    • D. 

      Stapling device

  • 17. 
    A Kahn, Calvin, Rubin, Hut, or Hum cannula may be used in which of the following procedures:
    • A. 

      Angiography

    • B. 

      Tuboplasty

    • C. 

      Cardiac catheterization

    • D. 

      Ear surgery

  • 18. 
    One of the most extensive of all abdominal procedures is the:
    • A. 

      Hepatic resection

    • B. 

      Cholecystoduodenostomy

    • C. 

      Pancreatoduodenectomy

    • D. 

      Anterior resection

  • 19. 
    A colposcopy may be performed for suspected:
    • A. 

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • B. 

      Dysplasia and/or carcinoma in situ

    • C. 

      Uterine fibroids

    • D. 

      Abnormal uterine bleeding

  • 20. 
    IAnother name for the uterine dressing forceps found in a D&C tray is the:
    • A. 

      Boseman

    • B. 

      Gaylor

    • C. 

      Staude

    • D. 

      Sims

  • 21. 
    The sharp uterine curettes found in a D&C tray are called:
    • A. 

      Galyor

    • B. 

      Thomas

    • C. 

      Sims

    • D. 

      Boseman

  • 22. 
    A colposcopy may be performed for suspected:
    • A. 

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • B. 

      Dysplasia and/or carcinoma in situ

    • C. 

      Uterine fibroids

    • D. 

      Abnormal uterine bleeding

  • 23. 
    Why is a purse-string suture placed in the cecal serosa during an appendectomy:
    • A. 

      To invert the stump of the appendix

    • B. 

      To close the appendiceal base

    • C. 

      To control bleeding

    • D. 

      To prevent hemorrhage

  • 24. 
    A suture used in tendon repair is:
    • A. 

      Ethilon

    • B. 

      Polygloycotic acid

    • C. 

      Stainless steel

    • D. 

      Nylon

  • 25. 
    Which of the following sutures is a polyester fiber suture:
    • A. 

      Vicryl

    • B. 

      Dexon

    • C. 

      Ethibond

    • D. 

      Chromic

  • 26. 
    Second intention healing involves:
    • A. 

      Primary union

    • B. 

      Primary union

    • C. 

      Delayed suturing of the wound

    • D. 

      Proliferative phase

  • 27. 
    Blunt dissection during cholecystectomy is accomplished by using:
    • A. 

      Peanut sponges

    • B. 

      Metzenbaum scissors

    • C. 

      Laparotomy sponges

    • D. 

      No. 7 knife handle with no. 15 blade

  • 28. 
    An accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms on encrusted mass destructive to the middle ear is:
    • A. 

      Otosclerosis

    • B. 

      Otitis media

    • C. 

      Cholesteatoma

    • D. 

      Serous drainage

  • 29. 
    The incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure involves the:
    • A. 

      Canine fossa of the upper jaw

    • B. 

      Frontal sinus

    • C. 

      Eyebrow

    • D. 

      Tear duct

  • 30. 
    Removal of tissue at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to facilitate breathing and to prevent recurrent attacks of otitis media is a/an:
    • A. 

      Adenoidectomy

    • B. 

      Tonsillectomy

    • C. 

      Turbinectomy

    • D. 

      Parotidectomy

  • 31. 
    Surgical correction of a deviated septum is a/an:
    • A. 

      Antrostomy

    • B. 

      Septoplasty

    • C. 

      Rhinoplasty

    • D. 

      Turbinectomy

  • 32. 
    The correct instrument used in rhinoplasty to remove the septal cartilage and deformity is the:
    • A. 

      Kerrison rongeur

    • B. 

      Jansen-Middleton forceps

    • C. 

      Myles curette

    • D. 

      Aufrecht glabellar rasp

  • 33. 
    A cosmetic procedure done to correct protruding ears is:
    • A. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • B. 

      Otoplasty

    • C. 

      Blepharoplasty

    • D. 

      Mentoplasty

  • 34. 
    Which of the following casts would be used for a greenstick fracture of the forearm?
    • A. 

      Hanging cast

    • B. 

      Hip spica cast

    • C. 

      Cylinder cast

    • D. 

      Shoulder spica cast

  • 35. 
    Glossectomy is removal of the:
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Lips

    • C. 

      Gum tissue

    • D. 

      Soft palate

  • 36. 
    Which of the following sutures generally would not be used in the presence of infection?
    • A. 

      Silk

    • B. 

      Chromic

    • C. 

      Steel

    • D. 

      Polypropylene

  • 37. 
    The measure of weight required to break a suture is the:
    • A. 

      Yield power

    • B. 

      Tensile strength

    • C. 

      Gauge

    • D. 

      Taut test

  • 38. 
    Which of the following instruments would be used to hold back muscles during a hip pinning?
    • A. 

      Angle guide

    • B. 

      Bennett retractors

    • C. 

      Key elevator

    • D. 

      Lane forceps

  • 39. 
    Which type of needle point would be selected for use on tendon or skin?
    • A. 

      Taper

    • B. 

      Cutting

    • C. 

      Blunt

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 40. 
    A cortical graft can be taken from which of the following structures?
    • A. 

      Illium

    • B. 

      Olacranon

    • C. 

      Distal radius

    • D. 

      Tibia

  • 41. 
    In an IABP (intraaortic balloon pump), the balloon is placed in the
    • A. 

      Ascending aorta

    • B. 

      Descending aorta

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Left ventricle

  • 42. 
    The recognized father of modern neurosurgery is:
    • A. 

      Harvey Cushing

    • B. 

      Sir Victor Horsley

    • C. 

      Sir Rickman Goodlee

    • D. 

      William W. Keen

  • 43. 
    A forceps used t remove stones from the common bile duct is a:
    • A. 

      Potts Smith

    • B. 

      Randall

    • C. 

      Kelly

    • D. 

      DeBakey

  • 44. 
    In an instrument count,
    • A. 

      Precounted sets eliminates the need for pre-case count

    • B. 

      All instruments and parts must be counted

    • C. 

      Large, bulky instruments need not be counted

    • D. 

      Count only instruments that will be used

  • 45. 
    Intra-ocular pressure is measured by a:
    • A. 

      Caliper

    • B. 

      Indirect-ophthalmoscope

    • C. 

      Tonemeter

    • D. 

      Berman locator

  • 46. 
    All of the following devices are used for hemostasis in a neurosurgical procedure except:
    • A. 

      Monopolar coagulator

    • B. 

      Bipolar coagulator

    • C. 

      Compressed cottonoid strips

    • D. 

      Bone wax

  • 47. 
    Methyl methacrylate might be used on which of the following procedures?
    • A. 

      Intramedullary rodding

    • B. 

      Total knee joint replacement

    • C. 

      Triple arthrodesis

    • D. 

      Arthroscopy

  • 48. 
    Bone allografts should be delivered to the field and:
    • A. 

      Cultured

    • B. 

      Soaked in antibiotic

    • C. 

      Implanted immediately

    • D. 

      A and B

  • 49. 
    Which of the following retractors would be used during a lumbar laminectomy?
    • A. 

      Gelpi

    • B. 

      Beckman-Adson

    • C. 

      Cloward

    • D. 

      Denis-Browns

  • 50. 
    The main difference between a radical mastectomy and a modified radical mastectomy is:
    • A. 

      Radical involves the use of a skin graft

    • B. 

      All auxiliary contents are not removed in a modified

    • C. 

      Pectoral muscles are not removed in a modified

    • D. 

      Modified radical offers excellent cosmetic results