Community Health Nursing Quiz
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Are you in the nursing department? Can you pass this community health nursing quiz? Here are a few questions that are gonna help you to test your knowledge, and they will also help you expand your knowledge as you answer these questions. Mark the letter of choice, then click on the Next button. The answer will be revealed after each question. No time limit to finish the exam. Good luck to you!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The immunization that produces a permanent scar is
- A.
DPT
- B.
BCG
- C.
Measles vaccination
- D.
Hepatitis B vaccination
Correct Answer
B. BCGExplanation
BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) is a type of immunization that produces a permanent scar. BCG is a vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis (TB) and is typically given in countries with a high prevalence of TB. The vaccine is administered through a small injection into the upper arm, which may leave a small scar at the injection site. This scar is a result of the body's immune response to the vaccine and is a sign that the vaccine has been successfully administered. Therefore, the correct answer is BCG.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A 4-week-old baby was admitted to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
- A.
DPT1
- B.
OPV1
- C.
Infant BCG
- D.
Hepatitis B vaccine 1
Correct Answer
C. Infant BCGExplanation
At 4 weeks old, the baby can receive the Infant BCG vaccine. BCG stands for Bacillus Calmette-Guérin and is used to protect against tuberculosis. It is typically given shortly after birth, but can be administered up to the age of 5 years. The DPT1 vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, is usually given at 6 weeks of age. OPV1, which is the oral polio vaccine, is also typically given at 6 weeks of age. Hepatitis B vaccine 1 is usually given shortly after birth, within 24 hours.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which sign will indicate that a young child suffers from severe pneumonia?
- A.
Dyspnea
- B.
Wheezing
- C.
Fast breathing
- D.
Chest indrawing
Correct Answer
D. Chest indrawingExplanation
Chest indrawing is a sign of severe pneumonia in young children. When a child's chest sinks in or retracts during inhalation, it indicates difficulty in breathing and a significant decrease in lung function. This is a result of the infection causing inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, making it harder for the child to breathe. Dyspnea refers to shortness of breath, which can occur in pneumonia but is not specific to severe cases. Wheezing and fast breathing can also be present in pneumonia, but chest indrawing is a more reliable indicator of severe pneumonia.Rate this question:
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- 4.
During a young child's physical examination, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia you may observe?
- A.
Keratomalacia
- B.
Corneal opacity
- C.
Night blindness
- D.
Conjunctival xerosis
Correct Answer
D. Conjunctival xerosisExplanation
During a young child's physical examination, the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that may be observed is conjunctival xerosis. Xerophthalmia is a condition caused by vitamin A deficiency, and conjunctival xerosis refers to dryness and thickening of the conjunctiva. This is an early sign of xerophthalmia and can progress to more severe symptoms such as corneal opacity and night blindness if left untreated. Keratomalacia is a more advanced stage of xerophthalmia characterized by softening and ulceration of the cornea.Rate this question:
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- 5.
To prevent xerophthalmia, young children get a Retinol capsule every 6 months. What dose is given to preschoolers?
- A.
10,000 IU
- B.
20,000 IU
- C.
100,000 IU
- D.
200,000 IU
Correct Answer
D. 200,000 IUExplanation
Preschoolers are given a dose of 200,000 IU of Retinol capsule every 6 months to prevent xerophthalmia. This dosage is necessary to ensure that young children receive an adequate amount of vitamin A, which is essential for maintaining good eye health and preventing xerophthalmia, a condition characterized by dryness and damage to the cornea. The high dosage is likely required because preschoolers have higher nutritional needs and may not consume enough vitamin A through their diet alone.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The major sign is pallor of iron deficiency anemia. The best examined for pallor is
- A.
Palms
- B.
Nailbeds
- C.
Both A & B
- D.
None
Correct Answer
A. PalmsExplanation
The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor, which refers to a paleness of the skin. The best areas to examine for pallor are the palms and nailbeds. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A & B" as both the palms and nailbeds are good indicators for detecting pallor in iron deficiency anemia.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Food fortification is one of the strategies that help to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976 mandates the fortification of certain food items. Which is among these food items?
- A.
Sugar
- B.
Rice
- C.
Margarine
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
A. SugarExplanation
Food fortification is a strategy used to prevent micronutrient deficiencies by adding essential vitamins and minerals to commonly consumed foods. R.A. 8976 is a mandate that requires the fortification of certain food items. The correct answer is Sugar, as it is one of the food items that need to be fortified according to this mandate.Rate this question:
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- 8.
For which intestinal parasite is a scotch tape swab done to check?
- A.
Ascaris
- B.
Pinworm
- C.
Hookworm
- D.
Schistosoma
Correct Answer
B. PinwormExplanation
A scotch tape swab is done to check for pinworms. Pinworms are a common intestinal parasite that infects humans, especially children. The scotch tape swab test involves placing a piece of clear tape around the anus and then examining it under a microscope to look for the presence of pinworm eggs. This test is used to diagnose pinworm infection, which can cause symptoms such as itching around the anus, restless sleep, and irritability. Treatment for pinworm infection typically involves medication to kill the worms and prevent re-infection.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which sign indicates the requirement of sputum examination for AFB?
- A.
Hematemesis
- B.
Fever for 1 week
- C.
Cough for 3 weeks
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
C. Cough for 3 weeksExplanation
The sign that indicates the requirement of sputum examination for AFB is "Cough for 3 weeks". This is because a persistent cough for 3 weeks can be a symptom of tuberculosis, which is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Sputum examination for AFB (acid-fast bacilli) is a diagnostic test used to detect the presence of these bacteria in the respiratory tract. Therefore, a prolonged cough is an indication for sputum examination to rule out tuberculosis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
- A.
3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
- B.
10 skin lesions
- C.
5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
- D.
5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
Correct Answer
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smearExplanation
A case of multibacillary leprosy is characterized by the presence of multiple skin lesions and a positive slit skin smear. The slit skin smear is a diagnostic test that detects the presence of Mycobacterium leprae, the bacteria that causes leprosy, in the skin. Therefore, the individual with 5 skin lesions and a positive slit skin smear should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jul 24, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 11, 2012Quiz Created by
RNpedia.com
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