Physical Science Practice Quiz

195 Questions
Physical Science Practice Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not included in physical science?
    • A. 

      Physics

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Astronomy

    • D. 

      Zoology

  • 2. 
    What science deals most with energy and forces?
    • A. 

      Biology

    • B. 

      Physics

    • C. 

      Botany

    • D. 

      Agriculture

  • 3. 
    Using superconductors to build computers is an example of
    • A. 

      Technology.

    • B. 

      Applied biology.

    • C. 

      Pure science.

    • D. 

      An experiment.

  • 4. 
    A balance is a scientific tool used to measure
    • A. 

      Temperature.

    • B. 

      Time.

    • C. 

      Volume.

    • D. 

      Mass.

  • 5. 
    Which of the following units is an SI base unit?
    • A. 

      Centimeter

    • B. 

      Kilogram

    • C. 

      Cubic meter

    • D. 

      Liter

  • 6. 
    The composition of the mixture of gases that makes up our air is best represented on what kind of graph?
    • A. 

      Line graph

    • B. 

      Variable graph

    • C. 

      Bar graph

    • D. 

      Pie chart

  • 7. 
    In a controlled experiment,
    • A. 

      The outcome is controlled.

    • B. 

      Results are obtained by computer models.

    • C. 

      One variable is fixed while all others are changed.

    • D. 

      One variable is changed while all others remain fixed.

  • 8. 
    Matter is
    • A. 

      Any visible solid that has mass.

    • B. 

      Any liquid that takes up space and has mass.

    • C. 

      Anything that takes up space and has mass.

    • D. 

      Any liquid or solid that takes up space.

  • 9. 
    What i the chemical formula for iron (III) oxide?
    • A. 

      Fe2+

    • B. 

      NaCl

    • C. 

      I2

    • D. 

      Fe2O3

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is a mixture?
    • A. 

      Air

    • B. 

      Salt

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Sulfur

  • 11. 
    Compounds and elements are
    • A. 

      Always solids.

    • B. 

      Mixtures.

    • C. 

      Pure substances.

    • D. 

      Dense.

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is a physical change?
    • A. 

      Melting ice cubes

    • B. 

      Burning paper

    • C. 

      Rusting iron

    • D. 

      Burning gasoline

  • 13. 
    • A. 

  • 14. 
    If you add oil to water and shake the two liquids together, you will form a
    • A. 

      Heterogeneous mixture.

    • B. 

      Homogeneous mixture.

    • C. 

      Miscible liquid.

    • D. 

      Pure substance.

  • 15. 
    Which of the following assumptions is NOT part of the part of the kinetic theory?
    • A. 

      All matter is made up of tiny, invisible particles.

    • B. 

      Particles are smaller at lower temperature.

    • C. 

      Particles move faster at higher temperature.

    • D. 

      The particles are always moving.

  • 16. 
    Three common states of matter are
    • A. 

  • 17. 
    During which change of state do atoms or molecules become more ordered?
    • A. 

      Boiling

    • B. 

      Condensation

    • C. 

      Melting

    • D. 

      Sublimation

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      The volume of the gas increases and the speed of the particles in increases.

    • B. 

      The speed of the particles decreases.

    • C. 

      The volume decreases.

    • D. 

      The pressure decreases.

  • 19. 
    Fluid pressure is always directed
    • A. 

      Up.

    • B. 

      Down.

    • C. 

      Sideways.

    • D. 

      In all direction.

  • 20. 
    Materials that can flow to fit their containers include
    • A. 

      Gases.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Both gases and liquids.

    • D. 

      Neither gases or liquids.

  • 21. 
    If an object weighing 50 N displaces a volume of water with a weight of 10 N, what is the buoyant force on the object?
    • A. 

      10 N

    • B. 

      40 N

    • C. 

      50 N

    • D. 

      60 N

  • 22. 
    Which of Dalton's statements about the atom was later proven false?
    • A. 

      Atoms cannot be subdivided.

    • B. 

      Atoms are tiny.

    • C. 

      Atoms of different elements are not identical.

    • D. 

      Atoms join to form molecules.

  • 23. 
    Which statement is NOT true of Bohr's model of the atom?
    • A. 

      The nucleus can be compared to the sun.

    • B. 

      Electrons orbit the nucleus.

    • C. 

      An electron's path is not known exactly.

    • D. 

      Electrons exist in energy levels.

  • 24. 
    According to the moderns model of the atom,
    • A. 

      Moving electrons form an electron cloud.

    • B. 

      Electrons and protons circle neutrons.

    • C. 

      Neutrons have a positive charge.

    • D. 

      The number of protons an atom has varies.

  • 25. 
    If an atom has a mass of 11 amu and contains five electrons, it's atomic number must be
    • A. 

      55.

    • B. 

      16.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 26. 
    Which statement about atoms of elements in the same group of the periodic table is true?
    • A. 

      They have the same number of protons.

    • B. 

      They have the same mass number.

    • C. 

      They have similar chemical properties.

    • D. 

      They have the same number of total electrons.

  • 27. 
    The majority of elements in the periodic table are
    • A. 

      Nonmetals.

    • B. 

      Conductors.

    • C. 

      Synthetic.

    • D. 

      Noble gases.

  • 28. 
    An atom of which of the following elements is unlikely to form a positively charged ion?
    • A. 

      Potassium, K

    • B. 

      Selenium, Se

    • C. 

      Barium, Ba

    • D. 

      Silver, Ag

  • 29. 
    Which of the following statements about krypton is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Its molar mass is 83.79 g/mol Kr.

    • B. 

      Its atomic number is 36.

    • C. 

      One mole of krypton atoms has a mass of 41.90 g.

    • D. 

      It is a noble gas.

  • 30. 
    • A. 

  • 31. 
    Compounds are different from mixtures because
    • A. 

      Compounds are held together by chemical bonds.

    • B. 

      Each substance in a compound maintains its own properties.

    • C. 

      Each original substance in a compound remains chemically unchanged.

    • D. 

      Mixtures are held together by chemical bonds.

  • 32. 
    Crystals of table salt, called sodium chloride, are
    • A. 

      Made of molecules.

    • B. 

      Made of a network of ions.

    • C. 

      Chemically similar to sugar crystals.

    • D. 

      Weak solids.

  • 33. 
    Ionic solids
    • A. 

      Are formed by a network of ions that have the same charge.

    • B. 

      Melt at very low temperatures.

    • C. 

      Have a very regular structure.

    • D. 

      Are sometimes found as gases at room temperature.

  • 34. 
    A chemical bond can be defined as
    • A. 

  • 35. 
    Which substance has ionic bonds?
    • A. 

      CO

    • B. 

      CO2

    • C. 

      KCl

    • D. 

      O2

  • 36. 
    All organic compounds
    • A. 

      Come only from living organisms.

    • B. 

      Contain only carbon and hydrogen.

    • C. 

      Are biochemical compounds.

    • D. 

      Have atoms connected by covalent bonds.

  • 37. 
    When a chemical reaction occurs, atoms are never
    • A. 

      Ionized.

    • B. 

      Rearranged.

    • C. 

      Destroyed.

    • D. 

      Vaporized.

  • 38. 
    In an exothermic reaction,
    • A. 

      Energy is conserved.

    • B. 

      The formation of bonds in the product releases more energy than is required to break the bonds in the reactants.

    • C. 

      Energy is released as bonds form.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 39. 
    Radicals
    • A. 

      Form ionic bonds with other ions.

    • B. 

      Result from broken covalent bonds.

    • C. 

      Usually break apart to form smaller components.

    • D. 

      Bind molecules together.

  • 40. 
    • A. 

  • 41. 
    Most reactions speed up when
    • A. 

      The temperature is lowered.

    • B. 

      Equilibrium is reached.

    • C. 

      The concentration of the products is increased.

    • D. 

      The reactants are in small pieces.

  • 42. 
    A system in chemical equilibrium
    • A. 

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
    • A. 

      Tossed salad

    • B. 

      Soil

    • C. 

      Salt water

    • D. 

      Vegetable soup

  • 44. 
    If the label on a bottle of medicine reads "shake well before using," the medicine is probably a
    • A. 

      Suspension.

    • B. 

      Solution.

    • C. 

      Colloid.

    • D. 

      Gel.

  • 45. 
    Suppose you add a teaspoon of table salt to a cool saltwater solution and stir until all of the salt dissolves.  The solution you started with was
    • A. 

  • 46. 
    Which of the following materials is an example of a solid dessolved in another solid?
    • A. 

      Smoke

    • B. 

      Bronze

    • C. 

      Mayonnaise

    • D. 

      Ice

  • 47. 
    The dispersed particles of a suspension are ___________than the particles of a colloid.
    • A. 

      Larger

    • B. 

      Smaller

    • C. 

      Lighter

    • D. 

      Less dense

  • 48. 
    Water attracts the ions of ionic compounds because water molecules are
    • A. 

  • 49. 
    To dissolve a substance, a solvent must attract particles of the substance more strongly than the ___________ attract each other.
    • A. 

      Solvent particles

    • B. 

      Water molecules

    • C. 

      Ions

    • D. 

      Solute particles

  • 50. 
    To cause a solute to dissolve faster, you could
    • A. 

  • 51. 
    To increase the solubility of a solid substance in a solvent, you could
    • A. 

      Add more solute.

    • B. 

      Heat the solution.

    • C. 

      Stir the solution.

    • D. 

      Lower the pressure.

  • 52. 
    A solution is _________ if it contains as much dissolved solute as it will hold under a given set of  conditions.
    • A. 

      Saturated.

    • B. 

      Dilute.

    • C. 

      Supersaturated.

    • D. 

      Concentrated

  • 53. 
    Gases are more soluble in liquids when the pressure is __________ and the temperature is _________.
    • A. 

      High, high

    • B. 

      High, low

    • C. 

      Low, high

    • D. 

      Low, low

  • 54. 
    The boiling point of a solution of sugar in water is ____________ the boiling point of water.
    • A. 

      Higher than

    • B. 

      Lower than

    • C. 

      The same as

    • D. 

      Not related to

  • 55. 
    Which ions does an acid fomr in solution?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Hydronium

    • C. 

      Hydroxide

    • D. 

      Sulfur

  • 56. 
    Which ions does a base form in solution?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Hydronium

    • C. 

      Hydroxide

    • D. 

      Sulfur

  • 57. 
    When a solution of nitric acid is added to a solution of calcium hydroxide, the salt formed has the formula
    • A. 

      Ca(NO3)2.

    • B. 

      Ca(OH)2.

    • C. 

      H2O

    • D. 

      CaH

  • 58. 
    An antacid relieves an overly acidic stomach because antacids are
    • A. 

      Acidic.

    • B. 

      Neutral.

    • C. 

      Basic.

    • D. 

      Dilute.

  • 59. 
    Detergents have replaced soap in many uses because detergents
    • A. 

      Are made from animal fat.

    • B. 

      Do not form insoluble substances.

    • C. 

      Are milder than soap.

    • D. 

      Contain ammonia.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following ionic equations best represents a neutralization reaction?
    • A. 

      Na + H2O --> Na+ + OH- + H2

    • B. 

      HNO3 + H2O --> H3O+ + NO3-

    • C. 

      2OH- + NH4Cl --> Cl- + H2O + NH3

    • D. 

      OH- + H3O+ --> 2H2O

  • 61. 
    An increase in the hydronium ion concentration of a solution _________ the pH.
    • A. 

      Raises

    • B. 

      Lowers

    • C. 

      Does not affect

    • D. 

      Doubles

  • 62. 
    Bleach removes stains by
    • A. 

      Changing the color of the stain.

    • B. 

      Covering the stain.

    • C. 

      Removing the stain-causing substances.

    • D. 

      Disinfecting the stain.

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is NOT an acidic material found in the kitchen?
    • A. 

      Baking soda

    • B. 

      Lemon juice

    • C. 

      Vinegar

    • D. 

      Vitamin C

  • 64. 
    When a heavy nucleus decays, it may emit
    • A. 

      Alpha particles.

    • B. 

      Beta particles.

    • C. 

      Gamma rays.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 65. 
    A neutron decays to form a proton and a(n)
    • A. 

      Alpha particle.

    • B. 

      Beta particle.

    • C. 

      Gamma ray.

    • D. 

      Emitted neutron.

  • 66. 
    After three half-lives, ______________ of a radioactive sample remains.
    • A. 

      All

    • B. 

      One-half

    • C. 

      One-third

    • D. 

      One-eighth

  • 67. 
    Carbon dating can be used to measure the age of each of the following except
    • A. 

      A 7000-year-old human body.

    • B. 

      A 1200-year-old wooden statue.

    • C. 

      A 2600-year-old iron sword.

    • D. 

      A 3500-year-old piece of fabric.

  • 68. 
    The strong nuclear force
    • A. 

      Attracts protons to electrons.

    • B. 

      Holds molecules together.

    • C. 

      Hold the atomic nucleus together.

    • D. 

      Attracts electrons to neutrons.

  • 69. 
    The process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is called
    • A. 

      Fission.

    • B. 

      Fusion.

    • C. 

      Alpha decay.

    • D. 

      A chain reaction.

  • 70. 
    The amount of energy produced during nuclear fission is related to
    • A. 

      The temperature in the atmosphere during nuclear fission.

    • B. 

      The masses of the missing nuclei and particles released.

    • C. 

      The volume of the nuclear reactor.

    • D. 

      The square of the speed of sound.

  • 71. 
    Which condition is not necessary for a chain reaction to occur?
    • A. 

      The radioactive sample must have a short half-life.

    • B. 

      The neutrons from one split nucleus must cause other nuclei to divide.

    • C. 

      The radioactive sample must be at critical mass.

    • D. 

      Not too many neutrons must be allowed to leave the radioactive sample.

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is NOT a use for radioactive isotopes?
    • A. 

      As tracers for diagnosing disease

    • B. 

      As an additive to paints to increase their durability

    • C. 

      As a way of treating forms of cancer

    • D. 

      As a way to study biochemical processes in plants

  • 73. 
    If you jog for 1 h and travel 10 km, 10 km/h describes your
    • A. 

      Momentum.

    • B. 

      Average speed.

    • C. 

      Displacement.

    • D. 

      Acceleration.

  • 74. 
    ____________ is a speed in a certain direction.
    • A. 

      Acceleration

    • B. 

      Friction

    • C. 

      Momentum

    • D. 

      Velocity

  • 75. 
    An object's speed is a measure of
    • A. 

      How fast the object is moving.

    • B. 

      The object's direction.

    • C. 

      The object's displacement per unit of time.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 76. 
    A car travels a distance of 210 mi in exactly 4 h.  The driver calculates that he has traveled 52.5 mi/h.  Which of the following terms most nearly describes his calculation?
    • A. 

      Average speed

    • B. 

      Instantaneous speed

    • C. 

      Instantaneous acceleration

    • D. 

      Displacement

  • 77. 
    Which of the quantities below represents velocity?
    • A. 

      25 m/s

    • B. 

      10 km/min

    • C. 

      15 mi/h eastward

    • D. 

      3 mi/hr

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is NOT accelerating?
    • A. 

      A ball being juggled

    • B. 

      A woman walking 2.5 m/s along a straight road

    • C. 

      A satellite circling Earth

    • D. 

      A braking cyclist

  • 79. 
    At the end of a game, a basketball player on the winning team throws the basket ball straight up as high as he can throw it.  At the top of its path, the basketball's velocity is
    • A. 

      0m/s

    • B. 

      10m/s up

    • C. 

      10 m/s down

    • D. 

      Not enough info given to determine its velocity.

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is NOT caused by a net force?
    • A. 

      Starting up a bicycle that was previously not moving

    • B. 

      Changing a bicycle's speed while it is moving in a straight line

    • C. 

      Changing a bicycle's direction while it is moving at a constant speed

    • D. 

      Keeping a bicycle moving at a constant speed in a straight line

  • 81. 
    A book is siting still on your desk.  Which of the following best describes this situation?
    • A. 

      There are no forces acting on the book.

    • B. 

      The book is moving compared to the reference frame.

    • C. 

      There are balanced forces acting on the book.

    • D. 

      There are unbalanced forces acting on the book.

  • 82. 
    Newton's first law of motion states tat an object
    • A. 

      At rest remains at rest unless it experiences an unbalanced force.

    • B. 

      In motion maintains its velocity unless it experiences an unbalanced force.

    • C. 

      Will tend to maintain its motion unless it experiences an unbalanced force.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 83. 
    The first law of motion applies to
    • A. 

      Only objects that are moving.

    • B. 

      Only objects that are not moving.

    • C. 

      All objects, whether moving or not.

    • D. 

      No object, whether moving or not.

  • 84. 
    A measure of inertia is an object's
    • A. 

      Mass.

    • B. 

      Weight.

    • C. 

      Velocity.

    • D. 

      Acceleration.

  • 85. 
    Automobile seat belts are necessary for safety because of a passenger's
    • A. 

      Weight.

    • B. 

      Inertia.

    • C. 

      Speed.

    • D. 

      Gravity.

  • 86. 
    Suppose you are pushing a car with a certain net force.  If you then push it with twice the net force, the car's acceleration
    • A. 

      Becomes 4 times as much.

    • B. 

      Becomes 2 times as much.

    • C. 

      Stays the same.

    • D. 

      Becomes half as much.

  • 87. 
    Any change in a boject's velocity is caused by
    • A. 

      The object's mass.

    • B. 

      The object's direction.

    • C. 

      A balanced force.

    • D. 

      An unbalanced force.

  • 88. 
    An object's acceleration is
    • A. 

      Directly proportional to the net force.

    • B. 

      Inversely proportional to the object's mass.

    • C. 

      In the same direction as the net force.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 89. 
    Gravitational force between two masses ____________ as the masses increase and rapidly __________ as the distance between the masses increases.
    • A. 

      Strengthens, strengthens

    • B. 

      Weakens, weakens

    • C. 

      Weakens, strengthens

    • D. 

      Strengthens, weakens

  • 90. 
    An example of action-reaction forces is
    • A. 

      Air escaping from a toy balloon.

    • B. 

      A rocket traveling through the air.

    • C. 

      A ball bouncing off a wall.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 91. 
    A baseball player catches a line-drive hit.  If the reaction force is the force of the player's glove stopping the ball, the action force is
    • A. 

      The force of the player's hand on the glove.

    • B. 

      The force applied by the player's arm.

    • C. 

      The force of the ball pushing on the glove.

    • D. 

      The force of the player's shoes on the dirt.

  • 92. 
    __________ is defined as force acting over a distance.
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Energy

    • C. 

      Work

    • D. 

      Potential energy

  • 93. 
    The quantity that measures how much a machine multiplies force is called
    • A. 

      Mechanical advantage.

    • B. 

      Leverage.

    • C. 

      Efficiency.

    • D. 

      Power.

  • 94. 
    The unit that represents 1 J of work done each second is the
    • A. 

      Power.

    • B. 

      Newton.

    • C. 

      Watt.

    • D. 

      Mechanical advantage.

  • 95. 
    Which of the following situations does NOT involve potential energy being changed into kinetic energy?
    • A. 

      An apple falling from a tree

    • B. 

      Shooting a dart from a spring-loaded gun

    • C. 

      Pulling back the string of a bow

    • D. 

      A creek flowing downstream

  • 96. 
    _________ is determined by both mass and velocity.
    • A. 

      Work

    • B. 

      Power

    • C. 

      Potential energy

    • D. 

      Kinetic energy

  • 97. 
    Energy that involves the large-scale motion or position of objects in a system is called
    • A. 

      Potential energy.

    • B. 

      Mechanical energy.

    • C. 

      Nonmechanical energy.

    • D. 

      Conserved energy.

  • 98. 
    Which of the following can a machine not do?
    • A. 

      Change the direction of a force

    • B. 

      Multiply or increase force

    • C. 

      Redistribute force

    • D. 

      Increase the total amount of work done

  • 99. 
    A machine with a mechanical advantage of less that one
    • A. 

      Increases speed and distance.

    • B. 

      Multiplies force.

    • C. 

      Increases output force.

    • D. 

      Reduces distance and speed.

  • 100. 
    Temperature is proportional to the average kinetic energy of particles in an object.  Thus an increase in temperature results in a(n)
    • A. 

      Increase in mass.

    • B. 

      Decrease in average kinetic energy.

    • C. 

      Increase in average kinetic energy.

    • D. 

      Decrease in mass.

  • 101. 
    The temperature at which the particles of a substance have mo more kinetic energy to transfer is
    • A. 

      -273 K.

    • B. 

      0 K.

    • C. 

      0 degrees K.

    • D. 

      273 K.

  • 102. 
    The type of energy transfer that takes place between objects in direct contact is
    • A. 

      Conduction.

    • B. 

      Convection.

    • C. 

      Contraction.

    • D. 

      Radiation.

  • 103. 
    Which type of energy transfer can occur in empty space?
    • A. 

      Convection

    • B. 

      Contraction

    • C. 

      Conduction

    • D. 

      Radiation

  • 104. 
    An R-value is a rating for materials used as
    • A. 

      Conduction.

    • B. 

      Convection.

    • C. 

      Insulation.

    • D. 

      Radiation.

  • 105. 
    Which of the following would be an example of a very good conductor of heat energy?
    • A. 

      Liquid

    • B. 

      Wood

    • C. 

      Air

    • D. 

      Metal

  • 106. 
    Which of the following would be an example of a very good insulator?
    • A. 

      Metal

    • B. 

      Wood

    • C. 

      Air

    • D. 

      Liquid

  • 107. 
    The amount of usable energy decreases when
    • A. 

      Systems are only used for heating.

    • B. 

      Systems are only used for cooling.

    • C. 

      Systems are used for heating and cooling.

    • D. 

      The heating or cooling system's design allows loss of heat energy.

  • 108. 
    A refrigerant in a cooling system cools the surrounding air
    • A. 

      As it evaporates.

    • B. 

      As it condenses.

    • C. 

      Both as it evaporates and condenses.

    • D. 

      When it neither evaporates nor condedses.

  • 109. 
    Solar heating systems are slassified as
    • A. 

  • 110. 
    A wave is a disturbance that transmits
    • A. 

      Matter.

    • B. 

      Particles.

    • C. 

      Energy.

    • D. 

      A medium.

  • 111. 
    The speed of a wave depends on the
    • A. 

      Medium.

    • B. 

      Frequency.

    • C. 

      Amplitude.

    • D. 

      Wavelength.

  • 112. 
    Most waves are caused by
    • A. 

      Velocity.

    • B. 

      Amplitude.

    • C. 

      A vibration.

    • D. 

      Earthquakes.

  • 113. 
    A sound wave is an example of
    • A. 

      An electromagnetic wave.

    • B. 

      A transverse wave.

    • C. 

      A longitudinal wave.

    • D. 

      A surface wave.

  • 114. 
    In an ocean wave, the molecules of water
    • A. 

      Move perpendicular to the direction of wave travel.

    • B. 

      Move parallel to the direction of wave travel.

    • C. 

      Move in circles.

    • D. 

      Don't move at all.

  • 115. 
    Half the vertical distance between the crest and trough of a wave is called the
    • A. 

      Frequency.

    • B. 

      Crest.

    • C. 

      Wavelength.

    • D. 

      Amplitude.

  • 116. 
    The number of waves passing a given point per unit of time is called the
    • A. 

      Frequency.

    • B. 

      Wave speed.

    • C. 

      Wavelength.

    • D. 

      Amplitude.

  • 117. 
    The combining of waves as they meet is known as
    • A. 

      A crest.

    • B. 

      Noise.

    • C. 

      Interference.

    • D. 

      The Doppler effect.

  • 118. 
    The Greek letter λ is often used to represent a wave's
    • A. 

      Period.

    • B. 

      Wavelength.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      Amplitude.

  • 119. 
    The speed of sound depends on
    • A. 

      The temperature of the medium.

    • B. 

      The density of the medium.

    • C. 

      How well the particles of the medium transfer energy.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 120. 
    Relative intensity is measure in units abbreviated as
    • A. 

      DB.

    • B. 

      Hz.

    • C. 

      J.

    • D. 

      V.

  • 121. 
    A flat mirror forms an image that is
    • A. 

      Smaller than the object.

    • B. 

      Larger than the object.

    • C. 

      Virtual.

    • D. 

      Real.

  • 122. 
    The wave interaction most important for echolocation is
    • A. 

      Reflection.

    • B. 

      Interference.

    • C. 

      Diffraction.

    • D. 

      Resonance.

  • 123. 
    Light can be modeled as a
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic waves.

    • B. 

      A stream of particles called photons.

    • C. 

      Rays that travel in straight lines.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 124. 
    The energy of a photon is proportional to
    • A. 

      Amplitude.

    • B. 

      The speed of light.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 125. 
    Which of the following wavelengths of visible light bends the most when passing through a prism?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Blue

  • 126. 
    The electric force between 2 objects depends on all of the following except
    • A. 

      The distance between the objects.

    • B. 

      The electric charge of the first object.

    • C. 

      How the 2 objects become electrically charged.

    • D. 

      The electric charge of the second object.

  • 127. 
    If 2 charges attract each other,
    • A. 

      Both charges must be positive.

    • B. 

      Both charges must be negative.

    • C. 

      The charges must be different.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 128. 
    The _________ is the change in the electrical potential energy of a charged particle per unit charge:
    • A. 

      Circuit

    • B. 

      Voltage

    • C. 

      Induction

    • D. 

      Power

  • 129. 
    In order to produce a current in a cell, the terminals must
    • A. 

      Be exposed to light.

    • B. 

      Be in a liquid.

    • C. 

      Be at 2 different temperatures.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 130. 
    An electric current does not exist in a(n)
    • A. 

      Closed circuit.

    • B. 

      Series circuit.

    • C. 

      Parallel circuit.

    • D. 

      Open circuit.

  • 131. 
    Which of the following can help prevent  a circuit from overloading?
    • A. 

      A fuse

    • B. 

      A switch

    • C. 

      A circuit breaker

    • D. 

      Both (A) and (C)

  • 132. 
    If the poles of 2 magnets repel each other,
    • A. 

      Both poles must be south poles.

    • B. 

      Both poles must be north poles.

    • C. 

      One pole is a south pole and the other is a north pole.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 133. 
    The part of the magnet where the magnetic field and forces are the strongest is called a magnetic
    • A. 

      Field.

    • B. 

      Attraction.

    • C. 

      Repulsion.

    • D. 

      Pole.

  • 134. 
    A ___________ magnetic material is easy to magnetize but loses its magnetism easily.
    • A. 

      Hard

    • B. 

      Magnetically unstable

    • C. 

      Soft

    • D. 

      No such material exists

  • 135. 
    An object's ability to generate a magnetic field depends on its
    • A. 

      Size.

    • B. 

      Location.

    • C. 

      Composition.

    • D. 

      Direction.

  • 136. 
    A compass held directly below a current-carrying wire with a positive current moving north will point
    • A. 

      East.

    • B. 

      North.

    • C. 

      South.

    • D. 

      West.

  • 137. 
    An electric motor uses an electromagnet to change
    • A. 

      Mechanical energy to electrical energy.

    • B. 

      Magnetic fields in the motor.

    • C. 

      Magnetic poles in the motor.

    • D. 

      Electrical energy to mechanical energy.

  • 138. 
    An electric generator is a device that can convert
    • A. 

      Nuclear energy to electrical energy.

    • B. 

      Wind energy to electrical energy.

    • C. 

      Energy from burning coal to electrical energy.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 139. 
    The process of producing an electric current by moving a magnet in and out of a coil of wire is called
    • A. 

      Magnetic deduction.

    • B. 

      Electromagnetic induction.

    • C. 

      Magnetic reduction.

    • D. 

      Magnetic production.

  • 140. 
    In a transformer, the voltage of a current will be increased if the secondary circuit
    • A. 

      Has more turns than the primary circuit.

    • B. 

      Has fewer turns that the primary circuit.

    • C. 

      Has the same number of turns as the primary circuit.

    • D. 

      Is parallel to the primary circuit.

  • 141. 
    A __________ is necessary to interpret a signal.
    • A. 

      CPU

    • B. 

      Modulation

    • C. 

      Operating system

    • D. 

      Code

  • 142. 
    A microphone uses a transducer to
    • A. 

      Convert digital signals into analog signals.

    • B. 

      Convert sound waves into an electric current.

    • C. 

      Amplify a sound wave.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 143. 
    The up-and-down movement of electrons in the wire of a transmitting antenna produces _______ waves.
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic

    • B. 

      Visible light

    • C. 

      Sound

    • D. 

      Television

  • 144. 
    Telephone signals sent down wires rely on
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic waves.

    • B. 

      Digital signals.

    • C. 

      Electric current.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric transmission.

  • 145. 
    If the _________ is adjusted, a radio can receive a certain station.
    • A. 

      Amplifier voltage

    • B. 

      Speaker circuit

    • C. 

      Tuner circuit

    • D. 

      Carrier frequency

  • 146. 
    FM radio waves do NOT rely on
    • A. 

      Line-of-sight transmission.

    • B. 

      Carrier waves.

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation.

    • D. 

      A transducer.

  • 147. 
    Memory in a computer that is permanent and cannot be added to is called
    • A. 

      RAM

    • B. 

      ROM

    • C. 

      CRT

    • D. 

      CPU

  • 148. 
    Which planet has been "demoted?"
    • A. 

      Pluto

    • B. 

      Mars

    • C. 

      Uranus (ha ha)

    • D. 

      Neptune

  • 149. 
    Earth is gravitationally attracted to
    • A. 

      Mercury.

    • B. 

      The Moon.

    • C. 

      The Sun.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 150. 
    Meteor chowers occur when
    • A. 

      Earth passes through the orbit of a comet.

    • B. 

      A large asteroid comes near Earth.

    • C. 

      Earth enters the asteroid belt.

    • D. 

      Earth enters the Oort cloud.

  • 151. 
    The current theory states that our Moon formed when
    • A. 

      A Jupiter-sized object collided with Earth.

    • B. 

      A Mars-sized object collided with Earth.

    • C. 

      Planetesimals came together in a disk around the Earth.

    • D. 

      Earth's gravity captured a stray object in space, and it began to orbit Earth.

  • 152. 
    The planet Jupiter has a day that is
    • A. 

      Longer than one day on Earth.

    • B. 

      Shorter than one day on Earth.

    • C. 

      Equal to one day on Earth.

    • D. 

      Equal to one Jupiter year.

  • 153. 
    The theory that the sun and planets formed out of the same cloud of gas and dust is called the __________ theory.
    • A. 

      Big bang

    • B. 

      Planetary

    • C. 

      Nebular

    • D. 

      Nuclear

  • 154. 
    Which planet has the hottest surface?
    • A. 

      Mercury

    • B. 

      Venus

    • C. 

      Earth

    • D. 

      Mars

  • 155. 
    The center of our solar system is
    • A. 

      Earth.

    • B. 

      The Moon.

    • C. 

      The sun.

    • D. 

      The Oort cloud.

  • 156. 
    Most calendars are based on
    • A. 

      Earth's orbit of the sun.

    • B. 

      Moon's orbit of the Earth.

    • C. 

      Jupiter's orbit of the sun.

    • D. 

      Venus' position in the sky.

  • 157. 
    The solar system is about ___________ years old.
    • A. 

      0.5 million

    • B. 

      0.5 billion

    • C. 

      4.6 million

    • D. 

      4.6 billion

  • 158. 
    Planets near other stars are found by
    • A. 

      Making images of the planet and the star.

    • B. 

      Detecting the temperature of the planet.

    • C. 

      Detecting the atmosphere of the planet.

    • D. 

      Detecting the gravitational field of the planet.

  • 159. 
    What are the 3 basic types of galaxies?
    • A. 

      Spiral, elliptical, and irregular

    • B. 

      Closed, elliptical, and open

    • C. 

      Spiral, quasar, and pulsar

    • D. 

      Open, binary, and globular

  • 160. 
    A pattern of stars seen from Earth is a
    • A. 

      Galaxy.

    • B. 

      Nebula.

    • C. 

      Milky Way.

    • D. 

      Constellation.

  • 161. 
    By studying starlight, astronomers may learn
    • A. 

      That elements that are in the star.

    • B. 

      The surface temperature of the star.

    • C. 

      The speed at which the star is moving toward or away from Earth.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 162. 
    A light-year is a unit of
    • A. 

      Time.

    • B. 

      Distance.

    • C. 

      Mass.

    • D. 

      Temperature.

  • 163. 
    A star like the Sun will end its life as a
    • A. 

      Pulsar.

    • B. 

      Black hole.

    • C. 

      White dwarf.

    • D. 

      Supernova.

  • 164. 
    What kind of galaxy is the Milky Way?
    • A. 

      Elliptical

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Cluster

    • D. 

      Irregular

  • 165. 
    Giant elliptical galaxies have _________ stars.
    • A. 

      Dozens

    • B. 

      Thousands

    • C. 

      Hundreds

    • D. 

      Millions

  • 166. 
    A Type II superniva explodes when it begins to fuse ________ in its core.
    • A. 

      Hydrogen

    • B. 

      Helium

    • C. 

      Carbon

    • D. 

      Iron

  • 167. 
    Which of the following is a possible age of the universe, according to the big bang theory?
    • A. 

  • 168. 
    According to Einstein's theory of relativity, space is curved by a great _________ nearby.
    • A. 

      Mass

    • B. 

      Comet

    • C. 

      Vacuum

    • D. 

      Satellite

  • 169. 
    Vibrations in Earth caused by sudden movements of rock are called
    • A. 

      Epicenters.

    • B. 

      Earthquakes.

    • C. 

      Faults.

    • D. 

      Volcanoes.

  • 170. 
    Using the difference in the time it takes for P waves and S waves to arrive at three different seismograph stations, seismologists can find an earthquake's
    • A. 

      Epicenter.

    • B. 

      Surface waves.

    • C. 

      Fault zone.

    • D. 

      Intensity.

  • 171. 
    The Richter scale expresses an earthquake's
    • A. 

      Damage.

    • B. 

      Location.

    • C. 

      Duration.

    • D. 

      Magnitude.

  • 172. 
    High pressure and high temperature cause igneous rocks to become
    • A. 

      Sedimentary rocks.

    • B. 

      Limestone.

    • C. 

      Metamorphic rocks.

    • D. 

      Clay.

  • 173. 
    __________ rock is formed from magma.
    • A. 

      Igneous

    • B. 

      Metamorphic

    • C. 

      Sedimentary

    • D. 

      Schist

  • 174. 
    Underground caves in limestone can be formed by a reaction including
    • A. 

      Sulfuric acid.

    • B. 

      Hematite.

    • C. 

      Ice crystals.

    • D. 

      Carbonic acid.

  • 175. 
    Which of the following part's of Earth's interior is liquid?
    • A. 

      Inner core

    • B. 

      Crust

    • C. 

      Outer core

    • D. 

      Mantle

  • 176. 
    The most common type of volcano is the
    • A. 

      Cinder cone.

    • B. 

      Shield volcano.

    • C. 

      Giant volcano.

    • D. 

      Composite volcano.

  • 177. 
    Which one of these forces shapes Earth's surface?
    • A. 

      Glaciers

    • B. 

      Oceans

    • C. 

      Winds

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 178. 
    Almost all of the water vapor in the atmosphere is in the
    • A. 

      Exosphere.

    • B. 

      Ionosphere.

    • C. 

      Stratosphere.

    • D. 

      Troposphere.

  • 179. 
    CFC's, chemicals that are used a refrigerants and propellants in spray cans, are partly to blame for the reduction of ___________ in the stratosphere.
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      Ozone

    • D. 

      Clouds

  • 180. 
    Clouds form when water vapor in the air condenses as
    • A. 

      The air is heated.

    • B. 

      The air is cooled.

    • C. 

      Snow falls.

    • D. 

      Snow forms.

  • 181. 
    When air temperature drops, the air's ability to contain water vapor is
    • A. 

      Slightly higher.

    • B. 

      Much higher.

    • C. 

      The same.

    • D. 

      Lower.

  • 182. 
    Winds in the Northern Hemisphere curve clockwise because of
    • A. 

      CO2.

    • B. 

      Climate.

    • C. 

      The Coriolis Effect.

    • D. 

      CFCs.

  • 183. 
    Cumulonimbus and nimbostratus clouds both
    • A. 

      Appear white and fluffy.

    • B. 

      Produce precipitation.

    • C. 

      Occur at higher latitudes.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 184. 
    When a moving warm air mass encounters a mountain range, it
    • A. 

      Stops moving.

    • B. 

      Slows and sinks.

    • C. 

      Rises and cools.

    • D. 

      Reverses direction.

  • 185. 
    Electrons in the ___________ reflect radio waves.
    • A. 

      Mesosphere

    • B. 

      Ionosphere

    • C. 

      Radiosphere

    • D. 

      Troposphere

  • 186. 
    Which one of the following is NOT part of the water cycle?
    • A. 

      Humidity

    • B. 

      Precipitation

    • C. 

      Condensation

    • D. 

      Transporation

  • 187. 
    _________ are created when air masses of different temperature meet.
    • A. 

      Wind storms

    • B. 

      Weather systems

    • C. 

      Air masses

    • D. 

      Fronts

  • 188. 
    Choose the list that is ordered from largest to smallest.
    • A. 

      Population, organism, community, ecosystem

    • B. 

      Organism, population, ecosystem, community

    • C. 

      Ecosystem, community, population, organism

    • D. 

      Ecosystem, population, community, organism

  • 189. 
    Starlings are an example of
    • A. 

      A non-native species introduced into the US.

    • B. 

      A climatic ecosystem change.

    • C. 

      A species that migrated to the US on their own.

    • D. 

      A species threatened by ecosystem change.

  • 190. 
    When fossil fuels are burned, the form carbon dioxide and
    • A. 

      Water.

    • B. 

      Oxygen.

    • C. 

      Hydrocarbons.

    • D. 

      Carbohydrates.

  • 191. 
    Fossil fuels are made mostly of what elements?
    • A. 

      Carbon and hydrogen

    • B. 

      Carbon and calcium

    • C. 

      Calcium and hydrogen

    • D. 

      Potassium and chlorine

  • 192. 
    In power stations, ___________ of the energy input is wasted.
    • A. 

      1/3

    • B. 

      1/2

    • C. 

      2/3

    • D. 

      All

  • 193. 
    Which of the following is not true of recycling?
    • A. 

      Recycling does not affect the amount of waste that ends up in a landfill.

    • B. 

      Recycling reduces litter.

    • C. 

      Recycling reduces energy usage.

    • D. 

      Recycled materials can be used to make other products.

  • 194. 
    The major air pollutant in the US is
    • A. 

      Sulfur oxides.

    • B. 

      Carbon monoxide.

    • C. 

      Nitrogen oxides.

    • D. 

      Particulate matter.

  • 195. 
    Atomic reactions can produce an alternate source of energy called
    • A. 

      Fossil fuels.

    • B. 

      Solar energy.

    • C. 

      Geothermal energy.

    • D. 

      Nuclear energy.