Phlebotomy Chapter 1, 2, And 3 Practice Test Questions
What does phlebotomy mean, and what is its purpose? Here, we have a phlebotomy practice test that consists of questions based on chapters 1, 2, and 3. Basically, phlebotomy is when someone takes blood from a vein using a needle, usually in your arm. It is also called blood draw or venipuncture. If you have read the book and remember things clearly, you can easily pass this quiz. So, are you ready to take this quiz? Go ahead, then!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The abbreviation for the current coding system for physician billing is called:
- A.
CPT
- B.
DRG's
- C.
PPO
- D.
PPS
Correct Answer
A. CPTExplanation
The correct answer is CPT. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology, which is a coding system used by physicians to accurately report medical procedures and services. It is maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA) and is widely used for billing and reimbursement purposes. CPT codes are essential for ensuring accurate and consistent communication between healthcare providers, insurance companies, and other entities involved in the healthcare industry.Rate this question:
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- 2.
This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services.
- A.
APC
- B.
DRG's
- C.
ICD-9
- D.
PPS
Correct Answer
A. APCExplanation
APC stands for Ambulatory Payment Classification. It is a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services. This system groups similar services and procedures together and assigns them a specific payment rate based on the resources required to provide the service. It helps ensure that hospitals are reimbursed appropriately for the services they provide to Medicare beneficiaries in an outpatient setting.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which Director, Chief Officer, or Vice President would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
B. VP Clinical & Support servicesExplanation
The Vice President of Clinical & Support Services would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans. This is because ancillary testing falls under the umbrella of clinical services, and the VP of Clinical & Support Services is responsible for overseeing and managing these services.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
A. Sr. Director Performance ExcellenceExplanation
The Sr. Director of Performance Excellence is responsible for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility. This role is specifically focused on improving the overall performance and quality of the healthcare facility, which includes infection control measures. They work closely with other departments and staff to implement and monitor infection prevention protocols, ensure compliance with regulations, and identify areas for improvement in order to reduce hospital-induced infections.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
D. VP & Chief Medical OfficerExplanation
The VP & Chief Medical Officer is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital. This role oversees the medical staff and ensures that they are providing quality care to patients. They may also be involved in hiring and credentialing physicians, as well as implementing policies and procedures related to medical practice.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
C. VP/Chief Nursing OfficerExplanation
The VP/Chief Nursing Officer is responsible for the administrative oversight of outpatient medical services. This role is typically responsible for managing and coordinating nursing staff, ensuring quality patient care, and implementing policies and procedures related to outpatient services. They work closely with other healthcare professionals to ensure efficient and effective delivery of outpatient medical services.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the responsibility for quality performance and patient satisfaction?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
A. Sr. Director Performance ExcellenceExplanation
The Sr. Director Performance Excellence is responsible for quality performance and patient satisfaction. This role focuses on ensuring that the organization meets high standards of quality in healthcare delivery and patient care. They oversee the implementation of quality improvement initiatives and monitor performance metrics to identify areas for improvement. By leading efforts to enhance patient satisfaction, the Sr. Director Performance Excellence plays a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive high-quality care and have a positive experience.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for?
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Hypothyroidism
- C.
Phlebitis
- D.
Polycythemia
Correct Answer
D. PolycythemiaExplanation
Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for polycythemia. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an excessive production of red blood cells, which can lead to an increased risk of blood clots and other complications. Phlebotomy involves the removal of blood from the body, which helps to reduce the number of red blood cells and improve blood flow. By regularly removing blood through phlebotomy, the excessive red blood cells can be managed and the symptoms of polycythemia can be alleviated.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Personal “zone of comfort” is a radius of?
- A.
1-18 inches
- B.
1 1/2-4 feet
- C.
4-12 feet
- D.
Over 12 feet
Correct Answer
B. 1 1/2-4 feetExplanation
The personal "zone of comfort" refers to the distance at which individuals feel comfortable and secure in their personal space. This typically varies from person to person, but the range of 1 1/2-4 feet is generally considered to be the average personal space for most individuals. This distance allows for comfortable social interactions without feeling too crowded or invaded.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is an example of proxemics?
- A.
Eye contact
- B.
Facial expression
- C.
Personal contact
- D.
Personal hygiene
Correct Answer
C. Personal contactExplanation
Proxemics refers to the study of personal space and the distance between individuals in social interactions. Personal contact involves physical touch or close proximity between individuals, which falls under the concept of proxemics. Eye contact, facial expression, and personal hygiene are not directly related to the physical distance between individuals and are therefore not examples of proxemics.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. A patient in this department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the?
- A.
Joints
- B.
Kidneys
- C.
Lungs
- D.
Nose
Correct Answer
B. KidneysExplanation
A patient in the nephrology department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the kidneys. Nephrology is a medical specialty that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of kidney diseases. Therefore, it is logical to assume that if a phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department, the patient is being treated for a kidney disorder.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngolog department. The phlebotomist proceeded to go to the department that provides treatment for?
- A.
Bone & joint disorders
- B.
Ear, nose, and throat disorders
- C.
Eye problems & diseases
- D.
Skin problems & diseases
Correct Answer
B. Ear, nose, and throat disordersExplanation
The phlebotomist was asked to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngology department. Otorhinolaryngology is a medical specialty that deals with disorders and conditions related to the ear, nose, and throat. Therefore, the correct answer is "Ear, nose, and throat disorders."Rate this question:
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- 13.
All of the following are hematology tests EXCEPT?
- A.
Glycosylated hemoglobin
- B.
Hematocrit
- C.
Platelet count
- D.
Reticulocyte count
Correct Answer
A. Glycosylated hemoglobinExplanation
Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as HbA1c, is a laboratory test used to measure the average blood sugar levels over a period of 2-3 months. It is primarily used in the diagnosis and management of diabetes. Unlike the other options, which are all hematology tests, the glycosylated hemoglobin test is not specifically focused on evaluating blood cell counts or characteristics. Instead, it provides information about long-term blood sugar control.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which department performs blood cultures?
- A.
Hematology
- B.
Microbiology
- C.
Serology
- D.
Urinalysis
Correct Answer
A. HematologyExplanation
Hematology is the department that performs blood cultures. Blood cultures are used to detect and identify the presence of microorganisms, such as bacteria or fungi, in the blood. This is an important diagnostic test for detecting and treating infections. Hematology is the branch of medicine that deals with the study of blood and blood-forming tissues, making it the appropriate department to handle blood culture tests.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which department processes and stains tissue samples for microscopic analysis?
- A.
Chemistry
- B.
Coagulation
- C.
Histology
- D.
Microbiology
Correct Answer
C. HistologyExplanation
Histology is the correct answer because it is the department responsible for processing and staining tissue samples for microscopic analysis. Histology involves the preparation of tissue samples, including fixation, embedding, sectioning, and staining, in order to examine them under a microscope and study their cellular structure and composition. Chemistry, coagulation, and microbiology are not directly involved in processing and staining tissue samples for microscopic analysis.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which department performs C&S tests?
- A.
Blood bank
- B.
Chemistry
- C.
Immunology
- D.
Microbiology
Correct Answer
D. MicrobiologyExplanation
Microbiology department performs C&S (Culture and Sensitivity) tests. These tests are conducted to identify the presence of microorganisms in a sample and determine their susceptibility to various antibiotics. Microbiology departments are equipped with the necessary equipment and expertise to culture and analyze different types of microorganisms, making them responsible for conducting C&S tests.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department?
- A.
Blood bank
- B.
Chemistry
- C.
Coagulation
- D.
Hematology
Correct Answer
A. Blood bankExplanation
The correct answer is Blood bank. Blood typing and compatibility testing are typically performed in a blood bank department. This department is responsible for collecting, storing, and distributing blood and blood products for transfusions. Blood banks also perform various tests to ensure the compatibility of blood products with recipients, including blood typing to determine the blood group and crossmatching to check for any potential reactions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Reference laboratories are viable because they offer all of the following EXCEPT?
- A.
A fast turnaround time
- B.
More accurate results
- C.
Reduced test costs
- D.
Specialized analysis
Correct Answer
B. More accurate resultsExplanation
Reference laboratories are known for offering fast turnaround time, reduced test costs, and specialized analysis. However, the given statement says "EXCEPT", which means that the correct answer is the option that is not offered by reference laboratories. Therefore, the correct answer is "More accurate results", as reference laboratories are known for providing highly accurate and reliable test results.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary damages are
- A.
Civil action
- B.
Criminal action
- C.
Malpratice
- D.
Vicarious liability
Correct Answer
A. Civil actionExplanation
A civil action refers to a legal proceeding initiated by an individual who has suffered harm or injury and seeks compensation in the form of monetary damages. Unlike criminal actions, which involve the prosecution of an individual for violating laws, civil actions are focused on resolving disputes between private parties. Malpractice and vicarious liability are specific types of civil actions that involve professional negligence and indirect liability, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is civil action, as it encompasses all legal actions where the injured party sues for monetary damages.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances is the definition of?
- A.
Due care
- B.
Quality care
- C.
Quality essentials
- D.
Standard of care
Correct Answer
A. Due careExplanation
Due care refers to the level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances. It implies that individuals should act responsibly and reasonably, taking into account the specific situation at hand. This concept is often used in legal contexts to determine whether someone has fulfilled their duty of care towards others. Therefore, "due care" is the correct answer as it accurately defines the level of care expected from individuals in a given situation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to?
- A.
Complexity of testing
- B.
Personnel qualifacations
- C.
Quality control standards
- D.
Size of the laboratory
Correct Answer
A. Complexity of testingExplanation
CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to the complexity of testing. This means that laboratories are classified based on the level of difficulty and intricacy involved in the testing procedures they perform. This categorization helps ensure that laboratories with higher complexity testing have the appropriate qualifications and resources to accurately and safely conduct these tests. It also helps in setting standards and guidelines specific to the complexity level, ensuring quality and reliability in the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 22.
All of the following are steps in the risk management process EXCEPT?
- A.
Breach of confidentiality
- B.
Education of employees
- C.
Identification of risk
- D.
Treatment of risk
Correct Answer
A. Breach of confidentialityExplanation
The question asks for the step that is NOT part of the risk management process. The other options, education of employees, identification of risk, and treatment of risk, are all steps that are commonly included in the risk management process. However, breach of confidentiality is not a step in the risk management process. Breach of confidentiality refers to the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information, which is a potential risk that organizations need to manage, but it is not a step in the risk management process itself.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All of the following are examples of negligence EXCEPT when the phlebotomist?
- A.
Does not return a bedrail to the upright position
- B.
Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition
- C.
Forgets to put a needle in the sharps container
- D.
Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient
Correct Answer
A. Does not return a bedrail to the upright positionExplanation
Negligence refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care or caution in a given situation. In this case, all of the options provided can be considered examples of negligence except for "Does not return a bedrail to the upright position." While not returning a bedrail to the upright position may be a safety concern, it does not directly involve patient care or the phlebotomist's professional responsibilities. The other options, such as failing to report changes in a patient's condition, forgetting to dispose of a needle properly, or being unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient, all involve negligence in the context of patient care and safety.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What laboratory department describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection?
- A.
OSHA safety manual
- B.
Policy guidelines
- C.
Procedure manual
- D.
Quality control manual
Correct Answer
C. Procedure manualExplanation
A procedure manual is a document that provides detailed instructions on how to perform specific tasks or procedures. In the context of a laboratory, the procedure manual would outline the specific steps to follow for specimen collection. It would provide guidance on things like proper sample handling, labeling, and transportation. The OSHA safety manual may provide general safety guidelines, but it would not necessarily include detailed instructions for specimen collection. Policy guidelines and quality control manuals may also provide some information, but they are not specifically focused on the step-by-step process of specimen collection like a procedure manual would be.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the infectious
- A.
Agent
- B.
Host
- C.
Vector
- D.
Vehicle
Correct Answer
A. AgentExplanation
The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is referred to as the infectious agent. The term "agent" is commonly used in the medical field to describe the microorganism or biological agent that can cause disease in a host. This can include bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, and other microorganisms. The infectious agent is the primary factor that leads to the development of an infection, as it invades the host's body and disrupts normal physiological functions.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Isolation procedures are used to separate patients from contact with others if they
- A.
Are a carrier of a bloodborne pathogen
- B.
Have highly transmissible infections
- C.
Require blood or body fluid precautions
- D.
Were exposed to a contagious disease
Correct Answer
B. Have highly transmissible infectionsExplanation
Isolation procedures are implemented to separate patients from others if they have highly transmissible infections. This is because highly transmissible infections can easily spread from person to person, and isolating the patient helps to prevent the spread of the infection to others. By separating the patient, the risk of transmission is minimized, protecting both the patient and those around them.Rate this question:
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- 27.
All of the following can leave a patient more susceptible to infection EXCEPT?
- A.
Antibiotic treatment
- B.
Chemotherapy drugs
- C.
Previous vaccination
- D.
Surgical procedures
Correct Answer
C. Previous vaccinationExplanation
Previous vaccination is the only option that does not leave a patient more susceptible to infection. Antibiotic treatment, chemotherapy drugs, and surgical procedures can all weaken the immune system and increase the risk of infection. However, previous vaccination helps to strengthen the immune system by providing immunity against specific pathogens, making the patient less susceptible to infection.Rate this question:
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- 28.
This type of precaution is required for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Reverse
Correct Answer
A. AirborneExplanation
Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Mycoplasma pneumoniae. It is highly contagious and can spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Therefore, airborne precautions are required for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia to prevent the transmission of the bacteria through respiratory droplets in the air. These precautions may include wearing a mask, using a negative pressure room, and ensuring proper ventilation in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
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- 29.
When the chain of infection is broken, an
- A.
Individual is immune to that microbe
- B.
Individual is susceptible to infection
- C.
Infection is prevented from happening
- D.
Infection will most likely be the result
Correct Answer
C. Infection is prevented from happeningExplanation
When the chain of infection is broken, an infection is prevented from happening. Breaking any link in the chain of infection (which includes the infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, means of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host) interrupts the transmission of the microbe, thereby preventing the infection from spreading.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has pulmonary tuberculosis
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Reverse
Correct Answer
A. AirborneExplanation
Patients with pulmonary tuberculosis are highly contagious and can spread the infection through the air. Therefore, airborne precautions would be used for this patient. These precautions include placing the patient in a negative pressure room, wearing a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask, and ensuring proper ventilation in the room. This helps to prevent the transmission of the tuberculosis bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.Rate this question:
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- 31.
An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is?
- A.
Pertussis
- B.
Rubeola
- C.
Scabies
- D.
None of them
Correct Answer
A. PertussisExplanation
Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is an example of a disease requiring droplet isolation. Droplet isolation is a precautionary measure used to prevent the spread of diseases that are transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as coughing or sneezing. Pertussis is highly contagious and can spread easily through respiratory droplets, making droplet isolation necessary to protect others from infection. Rubeola, also known as measles, can be transmitted through respiratory droplets as well, but scabies is transmitted through skin-to-skin contact. Therefore, the correct answer is Pertussis.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material are called
- A.
Fomites
- B.
Hosts
- C.
Pathogens
- D.
Vector
Correct Answer
A. FomitesExplanation
Fomites are objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material. They can include items such as doorknobs, clothing, or utensils that can become contaminated with pathogens. Fomites play a crucial role in the spread of infectious diseases as they can act as a medium for pathogens to be transferred from one person to another. Therefore, the correct answer is Fomites.Rate this question:
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Apr 09, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jan 13, 2012Quiz Created by
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