Nursing Pharmacology Questions And Answers
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Hey, are you looking for nursing pharmacology questions and answers to help you pass your nursing exam? Take this pharmacology quiz created for nurses to make their practice level better. In the quiz below, we have covered almost all relevant and needed questions essential for any government nursing exam. So, look nowhere else. Just give this quiz a try and try to learn as much as possible. We hope you get full marks on this test and in your upcoming exam too.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinbastine and dacarbazine are treatments for
- A.
Breast cancer
- B.
Testicular cancer
- C.
Ovarian cancer
- D.
Hodgkin's disease
Correct Answer
D. Hodgkin's diseaseExplanation
Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine are commonly used in the treatment of Hodgkin's disease. Hodgkin's disease, also known as Hodgkin's lymphoma, is a type of cancer that originates in the lymphatic system. These medications are often used in combination as part of a chemotherapy regimen to target and kill cancer cells. They work by interfering with the growth and division of cancer cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. While these medications may be used in the treatment of other types of cancer, they are specifically mentioned in the context of Hodgkin's disease.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Cisplatin is a treatment for
- A.
Breast cancer
- B.
Ovarian cancer
- C.
Testicular cancer
- D.
Hodgkin's disease
Correct Answer(s)
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Testicular cancerExplanation
Cisplatin is a chemotherapy medication that is commonly used to treat ovarian cancer and testicular cancer. It is a platinum-based drug that works by damaging the DNA of cancer cells, preventing them from dividing and growing. Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects the ovaries, while testicular cancer is a type of cancer that affects the testicles. Both of these cancers are sensitive to cisplatin treatment, making it an effective option for patients with these types of cancer.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which are treatments for ovarian cancer?
- A.
Carboplatin, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, paclitaxel and docetaxel
- B.
Tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, trastuzumab and fluorouracil
- C.
Vincristine, prednisone, methotrexate, mercaptopurine and nefarabine
- D.
Carmustine, lomustine, procarbazine and etoposide
Correct Answer
A. Carboplatin, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, paclitaxel and docetaxelExplanation
Carboplatin, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, paclitaxel, and docetaxel are all chemotherapy drugs commonly used in the treatment of ovarian cancer. These drugs work by targeting and killing cancer cells, helping to shrink tumors and prevent the spread of the disease. They are often used in combination with surgery and other treatments to improve outcomes for patients with ovarian cancer.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which is the only drug with effects on secondary progressive MS that reduces relapse?
- A.
Baclofen (Lioresal)
- B.
Prednisone
- C.
Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
- D.
Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)
Correct Answer
D. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)Explanation
Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) is the correct answer because it is the only drug listed that has been shown to reduce relapse in secondary progressive MS. Baclofen, prednisone, and tizanidine are all medications used to manage symptoms of MS, but they do not have a direct effect on reducing relapse.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which is the first drug approved to treat moderate alzheimer's disease?
- A.
Donepezil (Aricept)
- B.
Memantine (Namenda)
- C.
Galantamine (Razadyne)
- D.
Rivastigmine (Exelon)
Correct Answer
B. Memantine (Namenda)Explanation
Memantine (Namenda) is the first drug approved to treat moderate Alzheimer's disease. This drug works by regulating the activity of glutamate, a neurotransmitter involved in learning and memory. It helps to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of symptoms in patients with moderate Alzheimer's disease. Donepezil, Galantamine, and Rivastigmine are also approved for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease, but they are primarily used for mild to moderate cases rather than specifically targeting moderate Alzheimer's disease.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Drugs for alzheimer's disease are mostly
- A.
Dopamine receptor agonists
- B.
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
- C.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- D.
Cholinergic receptor antagonists
Correct Answer
B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitorsExplanation
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are the correct drugs for Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is characterized by a deficiency in acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine, thus increasing its levels in the brain. This helps to improve memory and cognitive function in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Dopamine receptor agonists, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, and cholinergic receptor antagonists are not commonly used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Drugs for parkinson's disease
- A.
Increase serotonin
- B.
Increase norepinephrine
- C.
Increase dopamine
- D.
Increase epinephrine
Correct Answer
C. Increase dopamineExplanation
Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing cells in the brain. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating movement and coordination. Therefore, increasing dopamine levels in the brain can help alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, stiffness, and impaired balance. Increasing serotonin, norepinephrine, or epinephrine would not directly address the underlying dopamine deficiency in Parkinson's disease.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The most effective drug used to treat ALS is
Correct Answer
Riluzole
RilutekExplanation
Riluzole, also known as Rilutek, is the most effective drug used to treat ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis). It is an FDA-approved medication that works by reducing the release of glutamate, a neurotransmitter that is believed to contribute to the progression of ALS. By doing so, Riluzole helps to slow down the degeneration of motor neurons and prolongs the survival of individuals with ALS. It is commonly prescribed as a standard treatment for ALS and has been shown to modestly extend the lifespan of patients.Rate this question:
- 9.
The two drugs used to treat Huntington's disease are
- A.
Diazepam (Valium)
- B.
Benztropine (Cogentin)
- C.
Entacapone (Comtan)
- D.
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Diazepam (Valium)
D. Haloperidol (Haldol)Explanation
Diazepam (Valium) and Haloperidol (Haldol) are the two drugs used to treat Huntington's disease. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts as a muscle relaxant and helps to reduce anxiety and muscle spasms. It can also be used to treat chorea, a common symptom of Huntington's disease. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that helps to manage the psychiatric symptoms associated with Huntington's disease, such as hallucinations, delusions, and aggression. These drugs work by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve symptoms and overall quality of life for individuals with Huntington's disease.Rate this question:
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- 10.
People with Parkinson's disease experience an increase/decrease in D1 receptors.
Correct Answer(s)
Decrease, decreaseExplanation
People with Parkinson's disease experience a decrease in D1 receptors. D1 receptors play a crucial role in the regulation of movement and motor control. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the brain, leading to a decrease in dopamine levels. Since D1 receptors are primarily activated by dopamine, the decrease in dopamine levels results in a decrease in D1 receptors. This reduction in D1 receptors contributes to the motor symptoms observed in Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slowness of movement).Rate this question:
- 11.
Which of the following are definitive for AD?
- A.
Chorea
- B.
Amyloid deposits
- C.
Neurofibrillary tangles
- D.
Axonopathy
Correct Answer(s)
B. Amyloid deposits
C. Neurofibrillary tanglesExplanation
Amyloid deposits and neurofibrillary tangles are definitive for AD. Amyloid deposits refer to the accumulation of abnormal proteins called beta-amyloid plaques in the brain, which are a hallmark of AD. Neurofibrillary tangles, on the other hand, are twisted fibers of tau protein that form inside brain cells, disrupting their normal functioning. Both amyloid deposits and neurofibrillary tangles are key pathological features of AD and play a significant role in the progression of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 12.
An increase in D2 receptors will stimulate/inhibit GABA.
Correct Answer(s)
Inhibit, inhibitExplanation
An increase in D2 receptors will inhibit GABA. This is because D2 receptors are inhibitory receptors, meaning that when they are activated, they decrease the activity of the neurotransmitter GABA. Therefore, an increase in D2 receptors would result in a greater inhibitory effect on GABA, leading to a decrease in its activity.Rate this question:
- 13.
Cisplatin is a(n)
- A.
Alkylating drug
- B.
Microbial product
- C.
DNA synthesis inhibitor
- D.
Mitotic inhibitor
Correct Answer
A. Alkylating drugExplanation
Cisplatin is classified as an alkylating drug because it works by forming covalent bonds with DNA, which leads to the cross-linking of DNA strands and ultimately inhibits DNA replication and transcription. It is commonly used in chemotherapy to treat various types of cancer, including testicular, ovarian, and bladder cancer. Cisplatin's ability to alkylate DNA makes it an effective anticancer agent by disrupting the cell's ability to divide and proliferate.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following are mitotic inhibitors?
- A.
Paclitaxel (Taxol)
- B.
Vincristine (Oncovin)
- C.
Vinblastine
- D.
Methotrexate
Correct Answer(s)
A. Paclitaxel (Taxol)
B. Vincristine (Oncovin)
C. VinblastineExplanation
Paclitaxel (Taxol), Vincristine (Oncovin), and Vinblastine are all mitotic inhibitors. Mitotic inhibitors are drugs that interfere with the process of cell division, specifically by disrupting the formation of the mitotic spindle, which is necessary for the separation of chromosomes during mitosis. These drugs are commonly used in cancer treatment to prevent the growth and division of cancer cells. Methotrexate, on the other hand, is not a mitotic inhibitor but rather an antimetabolite that interferes with DNA synthesis.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Decreased Ras/Raf GTPases will cause
- A.
Increased activity of Jun kinase
- B.
Increased activity of BCR-ABL kinase
- C.
Activation of BAD
- D.
Activation of STAT5
Correct Answer
C. Activation of BADExplanation
Decreased Ras/Raf GTPases will cause the activation of BAD. Ras/Raf GTPases are proteins involved in cell signaling pathways that regulate cell growth and survival. When Ras/Raf GTPases are decreased, it leads to a decrease in the activation of downstream signaling pathways, such as the PI3K/Akt pathway. This results in the inhibition of the phosphorylation and inactivation of BAD, a pro-apoptotic protein. Consequently, the inhibition of BAD leads to its activation, promoting cell survival and preventing apoptosis.Rate this question:
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- 16.
NF-kB acts to inhibit/stimulate apoptosis.
Correct Answer
Inhibit, inhibitExplanation
NF-kB acts to inhibit apoptosis. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process that eliminates damaged or unnecessary cells. NF-kB is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of genes involved in immune responses, inflammation, and cell survival. By inhibiting apoptosis, NF-kB promotes cell survival and prevents the death of cells that may be needed for immune responses or tissue repair. Therefore, the correct answer is "inhibit, inhibit."Rate this question:
- 17.
In taxol neuropathy, one would expect
- A.
Accumulation of cytoskeleton
- B.
Disorganized mitrotubules and neurofilaments
- C.
Decrease in mitochondria
- D.
Accumulation of vesicles
Correct Answer
D. Accumulation of vesiclesExplanation
In taxol neuropathy, taxol, a chemotherapy drug, disrupts the normal functioning of microtubules, which are essential for the transport of vesicles within cells. As a result, there is an accumulation of vesicles, as they are unable to be transported properly. This accumulation can lead to impaired cellular function and contribute to the development of neuropathy symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Temsirolimus acts in which phase of the cell cycle?
- A.
G1
- B.
G0
- C.
S
- D.
G2
Correct Answer
A. G1Explanation
Temsirolimus acts in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. During this phase, the cell prepares for DNA replication and protein synthesis. Temsirolimus is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the activity of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), a protein kinase involved in cell growth and division. By inhibiting mTOR, temsirolimus prevents the progression of cells from the G1 phase to the S phase, thereby inhibiting cell proliferation.Rate this question:
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- 19.
DNA synthesis inhibitors act in which phase of the cell cycle?
- A.
G1
- B.
G0
- C.
S
- D.
G2
Correct Answer
C. SExplanation
DNA synthesis inhibitors act in the S phase of the cell cycle. This is the phase where DNA replication occurs, and the inhibitors specifically target the enzymes and proteins involved in DNA synthesis. By inhibiting DNA synthesis, these drugs prevent the replication of DNA and ultimately halt cell division.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Bleomysocin, etoposide and teniposide act on which phase of the cell cycle?
- A.
G2
- B.
G1
- C.
M
- D.
S
Correct Answer
A. G2Explanation
Bleomysocin, etoposide, and teniposide are drugs that act on the G2 phase of the cell cycle. The G2 phase is the third phase of the cell cycle, following the S phase where DNA is replicated. During the G2 phase, the cell prepares for division by synthesizing proteins and undergoing further growth. These drugs specifically target cells in the G2 phase, interfering with their ability to divide and replicate, making them useful in cancer treatment where uncontrolled cell division is a problem.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Mitotic inhibitors act on which phase of the cell cycle?
- A.
G2
- B.
G0
- C.
M
- D.
S
Correct Answer
C. MExplanation
Mitotic inhibitors act on the M phase of the cell cycle. The M phase, also known as mitosis, is the phase in which cell division occurs. Mitotic inhibitors work by interfering with the process of cell division, preventing the formation of new cells. This can be achieved by targeting various components involved in mitosis, such as the spindle fibers or the enzymes responsible for DNA replication. By disrupting the M phase, mitotic inhibitors can inhibit the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, which often have a high rate of cell division.Rate this question:
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- 22.
P-glycoprotein mechanism is
- A.
Active
- B.
Secondary active
- C.
Passive
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. ActiveExplanation
The P-glycoprotein mechanism is active. This means that it requires energy to transport substances across cell membranes. Active transport involves the use of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) to move molecules against their concentration gradient, from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. P-glycoprotein is a transporter protein found in cell membranes that plays a crucial role in drug absorption and efflux, as well as in protecting cells from toxic substances. Its active mechanism allows it to pump drugs and other molecules out of cells, reducing their effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Methotrexate inhibits the ____________ cycle.
Correct Answer
folate, FolateExplanation
Methotrexate inhibits the folate cycle. Folate is a B-vitamin that is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. Methotrexate is a medication that works by blocking the action of an enzyme involved in the folate cycle, which ultimately disrupts the production of DNA and inhibits cell division. This mechanism of action is particularly useful in treating certain types of cancer and autoimmune diseases.Rate this question:
- 24.
Parkinson's disease starts with a loss of neurons in the
- A.
Substantia nigra
- B.
Cerebral cortex
- C.
Thalamus
- D.
Globus pallidus
Correct Answer
A. Substantia nigraExplanation
Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the movement of an individual. The substantia nigra is a region in the brain that plays a crucial role in controlling movement and producing dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in motor function. In Parkinson's disease, there is a progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to a decrease in dopamine production. This dopamine deficiency results in the characteristic symptoms of Parkinson's, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Therefore, the substantia nigra is the correct answer as it is the initial site of neuronal loss in Parkinson's disease.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A patient experiences acute renal failure with severe nausea and vomiting. This patient is most likely being treated with
- A.
Prednisone
- B.
Bleomycin
- C.
Paclitaxel
- D.
Cisplatin
Correct Answer
D. CisplatinExplanation
Cisplatin is a chemotherapy drug commonly used to treat various types of cancer, including testicular, ovarian, bladder, and lung cancer. However, one of the side effects of cisplatin is kidney damage, which can lead to acute renal failure. The severe nausea and vomiting experienced by the patient are also common side effects of cisplatin. Therefore, it is likely that the patient is being treated with cisplatin and experiencing these adverse effects.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Aug 25, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 13, 2010Quiz Created by
Lisamoore13
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