Nursing Pharmacology Questions And Answers

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  • 1/25 Questions

    P-glycoprotein mechanism is

    • Active
    • Secondary active
    • Passive
    • None of the above
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About This Quiz

Hey, are you looking for nursing pharmacology questions and answers to help you pass your nursing exam? Take this pharmacology quiz created for nurses to make their practice level better. In the quiz below, we have covered almost all relevant and needed questions essential for any government nursing exam. So, look nowhere else. Just give this quiz a try and try to learn as much as possible. We hope you get full marks on this test and in your upcoming exam too.

Nursing Pharmacology Questions And Answers - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Drugs for parkinson's disease

    • Increase serotonin

    • Increase norepinephrine

    • Increase dopamine

    • Increase epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase dopamine
    Explanation
    Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing cells in the brain. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating movement and coordination. Therefore, increasing dopamine levels in the brain can help alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, stiffness, and impaired balance. Increasing serotonin, norepinephrine, or epinephrine would not directly address the underlying dopamine deficiency in Parkinson's disease.

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  • 3. 

    A 68-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances most increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?

    • Hypernatremia

    • Hypokalemia

    • Hypermagnesemia

    • Hypocalcemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypokalemia
    Explanation
    Hypokalemia significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because low potassium levels enhance digoxin's effects on the myocardium, leading to potential arrhythmias or other severe cardiac complications. This is due to digoxin's mechanism of action, which involves inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when administering digoxin, especially in elderly patients or those with compromised renal function.

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  • 4. 

    Mitotic inhibitors act on which phase of the cell cycle?

    • G2

    • G0

    • M

    • S

    Correct Answer
    A. M
    Explanation
    Mitotic inhibitors act on the M phase of the cell cycle. The M phase, also known as mitosis, is the phase in which cell division occurs. Mitotic inhibitors work by interfering with the process of cell division, preventing the formation of new cells. This can be achieved by targeting various components involved in mitosis, such as the spindle fibers or the enzymes responsible for DNA replication. By disrupting the M phase, mitotic inhibitors can inhibit the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, which often have a high rate of cell division.

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  • 5. 

    Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinbastine and dacarbazine are treatments for

    • Breast cancer

    • Testicular cancer

    • Ovarian cancer

    • Hodgkin's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Hodgkin's disease
    Explanation
    Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine are commonly used in the treatment of Hodgkin's disease. Hodgkin's disease, also known as Hodgkin's lymphoma, is a type of cancer that originates in the lymphatic system. These medications are often used in combination as part of a chemotherapy regimen to target and kill cancer cells. They work by interfering with the growth and division of cancer cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. While these medications may be used in the treatment of other types of cancer, they are specifically mentioned in the context of Hodgkin's disease.

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  • 6. 

    An increase in D2 receptors will stimulate/inhibit GABA.

    Correct Answer
    Inhibit, inhibit
    Explanation
    An increase in D2 receptors will inhibit GABA. This is because D2 receptors are inhibitory receptors, meaning that when they are activated, they decrease the activity of the neurotransmitter GABA. Therefore, an increase in D2 receptors would result in a greater inhibitory effect on GABA, leading to a decrease in its activity.

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  • 7. 

    Parkinson's disease starts with a loss of neurons in the

    • Substantia nigra

    • Cerebral cortex

    • Thalamus

    • Globus pallidus

    Correct Answer
    A. Substantia nigra
    Explanation
    Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the movement of an individual. The substantia nigra is a region in the brain that plays a crucial role in controlling movement and producing dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in motor function. In Parkinson's disease, there is a progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to a decrease in dopamine production. This dopamine deficiency results in the characteristic symptoms of Parkinson's, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Therefore, the substantia nigra is the correct answer as it is the initial site of neuronal loss in Parkinson's disease.

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  • 8. 

    Which is the only drug with effects on secondary progressive MS that reduces relapse?

    • Baclofen (Lioresal)

    • Prednisone

    • Tizanidine (Zanaflex)

    • Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)

    Correct Answer
    A. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)
    Explanation
    Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) is the correct answer because it is the only drug listed that has been shown to reduce relapse in secondary progressive MS. Baclofen, prednisone, and tizanidine are all medications used to manage symptoms of MS, but they do not have a direct effect on reducing relapse.

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  • 9. 

    People with Parkinson's disease experience an increase/decrease in D1 receptors.

    Correct Answer
    Decrease, decrease
    Explanation
    People with Parkinson's disease experience a decrease in D1 receptors. D1 receptors play a crucial role in the regulation of movement and motor control. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the brain, leading to a decrease in dopamine levels. Since D1 receptors are primarily activated by dopamine, the decrease in dopamine levels results in a decrease in D1 receptors. This reduction in D1 receptors contributes to the motor symptoms observed in Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slowness of movement).

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  • 10. 

    NF-kB acts to inhibit/stimulate apoptosis.

    Correct Answer
    Inhibit, inhibit
    Explanation
    NF-kB acts to inhibit apoptosis. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process that eliminates damaged or unnecessary cells. NF-kB is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of genes involved in immune responses, inflammation, and cell survival. By inhibiting apoptosis, NF-kB promotes cell survival and prevents the death of cells that may be needed for immune responses or tissue repair. Therefore, the correct answer is "inhibit, inhibit."

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  • 11. 

    Drugs for alzheimer's disease are mostly

    • Dopamine receptor agonists

    • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

    • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

    • Cholinergic receptor antagonists

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are the correct drugs for Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is characterized by a deficiency in acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine, thus increasing its levels in the brain. This helps to improve memory and cognitive function in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Dopamine receptor agonists, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, and cholinergic receptor antagonists are not commonly used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 12. 

    Cisplatin is a(n)

    • Alkylating drug

    • Microbial product

    • DNA synthesis inhibitor

    • Mitotic inhibitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Alkylating drug
    Explanation
    Cisplatin is classified as an alkylating drug because it works by forming covalent bonds with DNA, which leads to the cross-linking of DNA strands and ultimately inhibits DNA replication and transcription. It is commonly used in chemotherapy to treat various types of cancer, including testicular, ovarian, and bladder cancer. Cisplatin's ability to alkylate DNA makes it an effective anticancer agent by disrupting the cell's ability to divide and proliferate.

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  • 13. 

    DNA synthesis inhibitors act in which phase of the cell cycle?

    • G1

    • G0

    • S

    • G2

    Correct Answer
    A. S
    Explanation
    DNA synthesis inhibitors act in the S phase of the cell cycle. This is the phase where DNA replication occurs, and the inhibitors specifically target the enzymes and proteins involved in DNA synthesis. By inhibiting DNA synthesis, these drugs prevent the replication of DNA and ultimately halt cell division.

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  • 14. 

    Temsirolimus acts in which phase of the cell cycle?

    • G1

    • G0

    • S

    • G2

    Correct Answer
    A. G1
    Explanation
    Temsirolimus acts in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. During this phase, the cell prepares for DNA replication and protein synthesis. Temsirolimus is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the activity of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), a protein kinase involved in cell growth and division. By inhibiting mTOR, temsirolimus prevents the progression of cells from the G1 phase to the S phase, thereby inhibiting cell proliferation.

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  • 15. 

    Bleomysocin, etoposide and teniposide act on which phase of the cell cycle?

    • G2

    • G1

    • M

    • S

    Correct Answer
    A. G2
    Explanation
    Bleomysocin, etoposide, and teniposide are drugs that act on the G2 phase of the cell cycle. The G2 phase is the third phase of the cell cycle, following the S phase where DNA is replicated. During the G2 phase, the cell prepares for division by synthesizing proteins and undergoing further growth. These drugs specifically target cells in the G2 phase, interfering with their ability to divide and replicate, making them useful in cancer treatment where uncontrolled cell division is a problem.

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  • 16. 

    A patient experiences acute renal failure with severe nausea and vomiting. This patient is most likely being treated with

    • Prednisone

    • Bleomycin

    • Paclitaxel

    • Cisplatin

    Correct Answer
    A. Cisplatin
    Explanation
    Cisplatin is a chemotherapy drug commonly used to treat various types of cancer, including testicular, ovarian, bladder, and lung cancer. However, one of the side effects of cisplatin is kidney damage, which can lead to acute renal failure. The severe nausea and vomiting experienced by the patient are also common side effects of cisplatin. Therefore, it is likely that the patient is being treated with cisplatin and experiencing these adverse effects.

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  • 17. 

    Which is the first drug approved to treat moderate alzheimer's disease?

    • Donepezil (Aricept)

    • Memantine (Namenda)

    • Galantamine (Razadyne)

    • Rivastigmine (Exelon)

    Correct Answer
    A. Memantine (Namenda)
    Explanation
    Memantine (Namenda) is the first drug approved to treat moderate Alzheimer's disease. This drug works by regulating the activity of glutamate, a neurotransmitter involved in learning and memory. It helps to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of symptoms in patients with moderate Alzheimer's disease. Donepezil, Galantamine, and Rivastigmine are also approved for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease, but they are primarily used for mild to moderate cases rather than specifically targeting moderate Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 18. 

    Decreased Ras/Raf GTPases will cause

    • Increased activity of Jun kinase

    • Increased activity of BCR-ABL kinase

    • Activation of BAD

    • Activation of STAT5

    Correct Answer
    A. Activation of BAD
    Explanation
    Decreased Ras/Raf GTPases will cause the activation of BAD. Ras/Raf GTPases are proteins involved in cell signaling pathways that regulate cell growth and survival. When Ras/Raf GTPases are decreased, it leads to a decrease in the activation of downstream signaling pathways, such as the PI3K/Akt pathway. This results in the inhibition of the phosphorylation and inactivation of BAD, a pro-apoptotic protein. Consequently, the inhibition of BAD leads to its activation, promoting cell survival and preventing apoptosis.

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  • 19. 

    In nursing pharmacology, ________- life refers to the time it takes for the concentration of a drug in the bloodstream to reduce by half.

    Correct Answer
    Half, half
    Explanation
    The half-life of a drug is the period it takes for the concentration of the drug in the blood to decrease by 50%. This concept is crucial in determining the dosing intervals and understanding how long a drug will remain active in the body. Knowing the half-life helps nurses and healthcare professionals manage drug administration effectively, ensuring proper therapeutic levels while avoiding toxicity.

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  • 20. 

    Methotrexate inhibits the ____________ cycle.

    Correct Answer
    folate, Folate
    Explanation
    Methotrexate inhibits the folate cycle. Folate is a B-vitamin that is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. Methotrexate is a medication that works by blocking the action of an enzyme involved in the folate cycle, which ultimately disrupts the production of DNA and inhibits cell division. This mechanism of action is particularly useful in treating certain types of cancer and autoimmune diseases.

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  • 21. 

    The two drugs used to treat Huntington's disease are

    • Diazepam (Valium)

    • Benztropine (Cogentin)

    • Entacapone (Comtan)

    • Haloperidol (Haldol)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Diazepam (Valium)
    A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    Explanation
    Diazepam (Valium) and Haloperidol (Haldol) are the two drugs used to treat Huntington's disease. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts as a muscle relaxant and helps to reduce anxiety and muscle spasms. It can also be used to treat chorea, a common symptom of Huntington's disease. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that helps to manage the psychiatric symptoms associated with Huntington's disease, such as hallucinations, delusions, and aggression. These drugs work by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve symptoms and overall quality of life for individuals with Huntington's disease.

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  • 22. 

    In taxol neuropathy, one would expect

    • Accumulation of cytoskeleton

    • Disorganized mitrotubules and neurofilaments

    • Decrease in mitochondria

    • Accumulation of vesicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Accumulation of vesicles
    Explanation
    In taxol neuropathy, taxol, a chemotherapy drug, disrupts the normal functioning of microtubules, which are essential for the transport of vesicles within cells. As a result, there is an accumulation of vesicles, as they are unable to be transported properly. This accumulation can lead to impaired cellular function and contribute to the development of neuropathy symptoms.

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  • 23. 

    Cisplatin is a treatment for

    • Breast cancer

    • Ovarian cancer

    • Testicular cancer

    • Hodgkin's disease

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ovarian cancer
    A. Testicular cancer
    Explanation
    Cisplatin is a chemotherapy medication that is commonly used to treat ovarian cancer and testicular cancer. It is a platinum-based drug that works by damaging the DNA of cancer cells, preventing them from dividing and growing. Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects the ovaries, while testicular cancer is a type of cancer that affects the testicles. Both of these cancers are sensitive to cisplatin treatment, making it an effective option for patients with these types of cancer.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are definitive for AD?

    • Chorea

    • Amyloid deposits

    • Neurofibrillary tangles

    • Axonopathy

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Amyloid deposits
    A. Neurofibrillary tangles
    Explanation
    Amyloid deposits and neurofibrillary tangles are definitive for AD. Amyloid deposits refer to the accumulation of abnormal proteins called beta-amyloid plaques in the brain, which are a hallmark of AD. Neurofibrillary tangles, on the other hand, are twisted fibers of tau protein that form inside brain cells, disrupting their normal functioning. Both amyloid deposits and neurofibrillary tangles are key pathological features of AD and play a significant role in the progression of the disease.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are mitotic inhibitors?

    • Paclitaxel (Taxol)

    • Vincristine (Oncovin)

    • Vinblastine

    • Methotrexate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Paclitaxel (Taxol)
    A. Vincristine (Oncovin)
    A. Vinblastine
    Explanation
    Paclitaxel (Taxol), Vincristine (Oncovin), and Vinblastine are all mitotic inhibitors. Mitotic inhibitors are drugs that interfere with the process of cell division, specifically by disrupting the formation of the mitotic spindle, which is necessary for the separation of chromosomes during mitosis. These drugs are commonly used in cancer treatment to prevent the growth and division of cancer cells. Methotrexate, on the other hand, is not a mitotic inhibitor but rather an antimetabolite that interferes with DNA synthesis.

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  • Sep 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 13, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Lisamoore13
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