Pg Blazer - Online Test Series - Weekly Test 2
PG entrance mock test with All India Ranking! For more practice tests, go to PG Blazer Online Test Series
- 1.
Posterior communicating artery a branch of
- A.
Internal carotid
- B.
External carotid
- C.
Middle cerebral
- D.
Posterior superior cerebellar
Correct Answer
A. Internal carotidExplanation
Posterior communicating arises from the internal carotid artery before it bifurcates into anterior and middle cerebral artery. It communicates with the posterior cerebral artery and is a part of the circle of Willis.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not a branch of Cavernous segment of Internal Carotid Artery?
- A.
Cavernous Branch
- B.
Inferior Hypophyseal Branch
- C.
Meningeal branch
- D.
Ophthalmic branch
Correct Answer
D. Ophthalmic branchExplanation
Branches of cavernous segment of internal carotid artery:
-Cavernous branches
-Meningeal branches
-Inferior hypophyseal branchRate this question:
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- 3.
Difference between typical cervical & thoracic vertebrae?
- A.
Has a triangular body
- B.
Has a foramen transversarium
- C.
Superior articular facet directed backwards & upwards
- D.
Has a large vertebral body
Correct Answer
B. Has a foramen transversariumExplanation
Foramen transversarium is found only is the cervical vertebrae. In the upper six cervical vertebrae, the foramen transmits the vertebral artery, vertebral vein, and a plexus of sympathetic nerves from inferior cervical ganglion. Foramen transversarium of C7 does not contain the artery, but contains the vein and sympathetic nerves.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Males and females show difference in the age of onset of puberty. The difference in the age of onset of puberty amongst males may be explained by:
- A.
Increased Activin A levels
- B.
Decreased Follistatin levels
- C.
Increased Inhibin levels
- D.
Easily releasable FSH pool
Correct Answer
C. Increased Inhibin levelsExplanation
Inhibin can suppress FSH secretion which in turn delays results in delay in the onset of puberty in boys.Rate this question:
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- 5.
True regarding endothelin-1 are all except
- A.
Bronchodilatation
- B.
Vasoconstriction
- C.
Decreased GFR
- D.
Has inotropic effect
Correct Answer
A. BronchodilatationExplanation
Endothelin I is a bronchoconstrictor.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except
- A.
Blood pressure
- B.
Arterial PCO2
- C.
Potassium ions
- D.
Cerebral metabolic rate
Correct Answer
C. Potassium ionsExplanation
Blood brain barrier is not permeable to ions. Hence they cannot influence cerebral blood flow.Rate this question:
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- 7.
All of the following occur in mitochondria except:
- A.
Citric acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle)
- B.
Glycogenolysis
- C.
Fatty acid oxidation
- D.
Electron transport chain
Correct Answer
B. GlycogenolysisExplanation
Glycogenolysis occurs in the cytoplasm.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except:
- A.
Occurs in the cytosol
- B.
No ATP is produced in the cycle
- C.
It is active in Adipose tissue, Liver and Gonads
- D.
The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the Non oxidative phase generates pyruvate
Correct Answer
D. The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the Non oxidative phase generates pyruvateExplanation
HMP - The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the Non oxidative phase generates ribose precursors for nucleic acid synthesis.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways?
- A.
Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2,3 DPG
- B.
Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
- C.
Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane
- D.
Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH
Correct Answer
C. Hypoxia stimulates release of all Glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membraneExplanation
Hypoxia stimulates RBC glycolysis by promoting release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The following is an antiapoptotic gene
- A.
Bax
- B.
Bad
- C.
Bcl-X
- D.
Bim
Correct Answer
C. Bcl-XExplanation
Bcl-2 is another antiapoptotic gene.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Virdans streptococci
- C.
Enterococcus faecalis
- D.
Coagulase negative staphylococcus
Correct Answer
C. Enterococcus faecalisExplanation
Catalase negative gram positive cocci in chains - indicates that they are staphylococci. Enterococci are commonly seen in hospital acquired infections and they are resistant to cephalosporins and even to vancomycin.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Anagen phase of the hair indicates:
- A.
The phase of activity and growth
- B.
The phase of transition
- C.
The phase of resting
- D.
The phase of degeneration
Correct Answer
A. The phase of activity and growthExplanation
During the anagen phase of the hair growth cycle, the hair follicles are actively producing new cells and the hair is growing. This is the phase of activity and growth, as opposed to the other phases such as the transitional phase (catagen), resting phase (telogen), and degeneration phase. In the anagen phase, the hair shaft is firmly rooted in the follicle and continues to grow longer. This phase can last for several years before transitioning into the catagen phase.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(Imaging based question - As per new MCI norms) What is the abnormality seen in the CT scan?
- A.
Extradural haemorrhage
- B.
Subdural haemorrhage
- C.
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
- D.
Intracerebral hemorrhage
Correct Answer
A. Extradural haemorrhageExplanation
The image shows the classical lentiform (biconvex) shape of extradural haemorrhage. The blood accumulates between the skull bone and the dura. This pushes the dura away from the bone and the hematoma assumes a biconvex shape.
Subdural haemorrhage - crescent shape (convexo concave)
Subarachnoid haemorrhage - bleed in the subarachnoid space - can be visualised in the sulci.
Intracerebral hemorrhage - collection of blood seen within the brain parenchymaRate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is not an antiepileptic agent:
- A.
Phenytoin
- B.
Topiramate
- C.
Flunarizine
- D.
Carbamazepine
Correct Answer
C. FlunarizineExplanation
Flunarizine is a selective calcium entry blocker with calmodulin binding properties and histamine H1 blocking activity.Rate this question:
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- 15.
All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Na+ channel except
- A.
Vigabatrin
- B.
Phenytoin
- C.
Valproate
- D.
Lamotrigne
Correct Answer
A. VigabatrinExplanation
Vigabatrin is an antiepileptic drug that inhibits the catabolism of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) by irreversibly inhibiting GABA transaminase.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Prothrombin Time of a patient is 26. Control PT is 13 seconds and Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient?
- A.
26/3
- B.
(26/13) * 1.41
- C.
(26/13) ^ 1.41
- D.
(26/13) ^ (1/1.41)
Correct Answer
C. (26/13) ^ 1.41Explanation
INR = (Prothrombin time / control ) ^ Sensitivity index.
(^ indicated raised to the power of)Rate this question:
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- 17.
All of the following statements about Heparin are true except?
- A.
Causes Alopecia
- B.
Non Teratogenic
- C.
Releases Lipoprotein Lipase
- D.
Causes Hypokalemia
Correct Answer
D. Causes HypokalemiaExplanation
Heparin causes hyperkalemia.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The following drug is not useful for MRSA?
- A.
Cefaclor
- B.
Cotrimoxazole
- C.
Ciprofloxacin
- D.
Vancomycin
Correct Answer
A. CefaclorExplanation
MRSA is resistant to cefaclor. (and other cephalosporins)Rate this question:
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- 19.
Spalding sign is seen in?
- A.
Drowning
- B.
Maceration
- C.
Mummification
- D.
Starvation
Correct Answer
B. MacerationExplanation
Spalding's sign is the observation of overriding of fetal skull bones in xray. It indicates intrauterine fetal death.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The highest percentage of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in?
- A.
Ground nut oil
- B.
Palm oil
- C.
Margarine
- D.
Soya bean oil
Correct Answer
D. Soya bean oilExplanation
Among the options given, soya bean oil has the highest percentage of poly unsaturated fatty acids.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Chlorine demand is measured by
- A.
Horrock’s apparatus
- B.
Chlorimeter
- C.
Double pot
- D.
Berkfeld filter
Correct Answer
A. Horrock’s apparatusExplanation
Horrock’s apparatus is used to measure cholrine demand.
Double pot is a method of well water chlorination.
Berkefeld filter is a water filter made of diatomaceous earth or Kieselguhr.Rate this question:
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- 22.
All can be incinerated except
- A.
Cytotoxic Waste
- B.
Sharps
- C.
Anatomical waste
- D.
Infectious waste
Correct Answer
B. SharpsExplanation
Sharps should not be incinerated.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in
- A.
Causes of death
- B.
Numerators
- C.
Age distributions
- D.
Denominators
Correct Answer
C. Age distributionsExplanation
If there is not standardisation, the mortality rate calculated will be higher in countries with greater proportion of elderly people.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A patient presents with acute anterior wall infarction and hypotension. Which will be the immediate treatment modality for this patient?
- A.
Intra aortic balloon counter pulsation
- B.
Anticoagulation
- C.
Thrombolytic therapy
- D.
Angiography and Primary angioplasty
Correct Answer
D. Angiography and Primary angioplastyExplanation
Angiography and primary angioplasty is the best modality of treatment in case of ST eleveation MI presenting within 12 hours.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is:
- A.
Adrenaline
- B.
Ephedrine
- C.
Phenylephrine
- D.
Nor epinephrine
Correct Answer
D. Nor epinephrineExplanation
The patient is in septic shock. Dopamine is the recommended drug for maintenance of BP in a case of septic shock. If there is no response, nor epinephrine should be tried. Since nor epinephrine is the only one given among the options, it is the best answer.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A patient presents with decreased vital capacity and total lung volume. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A.
Bronchiectasis
- B.
Sarcoidosis
- C.
Cystic fibrosis
- D.
Asthma
Correct Answer
B. SarcoidosisExplanation
A restrictive lung disease causes decrease in vital capacity and total lung volume. Among the options provided, sarcoidosis is the only one causing a restrictive lung disease.Rate this question:
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- 27.
All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. pylori except:
- A.
Oxytetracycline
- B.
Amoxicillin
- C.
Bismuth Subcitrate
- D.
Omeprazole
Correct Answer
A. OxytetracyclineExplanation
Oxytetracycline is not a recommended drug for treatment of H.pylori.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is :
- A.
Rapid urease test
- B.
Urea breath test
- C.
Endoscopy and biopsy
- D.
Serum anti H.Pylori titre
Correct Answer
B. Urea breath testExplanation
Recommended test for confirmation of H.pylori eradication - urea breath test.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A patient presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. Anti endomysial antibodies and IgA TTG antibodies are positive. What is the treatment of choice?
- A.
Gluten free diet
- B.
Antibiotics
- C.
Loperamide
- D.
5-aminosalicylic acid
Correct Answer
A. Gluten free dietExplanation
The clinical picture and investigation findings are suggestive of coeliac sprue. The treatment is gluten free diet.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The test used to diagnose Dubin Johnson syndrome is:
- A.
Serum transminases
- B.
Bromsulphalein test (BSP)
- C.
Hippurate test
- D.
Gamma glutamyl transferase level
Correct Answer
B. Bromsulphalein test (BSP)Explanation
The correct answer is the Bromsulphalein test (BSP). Dubin Johnson syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects the liver's ability to process bilirubin, resulting in a buildup of bilirubin in the body. The BSP test is a diagnostic test that measures the liver's ability to excrete bilirubin into the bile. In individuals with Dubin Johnson syndrome, the BSP test will show impaired bilirubin excretion, confirming the diagnosis. Serum transaminases and gamma glutamyl transferase levels may be elevated in individuals with liver disease, but they are not specific to Dubin Johnson syndrome. The hippurate test is used to assess liver function but is not specific to Dubin Johnson syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A patient comes with hematemesis and malena. On the upper GI endoscopy there was no significant lesion. 2 days later the patient rebleeds. Next line of investigation is
- A.
Emergency angiography
- B.
Repeat upper Gl endoscopy
- C.
Enteroscopy
- D.
Laprotomy
Correct Answer
D. LaprotomyExplanation
In case of rebleed, laparotomy should be done.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Colonic diverticulosis is best diagnosed by
- A.
Colonoscopy
- B.
Nuclear scan
- C.
Barium enema
- D.
CT scan
Correct Answer
C. Barium enemaExplanation
Diverticula are easily visualised with barium enema.Rate this question:
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- 33.
30 year old female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axilary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was done, further treatment plan will be
- A.
Observation and follow up
- B.
Adriamycin based chemotherapy followed by tamoxifen depending on estrogen/progesterone receptor status
- C.
Adriamycin based chemotherapy only
- D.
Tamoxifen only
Correct Answer
B. Adriamycin based chemotherapy followed by tamoxifen depending on estrogen/progesterone receptor statusExplanation
Based on the information provided, the 30-year-old female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axillary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was performed. The treatment plan will involve Adriamycin-based chemotherapy followed by tamoxifen, depending on the estrogen/progesterone receptor status. This approach is commonly used in the management of breast cancer. Adriamycin-based chemotherapy is a standard treatment for breast cancer, while tamoxifen is a hormonal therapy that is often given to patients with estrogen/progesterone receptor-positive breast cancer. The combination of chemotherapy and hormonal therapy is recommended to improve outcomes and reduce the risk of recurrence.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Lactational amenorrhoea is due to
- A.
Prolactin induced inhibition of GnRH
- B.
Prolactin induced inhibition of FSH
- C.
Oxytocin induced inhibition of GnRH
- D.
Oxytocin induced inhibition of FSH
Correct Answer
A. Prolactin induced inhibition of GnRHExplanation
During lactation, the hormone prolactin is produced in high levels. Prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. GnRH is responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland. FSH is necessary for the development of ovarian follicles and the production of estrogen. Therefore, the inhibition of GnRH by prolactin leads to a decrease in FSH levels, which ultimately prevents ovulation and the resumption of menstrual cycles, resulting in lactational amenorrhea.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following anti tuberculosis drug is not given in pregnancy
- A.
Streptomycin
- B.
INH
- C.
Ethambutol
- D.
Rifampicin
Correct Answer
A. StreptomycinExplanation
Streptomycin can cause congenital deafness. It is contraindicated in pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with
- A.
Macrosomia
- B.
IUGR
- C.
Postmaturity
- D.
Congenital malformation
Correct Answer
A. MacrosomiaExplanation
Late hyperglycemia is associated with macrosomia.
Hyperglycemia during conception and organogenesis period has increased risk of congenital anomalies.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Red degeneration most commonly occurs in
- A.
1 st trimester
- B.
2nd trimester
- C.
3rd trimester
- D.
Puerperium
Correct Answer
B. 2nd trimesterExplanation
Red degeneration of fibroid occurs mostly in 2nd trimester.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A baby presenting with multiple deformities, cleft lip, cleft palate, microcephaly, small eyes, scalp defect and polydactyly. Probable diagnosis is?
- A.
Trisomy 13
- B.
Trisomy 18
- C.
Trisomy 21
- D.
Monosomy 2
Correct Answer
A. Trisomy 13Explanation
The clinical features are suggestive of Patau syndrome - trisomy 13.Rate this question:
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- 39.
ln SCHWARTZ formula for calculation of creatinine clearance in a child, the constant depends on the following except :
- A.
Age
- B.
Method of estimation of creatinine
- C.
Mass
- D.
Severity of renal failure
Correct Answer
D. Severity of renal failureExplanation
Schwartz formula:
Creatinine clearance = K x height / creatinine
(K = a constant which depends on age, muscle mass and method of creatinine estimation)Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?
- A.
Bone
- B.
Liver
- C.
Spleen
- D.
Lung
Correct Answer
B. LiverExplanation
During the early stages of fetal development, hematopoiesis, the process of forming blood cells, primarily occurs in the liver. The liver is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets until around midpregnancy when the bone marrow takes over as the primary site of hematopoiesis. The liver's role in hematopoiesis gradually decreases as the fetus develops, and the bone marrow becomes fully functional after birth.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The important fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth is
- A.
Docosahexaenoic acid
- B.
Palmitic acid
- C.
Linoleic acid
- D.
Linolenic acid
Correct Answer
A. Docosahexaenoic acidExplanation
It is required for development of nervous system and vision in the first 6 months of life.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following tumors arise from epiphysis
- A.
Ewing's sarcoma
- B.
Osteoclastoma (GCT)
- C.
Chondromyxoid fibroma
- D.
Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer
B. Osteoclastoma (GCT)Explanation
Site of origin of common bone tumours:
Ewing's sarcoma - diaphysis
Osteoclastoma (GCT) - epiphysis
Osteosarcoma - MetaphysisRate this question:
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- 43.
Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:
- A.
May follow upper respiratory infection
- B.
ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
- C.
Ultrasound of the joint reveals widening of the joint space
- D.
The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation
Correct Answer
D. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotationExplanation
In toxic synovitis, the hip is held in abduction and external rotation.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus most commonly leads to:
- A.
Flexion deformity
- B.
Cubitus varus
- C.
Cubitus valgus
- D.
Extension deformity
Correct Answer
B. Cubitus varusExplanation
Malunion of supracondylar fracture of humerus results in cubitus varus deformity (gun stock deformity).Rate this question:
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- 45.
The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
- A.
Blood vessels
- B.
Connective tissue
- C.
Aqueous and vitreous
- D.
Zonules
Correct Answer
C. Aqueous and vitreousExplanation
Lens is an avascular structure. Nutrition and oxygen for the lens is derived from the aqueous humor (major part) and vitreous humor.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Rhinophyma is associated with:
- A.
Hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands
- B.
Hypertrophy of endothelial cells
- C.
Hypertrophy of sweat glands
- D.
Hypertrophy of epithelial cells
Correct Answer
A. Hypertrophy of the sebaceous glandsExplanation
Rhinophyma is a condition of the external nose caused by hypertrophy of the sebaceous tissue and inflammation of the tissues around the gland over the skin of nose.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A 3 year old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces, His mother has a history of Bronchial asthma. Diagnosis should be
- A.
Atopic dermatitis
- B.
Contact dermatitis
- C.
Seborrhic demiatitis
- D.
Lnfantile eczematous dermatitis
Correct Answer
A. Atopic dermatitisExplanation
Site of involvement, family history of asthma - indicates diagnosis of atopic dermatitis.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Tuberculids are seen in
- A.
Lupus vulgaris
- B.
Scrofuloderma
- C.
Lichen scrofulosorum
- D.
Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer
C. Lichen scrofulosorumExplanation
Tuberculides are a group of cutaneous disorders in which the tuberculous etiology is not definite. But they have a tuberculous granuloma in histology. Treatment is by antituberculous treatment.
-Lichen scrofulosorum
-Papulonecrotic tuberculidRate this question:
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- 49.
True regarding Pityriasis Rosea is:
- A.
Self limiting
- B.
Chronic relapsing
- C.
Life threatening infection
- D.
Caused by dermatophytes
Correct Answer
A. Self limitingExplanation
Pityriasis Rosea is a self limiting disease. Herald patch is the characteristic lesion.Rate this question:
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- 50.
‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of:
- A.
Early relapsing syphlis
- B.
Late syphilis
- C.
Chancroid
- D.
Recurrent herpes simplex infection
Correct Answer
A. Early relapsing syphlisExplanation
'Chancre redux' refers to the reappearance of a chancre, which is a painless ulcer that is characteristic of syphilis. Early relapsing syphilis is a stage of syphilis where symptoms reappear after initial treatment. Therefore, it is likely that 'Chancre redux' is a clinical feature of early relapsing syphilis. Late syphilis refers to the later stages of the disease and is not associated with the reappearance of a chancre. Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Haemophilus ducreyi, and recurrent herpes simplex infection is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Neither of these conditions is specifically associated with the reappearance of a chancre.Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 16, 2011Quiz Created by
Pgblazer
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