Pg Blazer - Online Test Series - Weekly Test 2

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Quizzes Created: 37 | Total Attempts: 137,734
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1. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:

Explanation

Lens is an avascular structure. Nutrition and oxygen for the lens is derived from the aqueous humor (major part) and vitreous humor.

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2. A 3 year old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces, His mother has a history of Bronchial asthma. Diagnosis should be

Explanation

Site of involvement, family history of asthma - indicates diagnosis of atopic dermatitis.

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3.   Chlorine demand is measured by

Explanation

Horrock’s apparatus is used to measure cholrine demand.
Double pot is a method of well water chlorination.
Berkefeld filter is a water filter made of diatomaceous earth or Kieselguhr.

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4.   A patient presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. Anti endomysial antibodies and IgA TTG antibodies are positive. What is the treatment of choice?

Explanation

The clinical picture and investigation findings are suggestive of coeliac sprue. The treatment is gluten free diet.

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5. Rhinophyma is associated with:

Explanation

Rhinophyma is a condition of the external nose caused by hypertrophy of the sebaceous tissue and inflammation of the tissues around the gland over the skin of nose.

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6.   Which of the following is not an antiepileptic agent:

Explanation

Flunarizine is a selective calcium entry blocker with calmodulin binding properties and histamine H1 blocking activity.

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7.   The following is an antiapoptotic gene

Explanation

Bcl-2 is another antiapoptotic gene.

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8.   Spalding sign is seen in?

Explanation

Spalding's sign is the observation of overriding of fetal skull bones in xray. It indicates intrauterine fetal death.

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9.   Which of the following anti tuberculosis drug is not given in pregnancy

Explanation

Streptomycin can cause congenital deafness. It is contraindicated in pregnancy.

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10.   Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?

Explanation

During the early stages of fetal development, hematopoiesis, the process of forming blood cells, primarily occurs in the liver. The liver is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets until around midpregnancy when the bone marrow takes over as the primary site of hematopoiesis. The liver's role in hematopoiesis gradually decreases as the fetus develops, and the bone marrow becomes fully functional after birth.

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11.   30 year old female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axilary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was done, further treatment plan will be

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the 30-year-old female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axillary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was performed. The treatment plan will involve Adriamycin-based chemotherapy followed by tamoxifen, depending on the estrogen/progesterone receptor status. This approach is commonly used in the management of breast cancer. Adriamycin-based chemotherapy is a standard treatment for breast cancer, while tamoxifen is a hormonal therapy that is often given to patients with estrogen/progesterone receptor-positive breast cancer. The combination of chemotherapy and hormonal therapy is recommended to improve outcomes and reduce the risk of recurrence.

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12.   Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in

Explanation

If there is not standardisation, the mortality rate calculated will be higher in countries with greater proportion of elderly people.

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13.   Anagen phase of the hair indicates:

Explanation

During the anagen phase of the hair growth cycle, the hair follicles are actively producing new cells and the hair is growing. This is the phase of activity and growth, as opposed to the other phases such as the transitional phase (catagen), resting phase (telogen), and degeneration phase. In the anagen phase, the hair shaft is firmly rooted in the follicle and continues to grow longer. This phase can last for several years before transitioning into the catagen phase.

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14.   Which of the following tumors arise from epiphysis

Explanation

Site of origin of common bone tumours:
Ewing's sarcoma - diaphysis
Osteoclastoma (GCT) - epiphysis
Osteosarcoma - Metaphysis

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15.   Males and females show difference in the age of onset of puberty. The difference in the age of onset of puberty amongst males may be explained by:

Explanation

Inhibin can suppress FSH secretion which in turn delays results in delay in the onset of puberty in boys.

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16.   All can be incinerated except

Explanation

Sharps should not be incinerated.

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17.   The important fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth is

Explanation

It is required for development of nervous system and vision in the first 6 months of life.

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18.   The test used to diagnose Dubin Johnson syndrome is:

Explanation

The correct answer is the Bromsulphalein test (BSP). Dubin Johnson syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects the liver's ability to process bilirubin, resulting in a buildup of bilirubin in the body. The BSP test is a diagnostic test that measures the liver's ability to excrete bilirubin into the bile. In individuals with Dubin Johnson syndrome, the BSP test will show impaired bilirubin excretion, confirming the diagnosis. Serum transaminases and gamma glutamyl transferase levels may be elevated in individuals with liver disease, but they are not specific to Dubin Johnson syndrome. The hippurate test is used to assess liver function but is not specific to Dubin Johnson syndrome.

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19. True regarding Pityriasis Rosea is:

Explanation

Pityriasis Rosea is a self limiting disease. Herald patch is the characteristic lesion.

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20.   Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with

Explanation

Late hyperglycemia is associated with macrosomia.
Hyperglycemia during conception and organogenesis period has increased risk of congenital anomalies.

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21.   All of the following occur in mitochondria except:

Explanation

Glycogenolysis occurs in the cytoplasm.

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22.   Difference between typical cervical & thoracic vertebrae?

Explanation

Foramen transversarium is found only is the cervical vertebrae. In the upper six cervical vertebrae, the foramen transmits the vertebral artery, vertebral vein, and a plexus of sympathetic nerves from inferior cervical ganglion. Foramen transversarium of C7 does not contain the artery, but contains the vein and sympathetic nerves.

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23.   The highest percentage of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in?

Explanation

Among the options given, soya bean oil has the highest percentage of poly unsaturated fatty acids.

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24.   All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. pylori except:

Explanation

Oxytetracycline is not a recommended drug for treatment of H.pylori.

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25.   Red degeneration most commonly occurs in

Explanation

Red degeneration of fibroid occurs mostly in 2nd trimester.

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26.   Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except

Explanation

Blood brain barrier is not permeable to ions. Hence they cannot influence cerebral blood flow.

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27.   A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is

Explanation

Catalase negative gram positive cocci in chains - indicates that they are staphylococci. Enterococci are commonly seen in hospital acquired infections and they are resistant to cephalosporins and even to vancomycin.

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28.   A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is :

Explanation

Recommended test for confirmation of H.pylori eradication - urea breath test.

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29.   Lactational amenorrhoea is due to

Explanation

During lactation, the hormone prolactin is produced in high levels. Prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. GnRH is responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland. FSH is necessary for the development of ovarian follicles and the production of estrogen. Therefore, the inhibition of GnRH by prolactin leads to a decrease in FSH levels, which ultimately prevents ovulation and the resumption of menstrual cycles, resulting in lactational amenorrhea.

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30.   Colonic diverticulosis is best diagnosed by

Explanation

Diverticula are easily visualised with barium enema.

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31.   The following drug is not useful for MRSA?

Explanation

MRSA is resistant to cefaclor. (and other cephalosporins)

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32.   A baby presenting with multiple deformities, cleft lip, cleft palate, microcephaly, small eyes, scalp defect and polydactyly. Probable diagnosis is?

Explanation

The clinical features are suggestive of Patau syndrome - trisomy 13.

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33. 'Chancre redux' is a clinical feature of:

Explanation

'Chancre redux' refers to the reappearance of a chancre, which is a painless ulcer that is characteristic of syphilis. Early relapsing syphilis is a stage of syphilis where symptoms reappear after initial treatment. Therefore, it is likely that 'Chancre redux' is a clinical feature of early relapsing syphilis. Late syphilis refers to the later stages of the disease and is not associated with the reappearance of a chancre. Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Haemophilus ducreyi, and recurrent herpes simplex infection is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Neither of these conditions is specifically associated with the reappearance of a chancre.

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34.   All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Na+ channel except

Explanation

Vigabatrin is an antiepileptic drug that inhibits the catabolism of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) by irreversibly inhibiting GABA transaminase.

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35.   A patient presents with decreased vital capacity and total lung volume. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Explanation

A restrictive lung disease causes decrease in vital capacity and total lung volume. Among the options provided, sarcoidosis is the only one causing a restrictive lung disease.

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36.   Which of the following is not a branch of Cavernous segment of Internal Carotid Artery?

Explanation

Branches of cavernous segment of internal carotid artery:
-Cavernous branches
-Meningeal branches
-Inferior hypophyseal branch

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37.   True regarding endothelin-1 are all except

Explanation

Endothelin I is a bronchoconstrictor.

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38.   The malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus most commonly leads to:

Explanation

Malunion of supracondylar fracture of humerus results in cubitus varus deformity (gun stock deformity).

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39.   All of the following statements about Heparin are true except?

Explanation

Heparin causes hyperkalemia.

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40. (Imaging based question - As per new MCI norms) What is the abnormality seen in the CT scan?

Explanation

The image shows the classical lentiform (biconvex) shape of extradural haemorrhage. The blood accumulates between the skull bone and the dura. This pushes the dura away from the bone and the hematoma assumes a biconvex shape.

Subdural haemorrhage - crescent shape (convexo concave)
Subarachnoid haemorrhage - bleed in the subarachnoid space - can be visualised in the sulci.
Intracerebral hemorrhage - collection of blood seen within the brain parenchyma

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41. Posterior communicating artery a branch of

Explanation

Posterior communicating arises from the internal carotid artery before it bifurcates into anterior and middle cerebral artery. It communicates with the posterior cerebral artery and is a part of the circle of Willis.

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42.   Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except:

Explanation

HMP - The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the Non oxidative phase generates ribose precursors for nucleic acid synthesis.

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43.   A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is:

Explanation

The patient is in septic shock. Dopamine is the recommended drug for maintenance of BP in a case of septic shock. If there is no response, nor epinephrine should be tried. Since nor epinephrine is the only one given among the options, it is the best answer.

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44. Tuberculids are seen in

Explanation

Tuberculides are a group of cutaneous disorders in which the tuberculous etiology is not definite. But they have a tuberculous granuloma in histology. Treatment is by antituberculous treatment.
-Lichen scrofulosorum
-Papulonecrotic tuberculid

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45.   Prothrombin Time of a patient is 26. Control PT is 13 seconds and Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient?

Explanation

INR = (Prothrombin time / control ) ^ Sensitivity index.
(^ indicated raised to the power of)

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46.   Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways?

Explanation

Hypoxia stimulates RBC glycolysis by promoting release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane.

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47.   ln SCHWARTZ formula for calculation of creatinine clearance in a child, the constant depends on the following except :

Explanation

Schwartz formula:
Creatinine clearance = K x height / creatinine
(K = a constant which depends on age, muscle mass and method of creatinine estimation)

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48.   Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:

Explanation

In toxic synovitis, the hip is held in abduction and external rotation.

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49.   A patient presents with acute anterior wall infarction and hypotension. Which will be the immediate treatment modality for this patient?

Explanation

Angiography and primary angioplasty is the best modality of treatment in case of ST eleveation MI presenting within 12 hours.

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50.   A patient comes with hematemesis and malena. On the upper GI endoscopy there was no significant lesion. 2 days later the patient rebleeds. Next line of investigation is

Explanation

In case of rebleed, laparotomy should be done.

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The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
A 3 year old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces, His...
 ...
 ...
Rhinophyma is associated with:
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
  Which of the following tumors arise from epiphysis
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
True regarding Pityriasis Rosea is:
  Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
  Red degeneration most commonly occurs in
 ...
 ...
 ...
  Lactational amenorrhoea is due to
 ...
 ...
 ...
'Chancre redux' is a clinical feature of:
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
(Imaging based question - As per new MCI norms) What is the...
Posterior communicating artery a branch of
 ...
 ...
Tuberculids are seen in
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
 ...
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