Pg Blazer - Online Test Series - Weekly Test 3

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Medical Test Quizzes & Trivia

PG entrance practice test. For more online practice tests, go to PG Blazer Online Test Series


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Exposure of left subclavian artery by supraclavicular approach does not require cutting of :  

    • A.

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • B.

      Scalenus anterior

    • C.

      Scalenus medius

    • D.

      Omohyoid

    Correct Answer
    C. Scalenus medius
    Explanation
    Scalenus medius is located posterior to the subclavian artery. Hence there is no need to cut this to expose the subclavian artery.

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  • 2. 

    Facial Nerve stimulation during testing of nerve is indicated by contraction of which muscle  

    • A.

      Temporalis

    • B.

      Masseter

    • C.

      Sternoleidomastoid

    • D.

      Orbicularis oris

    Correct Answer
    D. Orbicularis oris
    Explanation
    Among the options given, only orbicularis oris is supplied by facial nerve.

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  • 3. 

    Most common site of ectopic pancreatic tissue is  

    • A.

      Stomach

    • B.

      Jejunum

    • C.

      Appendix

    • D.

      Hilum of spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Stomach
    Explanation
    Common sites of ectopic pancreatic tissue - stomach, meckel's diverticulum.

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  • 4. 

    True about blood pressure measurement is all except  

    • A.

      Cuff width should be 40% of arm circumference

    • B.

      Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fourth Korotkoff sound

    • C.

      Small cuff measures spuriously elevated Diastolic blood pressure

    • D.

      Monkenberg sclerosis causes pseudohypertension

    Correct Answer
    B. Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fourth Korotkoff sound
    Explanation
    Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by disappearance of Korotkoff sounds.

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  • 5. 

    Liver synthesizes all, except  

    • A.

      C3 complement component

    • B.

      Haptoglobin

    • C.

      Fibrinogen

    • D.

      Immunoglobulin

    Correct Answer
    D. Immunoglobulin
    Explanation
    Immunoglobulins are synthesized by B lymphocytes.

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  • 6. 

      Dinitrophenol causes:

    • A.

      Inhibition of ATP synthase

    • B.

      Inhibition of electron transport

    • C.

      Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation

    • D.

      Accumulation of ATP

    Correct Answer
    C. Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation
    Explanation
    Dinitrophenol uncouples oxidation and phosphorylation in the respiratory chain. The hydrogen ions re enter the mitochondrial matrix without ATP synthesis. The energy is released as heat.

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  • 7. 

    Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true except:  

    • A.

      Synthesis from Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

    • B.

      Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role

    • C.

      Enzyme Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important role

    • D.

      Phosphatidate is hydrolyzed

    Correct Answer
    B. Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role
    Explanation
    Glycerol kinase is not involved in the triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue.

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  • 8. 

      Post transplant lymphoma occurs due to proliferation of which of the following cells

    • A.

      T cell

    • B.

      B cell

    • C.

      NK cell

    • D.

      Monocyte

    Correct Answer
    B. B cell
    Explanation
    Post transplant lymphoma occurs due to the proliferation of B cells. After a transplant, the immune system is suppressed to prevent rejection of the transplanted organ. This suppression can lead to uncontrolled growth of B cells, resulting in post transplant lymphoma. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies and are an important part of the immune response. In the context of transplantation, the proliferation of B cells can lead to the development of lymphoma, a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system.

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  • 9. 

      Acid phosphatase is specific to which of the following cells

    • A.

      Monocyte

    • B.

      T lymphocyte

    • C.

      B lymphocyte

    • D.

      Myelocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Monocyte
    Explanation
    Although all hematopoietic cells contain acid phosphatase, maximum levels are seen in macrophages.

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  • 10. 

    Most common cause of Traveller‘s diarrhoea :  

    • A.

      Enterotoxigenic E. coli

    • B.

      Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

    • C.

      Enteropathogenic E. coli

    • D.

      Enreroinvasive E. coli

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
    Explanation
    Enterotoxigenic E. coli is the most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea.

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  • 11. 

    A elderly male presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough. Sputum was cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism identified will be

    • A.

      H.influenza

    • B.

      Moraxella catarrhalis

    • C.

      Legionella

    • D.

      Burkholderia cepacia

    Correct Answer
    C. Legionella
    Explanation
    The patient presented with history of pneumonia. Charcoal yeast medium is the special medium for legionella culture.

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  • 12. 

      Nevirapine belongs to the following group

    • A.

      Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)

    • B.

      Protease inhibitor

    • C.

      Fusion inhibitor

    • D.

      Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)
    Explanation
    Nevirapine and Efavirenz are Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTI)

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  • 13. 

    All are true about immunosuppressants except?  

    • A.

      Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway

    • B.

      Steroids binds to cytosolic receptors and heat shock proteins

    • C.

      Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase

    • D.

      Sirolimus will block kinase in the IL 2 receptor pathway

    Correct Answer
    C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase
    Explanation
    Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via IMP (Inosine monophosphate) dehydrogenase

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  • 14. 

    The following drug acts by hypomethylation  

    • A.

      Gemcitabine

    • B.

      Capecitabine

    • C.

      Decitabine

    • D.

      Cytosine arabinoside

    Correct Answer
    C. Decitabine
    Explanation
    Decitabine acts by causing hypomethylation. It inhibits DNA methyl transferase.

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  • 15. 

    Drug causing hypercoagulability is:  

    • A.

      L asparginase

    • B.

      Busulfan

    • C.

      Melphalan

    • D.

      5 FU

    Correct Answer
    A. L asparginase
    Explanation
    L asparginase causes hypercoagulability by decreasing synthesis of Factor S / Factor C / Antithrombin III

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  • 16. 

    Methotrexate is used in high doses in:  

    • A.

      Osteosarcoma

    • B.

      Retinoblastoma

    • C.

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • D.

      Ewing’s sarcoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteosarcoma
    Explanation
    Methotrexate is used in high doses (with leucovorin rescue) for treatment of osteosarcoma, hematological malignancies and brain tumours.

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  • 17. 

      A person presents to the emergency with rigors and chills and a clinical picture resembling malaria. Which of the following poisoning is likely

    • A.

      Mercury

    • B.

      Red phosphorous

    • C.

      Zinc

    • D.

      Arsenic

    Correct Answer
    C. Zinc
    Explanation
    Zinc poisoning is likely in this scenario because the symptoms described (rigors and chills) resemble those seen in malaria, and zinc toxicity can cause similar symptoms. Mercury poisoning can cause neurological symptoms, red phosphorous poisoning can cause respiratory symptoms, and arsenic poisoning can cause gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, zinc is the most likely poisoning based on the given clinical picture.

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  • 18. 

    All of the following are true about cluster sampling except  

    • A.

      Samples are similar to those in Simple Random sampling

    • B.

      Ls a Rapid and simple method

    • C.

      The sample size may vary according to study design

    • D.

      It is a type of probability sample

    Correct Answer
    A. Samples are similar to those in Simple Random sampling
    Explanation
    Sampling is cluster sampling is different from that in simple random sampling.

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  • 19. 

    A data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied, dissatisfied. This is a  

    • A.

      Nominal data

    • B.

      Ordinal data

    • C.

      Interval data

    • D.

      Ratio data

    Correct Answer
    B. Ordinal data
    Explanation
    The given data is arranged in a specific order, indicating a hierarchy or ranking of satisfaction levels. This suggests that the data is ordinal, as it represents a qualitative variable with distinct categories that can be ranked or ordered.

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  • 20. 

    A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and this data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed Herbal tea or not. The analytical test of choice to test this study is:

    • A.

      Student- t test (unpaired)

    • B.

      Student- t test (paired)

    • C.

      Chi square test

    • D.

      'Z' test

    Correct Answer
    C. Chi square test
    Explanation
    The test required is a non parametric test (to compare qualitative data). Chi square test a frequently used non parametric test.

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  • 21. 

    You have diagnosed a Patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know

    • A.

      Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test

    • B.

      Incidence of SLE and the predictive value of each test

    • C.

      Incidence and prevalence of SLE

    • D.

      Relative risk of SLE in the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
    Explanation
    To determine the probability of SLE in this case, it is important to consider the prior probability of SLE, which is the likelihood of a patient having SLE before any test results are known. Additionally, the sensitivity and specificity of each test are crucial factors in determining the accuracy of the test results. Sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with the condition, while specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals without the condition. These factors, along with the test results, help in calculating the probability of SLE in the patient.

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  • 22. 

      The following are components of Brown Sequard syndrome except :

    • A.

      Ipsilateral extensor plantar response

    • B.

      Lpsilateral pyramidal tract involvement

    • C.

      Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement

    • D.

      Contralateral posterior column involvement

    Correct Answer
    D. Contralateral posterior column involvement
    Explanation
    In brown sequard syndrome ( hemisection of spinal cord ), there is ipsilateral posterior colum involvement.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in Tuberculous meningitis?  

    • A.

      Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes

    • B.

      Increased protein, sugar and lymphocytes

    • C.

      Decreased protein, increased sugar and lymphocytes

    • D.

      Increased sugar, protein and neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes
    Explanation
    The classical CSF finding seen in Tuberculous meningitis is increased protein, decreased sugar, and increased lymphocytes. This is a characteristic pattern observed in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with Tuberculous meningitis. The increased protein level is due to the inflammatory response caused by the infection, while the decreased sugar level is a result of the bacteria consuming the glucose in the CSF. The increased lymphocytes indicate an immune response to the infection.

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  • 24. 

    All of the following organs may be involved in Leprosy except:  

    • A.

      Uterus

    • B.

      Ovary

    • C.

      Testes

    • D.

      Eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterus
    Explanation
    Female genital tract is seldom involved in leprosy. Ovary is the most common site of leprosy in the female genital tract.

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  • 25. 

    Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is:  

    • A.

      MDT only

    • B.

      MDT + steroid

    • C.

      Wait and watch

    • D.

      MDT + thalidomide

    Correct Answer
    B. MDT + steroid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MDT + steroid. Ulnar neuritis is a common complication in leprosy, especially in borderline tuberculoid leprosy. MDT (multi-drug therapy) is the standard treatment for leprosy, but in severe cases of ulnar neuritis, the addition of steroids is recommended. Steroids help reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms such as pain, numbness, and weakness. Therefore, combining MDT with steroids is the most appropriate treatment option for severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy.

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  • 26. 

    True regarding Couvade syndrome is?  

    • A.

      A male experiencing pregnancy symptoms

    • B.

      A pregnant female who believes that she is not pregnant

    • C.

      Excessive urge for taking drugs

    • D.

      Opiods are treatment of choice

    Correct Answer
    A. A male experiencing pregnancy symptoms
    Explanation
    Couvade syndrome (sympathetic pregnancy / phantom pregnancy) is a condition in which a man experiences some of the same symptoms and behavior of an expectant mother.

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  • 27. 

    Arsenic is used in treatment of  

    • A.

      Acute promyelocytic leukemia

    • B.

      ALL

    • C.

      CML

    • D.

      Transient myeloproliferative disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
    Explanation
    Arsenic is used in the treatment of Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL). APL is a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by the presence of a specific genetic mutation. Arsenic trioxide, a form of arsenic, has been found to be effective in inducing remission in patients with APL by promoting the degradation of the abnormal protein produced by the genetic mutation. This treatment has shown good results in clinical trials and is now considered a standard therapy for APL.

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  • 28. 

    Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange therapy) is used in the treatment of  

    • A.

      Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    • B.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    • C.

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

    • D.

      Hemolytic uremic syndrome

    Correct Answer
    C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
    Explanation
    It can also be used for HUS, but is not as successful.

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  • 29. 

      Which of the following is not a complication of surgery for thoracic outlet syndrome.

    • A.

      Pneumothorax

    • B.

      Brachial plexus injury

    • C.

      Lymphocutaneous fistula

    • D.

      Long thoracic nerve injury

    Correct Answer
    C. Lymphocutaneous fistula
    Explanation
    A lymphocutaneous fistula is not a complication of surgery for thoracic outlet syndrome. A lymphocutaneous fistula is an abnormal connection between the lymphatic system and the skin, causing lymph to drain through the skin. Complications of surgery for thoracic outlet syndrome typically include pneumothorax (collapsed lung), brachial plexus injury (nerve damage in the shoulder and arm), and long thoracic nerve injury (nerve damage affecting the muscles that stabilize the shoulder blade).

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  • 30. 

    Stone which is resistant to lithotripsy  

    • A.

      Calcium oxalate

    • B.

      Triple phosphate stone

    • C.

      Cystine stone

    • D.

      Uric acid stone

    Correct Answer
    C. Cystine stone
    Explanation
    Cystine stone is resistant to lithotripsy.

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  • 31. 

    True about solitary rectal ulcer syndrome is all/except  

    • A.

      Increased muscle layer proliferation

    • B.

      Crypt distortion

    • C.

      Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocyte

    • D.

      Subepithelial fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocyte
    Explanation
    Histology of solitary rectal ulcer syndrome shows relative absence of inflammatory cells in the lamina propria.

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  • 32. 

      Fruit Juice which helps in preventing UTI

    • A.

      Cranberry

    • B.

      Raspberry

    • C.

      Orange

    • D.

      Grape

    Correct Answer
    A. Cranberry
    Explanation
    Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs). It contains compounds called proanthocyanidins, which help prevent bacteria from attaching to the urinary tract walls. This prevents the bacteria from causing an infection. Regular consumption of cranberry juice can help maintain a healthy urinary tract and reduce the risk of UTIs.

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  • 33. 

      Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely to be associated with

    • A.

      Recurrent abortions

    • B.

      Polyhydramnios

    • C.

      PIH

    • D.

      Preterm labour

    Correct Answer
    B. Polyhydramnios
    Explanation
    Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely to be associated with polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid in the womb, which can be caused by various factors including fetal abnormalities, maternal diabetes, and certain infections. However, hypothyroidism is not typically known to be a direct cause of polyhydramnios. Instead, it is more commonly associated with complications such as recurrent abortions, PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension), and preterm labor.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is the least likely physiological change in pregnancy  

    • A.

      Increase in intravascular volume

    • B.

      Increase in cardiac output

    • C.

      Increase in stroke volume

    • D.

      Increase in peripheral vascular resistance

    Correct Answer
    D. Increase in peripheral vascular resistance
    Explanation
    There is decrease in peripheral vascular resistance during pregnancy.

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  • 35. 

    Most common heart disease which is associated with maximum mortality during pregnancy  

    • A.

      Eisenmenger syndrome

    • B.

      MS

    • C.

      AS

    • D.

      VSD

    Correct Answer
    A. Eisenmenger syndrome
    Explanation
    Among the options given, eisenmenger syndrome is associated with maximum maternal mortality in pregnancy.

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  • 36. 

    HRT is useful in all except  

    • A.

      Flushing

    • B.

      Osteoporosis

    • C.

      Vaginal atrophy

    • D.

      Coronary heart disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Coronary heart disease
    Explanation
    HRT (Hormone Replacement Therapy) is a treatment that involves taking hormones to replace the ones that the body no longer produces after menopause. It is useful in managing symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. It is also effective in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Additionally, HRT can alleviate symptoms of vaginal atrophy by restoring the thickness and elasticity of the vaginal tissues. However, HRT is not recommended for women with coronary heart disease, as it may increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks or strokes. Therefore, HRT is useful in all except coronary heart disease.

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  • 37. 

    Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?  

    • A.

      Bone

    • B.

      Liver

    • C.

      Spleen

    • D.

      Lung

    Correct Answer
    B. Liver
    Explanation
    Primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy is liver.

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  • 38. 

      A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. In closure can be stimulated by administration of:

    • A.

      Prostaglandin analogue

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Anti-estrogen compounds

    • D.

      Prostaglandin inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    D. Prostaglandin inhibitors
    Explanation
    Normally ductus arteriosus closes soon after birth. Vasodilatory effect of prostaglandin is what maintains the patency of ductus arteriosus in intrauterine life. Hence in cases of delayed closure of ductus arteriosus, we can use prostaglandin inhibitors to induce its closure.

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  • 39. 

      A 3-year-old boy presents with fever; dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Acute glomerulonephritis

    • B.

      Urinary tract infection

    • C.

      Posterior urethral valves

    • D.

      Teratoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Posterior urethral valves
    Explanation
    Lets analyse the question. There is fever, dysuria and gross hematuria – indicates urinary tract infection. But urinary tract infections are uncommon in boys unless there is some congenital anomaly of the urogenital tract. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion – due to enlarged bladder – indicating obstruction below the level of bladder. Posterior urethral valve is the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in a male child.

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  • 40. 

      Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?

    • A.

      Gaucher disease

    • B.

      Niemann Pick disease

    • C.

      Mucolipidosis

    • D.

      Metachromatic leukodystrophy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gaucher disease
    Explanation
    Cerezyme is used for treating Gaucher Disease with Enzyme Replacement Therapy. Cerezyme acts like naturally occurring glucocerebrosidases

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  • 41. 

      Which of the following tumors arise from epiphysis

    • A.

      Ewing’s sarcoma

    • B.

      Osteoclastoma (GCT)

    • C.

      Chondromyxoid fibroma

    • D.

      Osteosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteoclastoma (GCT)
    Explanation
    Site of origin of common bone tumours:
    Ewing’s sarcoma – diaphysis
    Osteoclastoma (GCT) – epiphysis
    Osteosarcoma – Metaphysis

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  • 42. 

      The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:

    • A.

      Hill-Sach’s lesion

    • B.

      Bankart`s lesion

    • C.

      Capsular laxity

    • D.

      Supraspinatus tear

    Correct Answer
    D. Supraspinatus tear
    Explanation
    Lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder are :
    Hill-Sach’s lesion
    Bankart`s lesion
    Erosion of anterior rim of glenoid cavity
    Capsular laxity
    Subcapsularis deficiency
    Glenoid fossa deficiency

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  • 43. 

      All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:

    • A.

      Sarcomatous change

    • B.

      Fracture

    • C.

      Bursitis

    • D.

      Degenerative changes

    Correct Answer
    D. Degenerative changes
    Explanation
    Osteochondroma is usually painless. Sudden onset of pain in osteochondroma can be due to :
    Malignant transformation
    Bursitis
    Fracture
    Pressure or traction on neighbouring structures (nerve / tendon / muscle)

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  • 44. 

      All of the following are complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus in children, except;

    • A.

      Compartment syndrome

    • B.

      Myositis ossificans

    • C.

      Malunion

    • D.

      Non Union

    Correct Answer
    D. Non Union
    Explanation
    Supracondylar fracture goes for malunion, not non union!

    Complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus
    Injury to arteries and nerves
    Volkmann’s ischemia
    Myositis ossificans
    Malunion (results in gun stock deformity)
    Volkmann’s ischemic contracture

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  • 45. 

    A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:

    • A.

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Sebaceous cell carcinoma

    • C.

      Malignant melanoma

    • D.

      Basal cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Sebaceous cell carcinoma
    Explanation
    Sebaceous cell carcinoma is a neoplasm of the eyelid with high malignant potential. It arises from Sebaceous glands of caruncle, meibominan glands and the glands of Zeis.

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  • 46. 

    A lady has bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedence audiometry graph will be :

    • A.

      Ad

    • B.

      As

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      C

    Correct Answer
    B. As
    Explanation
    The history is suggestive of otosclerosis. Hence the audiometry graph will be of As type.

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  • 47. 

    The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:

    • A.

      Chloroquin

    • B.

      Thalidomide

    • C.

      Cyclosporine

    • D.

      Corticosteroids

    Correct Answer
    C. Cyclosporine
    Explanation
    Drugs used in treatment of type II lepra reaction are :
    NSAID’s
    Thalidomide
    Chloroquine
    Clofazimine
    Corticosteroids
    Parenteral antimony

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  • 48. 

    Most common nerve used for monitoring during anaesthesia

    • A.

      Ulnar nerve

    • B.

      Facial nerve

    • C.

      Radial nerve

    • D.

      Median nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulnar nerve
    Explanation
    The ulnar nerve is commonly used for monitoring during anesthesia because it provides sensory and motor innervation to the hand and fingers. It is easily accessible and can be stimulated to assess the depth of anesthesia and monitor the patient's response. Additionally, monitoring the ulnar nerve can help detect any potential nerve damage or complications during surgery.

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  • 49. 

    A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift. Basal cistern was compressed with multiple small haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Cerebral contusion

    • B.

      Cerebral laceration

    • C.

      Multiple infarcts

    • D.

      Diffuse axonal injuries

    Correct Answer
    D. Diffuse axonal injuries
    Explanation
    Diffuse axonal injuries are associated with unconsciousness and CT scan shows multiple petechial haemorrhages.

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  • 50. 

    Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction because

    • A.

      To treat withdrawl symptoms

    • B.

      To treat overdose of opioids

    • C.

      Prevent relapse

    • D.

      Has addiction potential

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevent relapse
    Explanation
    Naltrexone is used to prevent relapse.

    Rate this question:

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 25, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Pgblazer
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