Pg Blazer - Online Test Series - Weekly Test 3
PG entrance practice test. For more online practice tests, go to PG Blazer Online Test Series
- 1.
Exposure of left subclavian artery by supraclavicular approach does not require cutting of :
- A.
Sternocleidomastoid
- B.
Scalenus anterior
- C.
Scalenus medius
- D.
Omohyoid
Correct Answer
C. Scalenus mediusExplanation
Scalenus medius is located posterior to the subclavian artery. Hence there is no need to cut this to expose the subclavian artery.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Facial Nerve stimulation during testing of nerve is indicated by contraction of which muscle
- A.
Temporalis
- B.
Masseter
- C.
Sternoleidomastoid
- D.
Orbicularis oris
Correct Answer
D. Orbicularis orisExplanation
Among the options given, only orbicularis oris is supplied by facial nerve.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Most common site of ectopic pancreatic tissue is
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Jejunum
- C.
Appendix
- D.
Hilum of spleen
Correct Answer
A. StomachExplanation
Common sites of ectopic pancreatic tissue - stomach, meckel's diverticulum.Rate this question:
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- 4.
True about blood pressure measurement is all except
- A.
Cuff width should be 40% of arm circumference
- B.
Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fourth Korotkoff sound
- C.
Small cuff measures spuriously elevated Diastolic blood pressure
- D.
Monkenberg sclerosis causes pseudohypertension
Correct Answer
B. Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fourth Korotkoff soundExplanation
Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by disappearance of Korotkoff sounds.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Liver synthesizes all, except
- A.
C3 complement component
- B.
Haptoglobin
- C.
Fibrinogen
- D.
Immunoglobulin
Correct Answer
D. ImmunoglobulinExplanation
Immunoglobulins are synthesized by B lymphocytes.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Dinitrophenol causes:
- A.
Inhibition of ATP synthase
- B.
Inhibition of electron transport
- C.
Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation
- D.
Accumulation of ATP
Correct Answer
C. Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylationExplanation
Dinitrophenol uncouples oxidation and phosphorylation in the respiratory chain. The hydrogen ions re enter the mitochondrial matrix without ATP synthesis. The energy is released as heat.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true except:
- A.
Synthesis from Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
- B.
Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role
- C.
Enzyme Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important role
- D.
Phosphatidate is hydrolyzed
Correct Answer
B. Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important roleExplanation
Glycerol kinase is not involved in the triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Post transplant lymphoma occurs due to proliferation of which of the following cells
- A.
T cell
- B.
B cell
- C.
NK cell
- D.
Monocyte
Correct Answer
B. B cellExplanation
Post transplant lymphoma occurs due to the proliferation of B cells. After a transplant, the immune system is suppressed to prevent rejection of the transplanted organ. This suppression can lead to uncontrolled growth of B cells, resulting in post transplant lymphoma. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies and are an important part of the immune response. In the context of transplantation, the proliferation of B cells can lead to the development of lymphoma, a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Acid phosphatase is specific to which of the following cells
- A.
Monocyte
- B.
T lymphocyte
- C.
B lymphocyte
- D.
Myelocytes
Correct Answer
A. MonocyteExplanation
Although all hematopoietic cells contain acid phosphatase, maximum levels are seen in macrophages.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Most common cause of Traveller‘s diarrhoea :
- A.
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
- B.
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
- C.
Enteropathogenic E. coli
- D.
Enreroinvasive E. coli
Correct Answer
A. Enterotoxigenic E. coliExplanation
Enterotoxigenic E. coli is the most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A elderly male presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough. Sputum was cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism identified will be
- A.
H.influenza
- B.
Moraxella catarrhalis
- C.
Legionella
- D.
Burkholderia cepacia
Correct Answer
C. LegionellaExplanation
The patient presented with history of pneumonia. Charcoal yeast medium is the special medium for legionella culture.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Nevirapine belongs to the following group
- A.
Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)
- B.
Protease inhibitor
- C.
Fusion inhibitor
- D.
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
Correct Answer
A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)Explanation
Nevirapine and Efavirenz are Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTI)Rate this question:
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- 13.
All are true about immunosuppressants except?
- A.
Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway
- B.
Steroids binds to cytosolic receptors and heat shock proteins
- C.
Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase
- D.
Sirolimus will block kinase in the IL 2 receptor pathway
Correct Answer
C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenaseExplanation
Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via IMP (Inosine monophosphate) dehydrogenaseRate this question:
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- 14.
The following drug acts by hypomethylation
- A.
Gemcitabine
- B.
Capecitabine
- C.
Decitabine
- D.
Cytosine arabinoside
Correct Answer
C. DecitabineExplanation
Decitabine acts by causing hypomethylation. It inhibits DNA methyl transferase.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Drug causing hypercoagulability is:
- A.
L asparginase
- B.
Busulfan
- C.
Melphalan
- D.
5 FU
Correct Answer
A. L asparginaseExplanation
L asparginase causes hypercoagulability by decreasing synthesis of Factor S / Factor C / Antithrombin IIIRate this question:
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- 16.
Methotrexate is used in high doses in:
- A.
Osteosarcoma
- B.
Retinoblastoma
- C.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
- D.
Ewing’s sarcoma
Correct Answer
A. OsteosarcomaExplanation
Methotrexate is used in high doses (with leucovorin rescue) for treatment of osteosarcoma, hematological malignancies and brain tumours.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A person presents to the emergency with rigors and chills and a clinical picture resembling malaria. Which of the following poisoning is likely
- A.
Mercury
- B.
Red phosphorous
- C.
Zinc
- D.
Arsenic
Correct Answer
C. ZincExplanation
Zinc poisoning is likely in this scenario because the symptoms described (rigors and chills) resemble those seen in malaria, and zinc toxicity can cause similar symptoms. Mercury poisoning can cause neurological symptoms, red phosphorous poisoning can cause respiratory symptoms, and arsenic poisoning can cause gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, zinc is the most likely poisoning based on the given clinical picture.Rate this question:
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- 18.
All of the following are true about cluster sampling except
- A.
Samples are similar to those in Simple Random sampling
- B.
Ls a Rapid and simple method
- C.
The sample size may vary according to study design
- D.
It is a type of probability sample
Correct Answer
A. Samples are similar to those in Simple Random samplingExplanation
Sampling is cluster sampling is different from that in simple random sampling.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied, dissatisfied. This is a
- A.
Nominal data
- B.
Ordinal data
- C.
Interval data
- D.
Ratio data
Correct Answer
B. Ordinal dataExplanation
The given data is arranged in a specific order, indicating a hierarchy or ranking of satisfaction levels. This suggests that the data is ordinal, as it represents a qualitative variable with distinct categories that can be ranked or ordered.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and this data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed Herbal tea or not. The analytical test of choice to test this study is:
- A.
Student- t test (unpaired)
- B.
Student- t test (paired)
- C.
Chi square test
- D.
'Z' test
Correct Answer
C. Chi square testExplanation
The test required is a non parametric test (to compare qualitative data). Chi square test a frequently used non parametric test.Rate this question:
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- 21.
You have diagnosed a Patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know
- A.
Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
- B.
Incidence of SLE and the predictive value of each test
- C.
Incidence and prevalence of SLE
- D.
Relative risk of SLE in the patient
Correct Answer
A. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each testExplanation
To determine the probability of SLE in this case, it is important to consider the prior probability of SLE, which is the likelihood of a patient having SLE before any test results are known. Additionally, the sensitivity and specificity of each test are crucial factors in determining the accuracy of the test results. Sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with the condition, while specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals without the condition. These factors, along with the test results, help in calculating the probability of SLE in the patient.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The following are components of Brown Sequard syndrome except :
- A.
Ipsilateral extensor plantar response
- B.
Lpsilateral pyramidal tract involvement
- C.
Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
- D.
Contralateral posterior column involvement
Correct Answer
D. Contralateral posterior column involvementExplanation
In brown sequard syndrome ( hemisection of spinal cord ), there is ipsilateral posterior colum involvement.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in Tuberculous meningitis?
- A.
Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes
- B.
Increased protein, sugar and lymphocytes
- C.
Decreased protein, increased sugar and lymphocytes
- D.
Increased sugar, protein and neutrophils
Correct Answer
A. Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytesExplanation
The classical CSF finding seen in Tuberculous meningitis is increased protein, decreased sugar, and increased lymphocytes. This is a characteristic pattern observed in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with Tuberculous meningitis. The increased protein level is due to the inflammatory response caused by the infection, while the decreased sugar level is a result of the bacteria consuming the glucose in the CSF. The increased lymphocytes indicate an immune response to the infection.Rate this question:
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- 24.
All of the following organs may be involved in Leprosy except:
- A.
Uterus
- B.
Ovary
- C.
Testes
- D.
Eye
Correct Answer
A. UterusExplanation
Female genital tract is seldom involved in leprosy. Ovary is the most common site of leprosy in the female genital tract.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is:
- A.
MDT only
- B.
MDT + steroid
- C.
Wait and watch
- D.
MDT + thalidomide
Correct Answer
B. MDT + steroidExplanation
The correct answer is MDT + steroid. Ulnar neuritis is a common complication in leprosy, especially in borderline tuberculoid leprosy. MDT (multi-drug therapy) is the standard treatment for leprosy, but in severe cases of ulnar neuritis, the addition of steroids is recommended. Steroids help reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms such as pain, numbness, and weakness. Therefore, combining MDT with steroids is the most appropriate treatment option for severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy.Rate this question:
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- 26.
True regarding Couvade syndrome is?
- A.
A male experiencing pregnancy symptoms
- B.
A pregnant female who believes that she is not pregnant
- C.
Excessive urge for taking drugs
- D.
Opiods are treatment of choice
Correct Answer
A. A male experiencing pregnancy symptomsExplanation
Couvade syndrome (sympathetic pregnancy / phantom pregnancy) is a condition in which a man experiences some of the same symptoms and behavior of an expectant mother.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Arsenic is used in treatment of
- A.
Acute promyelocytic leukemia
- B.
ALL
- C.
CML
- D.
Transient myeloproliferative disorder
Correct Answer
A. Acute promyelocytic leukemiaExplanation
Arsenic is used in the treatment of Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL). APL is a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by the presence of a specific genetic mutation. Arsenic trioxide, a form of arsenic, has been found to be effective in inducing remission in patients with APL by promoting the degradation of the abnormal protein produced by the genetic mutation. This treatment has shown good results in clinical trials and is now considered a standard therapy for APL.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange therapy) is used in the treatment of
- A.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- B.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- C.
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
- D.
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Correct Answer
C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraExplanation
It can also be used for HUS, but is not as successful.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is not a complication of surgery for thoracic outlet syndrome.
- A.
Pneumothorax
- B.
Brachial plexus injury
- C.
Lymphocutaneous fistula
- D.
Long thoracic nerve injury
Correct Answer
C. Lymphocutaneous fistulaExplanation
A lymphocutaneous fistula is not a complication of surgery for thoracic outlet syndrome. A lymphocutaneous fistula is an abnormal connection between the lymphatic system and the skin, causing lymph to drain through the skin. Complications of surgery for thoracic outlet syndrome typically include pneumothorax (collapsed lung), brachial plexus injury (nerve damage in the shoulder and arm), and long thoracic nerve injury (nerve damage affecting the muscles that stabilize the shoulder blade).Rate this question:
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- 30.
Stone which is resistant to lithotripsy
- A.
Calcium oxalate
- B.
Triple phosphate stone
- C.
Cystine stone
- D.
Uric acid stone
Correct Answer
C. Cystine stoneExplanation
Cystine stone is resistant to lithotripsy.Rate this question:
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- 31.
True about solitary rectal ulcer syndrome is all/except
- A.
Increased muscle layer proliferation
- B.
Crypt distortion
- C.
Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocyte
- D.
Subepithelial fibrosis
Correct Answer
C. Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocyteExplanation
Histology of solitary rectal ulcer syndrome shows relative absence of inflammatory cells in the lamina propria.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Fruit Juice which helps in preventing UTI
- A.
Cranberry
- B.
Raspberry
- C.
Orange
- D.
Grape
Correct Answer
A. CranberryExplanation
Cranberry juice is known for its ability to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs). It contains compounds called proanthocyanidins, which help prevent bacteria from attaching to the urinary tract walls. This prevents the bacteria from causing an infection. Regular consumption of cranberry juice can help maintain a healthy urinary tract and reduce the risk of UTIs.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely to be associated with
- A.
Recurrent abortions
- B.
Polyhydramnios
- C.
PIH
- D.
Preterm labour
Correct Answer
B. PolyhydramniosExplanation
Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely to be associated with polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid in the womb, which can be caused by various factors including fetal abnormalities, maternal diabetes, and certain infections. However, hypothyroidism is not typically known to be a direct cause of polyhydramnios. Instead, it is more commonly associated with complications such as recurrent abortions, PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension), and preterm labor.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is the least likely physiological change in pregnancy
- A.
Increase in intravascular volume
- B.
Increase in cardiac output
- C.
Increase in stroke volume
- D.
Increase in peripheral vascular resistance
Correct Answer
D. Increase in peripheral vascular resistanceExplanation
There is decrease in peripheral vascular resistance during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Most common heart disease which is associated with maximum mortality during pregnancy
- A.
Eisenmenger syndrome
- B.
MS
- C.
AS
- D.
VSD
Correct Answer
A. Eisenmenger syndromeExplanation
Among the options given, eisenmenger syndrome is associated with maximum maternal mortality in pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 36.
HRT is useful in all except
- A.
Flushing
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Vaginal atrophy
- D.
Coronary heart disease
Correct Answer
D. Coronary heart diseaseExplanation
HRT (Hormone Replacement Therapy) is a treatment that involves taking hormones to replace the ones that the body no longer produces after menopause. It is useful in managing symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. It is also effective in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Additionally, HRT can alleviate symptoms of vaginal atrophy by restoring the thickness and elasticity of the vaginal tissues. However, HRT is not recommended for women with coronary heart disease, as it may increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks or strokes. Therefore, HRT is useful in all except coronary heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?
- A.
Bone
- B.
Liver
- C.
Spleen
- D.
Lung
Correct Answer
B. LiverExplanation
Primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy is liver.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. In closure can be stimulated by administration of:
- A.
Prostaglandin analogue
- B.
Estrogen
- C.
Anti-estrogen compounds
- D.
Prostaglandin inhibitors
Correct Answer
D. Prostaglandin inhibitorsExplanation
Normally ductus arteriosus closes soon after birth. Vasodilatory effect of prostaglandin is what maintains the patency of ductus arteriosus in intrauterine life. Hence in cases of delayed closure of ductus arteriosus, we can use prostaglandin inhibitors to induce its closure.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A 3-year-old boy presents with fever; dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Acute glomerulonephritis
- B.
Urinary tract infection
- C.
Posterior urethral valves
- D.
Teratoma
Correct Answer
C. Posterior urethral valvesExplanation
Lets analyse the question. There is fever, dysuria and gross hematuria – indicates urinary tract infection. But urinary tract infections are uncommon in boys unless there is some congenital anomaly of the urogenital tract. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion – due to enlarged bladder – indicating obstruction below the level of bladder. Posterior urethral valve is the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in a male child.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
- A.
Gaucher disease
- B.
Niemann Pick disease
- C.
Mucolipidosis
- D.
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Correct Answer
A. Gaucher diseaseExplanation
Cerezyme is used for treating Gaucher Disease with Enzyme Replacement Therapy. Cerezyme acts like naturally occurring glucocerebrosidasesRate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following tumors arise from epiphysis
- A.
Ewing’s sarcoma
- B.
Osteoclastoma (GCT)
- C.
Chondromyxoid fibroma
- D.
Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer
B. Osteoclastoma (GCT)Explanation
Site of origin of common bone tumours:
Ewing’s sarcoma – diaphysis
Osteoclastoma (GCT) – epiphysis
Osteosarcoma – MetaphysisRate this question:
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- 42.
The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
- A.
Hill-Sach’s lesion
- B.
Bankart`s lesion
- C.
Capsular laxity
- D.
Supraspinatus tear
Correct Answer
D. Supraspinatus tearExplanation
Lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder are :
Hill-Sach’s lesion
Bankart`s lesion
Erosion of anterior rim of glenoid cavity
Capsular laxity
Subcapsularis deficiency
Glenoid fossa deficiencyRate this question:
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- 43.
All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:
- A.
Sarcomatous change
- B.
Fracture
- C.
Bursitis
- D.
Degenerative changes
Correct Answer
D. Degenerative changesExplanation
Osteochondroma is usually painless. Sudden onset of pain in osteochondroma can be due to :
Malignant transformation
Bursitis
Fracture
Pressure or traction on neighbouring structures (nerve / tendon / muscle)Rate this question:
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- 44.
All of the following are complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus in children, except;
- A.
Compartment syndrome
- B.
Myositis ossificans
- C.
Malunion
- D.
Non Union
Correct Answer
D. Non UnionExplanation
Supracondylar fracture goes for malunion, not non union!
Complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus
Injury to arteries and nerves
Volkmann’s ischemia
Myositis ossificans
Malunion (results in gun stock deformity)
Volkmann’s ischemic contractureRate this question:
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- 45.
A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:
- A.
Squamous cell carcinoma
- B.
Sebaceous cell carcinoma
- C.
Malignant melanoma
- D.
Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer
B. Sebaceous cell carcinomaExplanation
Sebaceous cell carcinoma is a neoplasm of the eyelid with high malignant potential. It arises from Sebaceous glands of caruncle, meibominan glands and the glands of Zeis.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A lady has bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedence audiometry graph will be :
- A.
Ad
- B.
As
- C.
B
- D.
C
Correct Answer
B. AsExplanation
The history is suggestive of otosclerosis. Hence the audiometry graph will be of As type.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:
- A.
Chloroquin
- B.
Thalidomide
- C.
Cyclosporine
- D.
Corticosteroids
Correct Answer
C. CyclosporineExplanation
Drugs used in treatment of type II lepra reaction are :
NSAID’s
Thalidomide
Chloroquine
Clofazimine
Corticosteroids
Parenteral antimonyRate this question:
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- 48.
Most common nerve used for monitoring during anaesthesia
- A.
Ulnar nerve
- B.
Facial nerve
- C.
Radial nerve
- D.
Median nerve
Correct Answer
A. Ulnar nerveExplanation
The ulnar nerve is commonly used for monitoring during anesthesia because it provides sensory and motor innervation to the hand and fingers. It is easily accessible and can be stimulated to assess the depth of anesthesia and monitor the patient's response. Additionally, monitoring the ulnar nerve can help detect any potential nerve damage or complications during surgery.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift. Basal cistern was compressed with multiple small haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A.
Cerebral contusion
- B.
Cerebral laceration
- C.
Multiple infarcts
- D.
Diffuse axonal injuries
Correct Answer
D. Diffuse axonal injuriesExplanation
Diffuse axonal injuries are associated with unconsciousness and CT scan shows multiple petechial haemorrhages.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction because
- A.
To treat withdrawl symptoms
- B.
To treat overdose of opioids
- C.
Prevent relapse
- D.
Has addiction potential
Correct Answer
C. Prevent relapseExplanation
Naltrexone is used to prevent relapse.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 25, 2011Quiz Created by
Pgblazer
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