Pediatric Quiz (February 2010)

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| By Drbhavesh
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Drbhavesh
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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 9,471
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  • 1/10 Questions
        Which is the likely organism to cause this condition ? - ProProfs

        Which is the likely organism to cause this condition ?

    • Staphylococcus aureus
    • Streptococcus
    • H. influezae
    • Beta hemolytic streptococcus
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About This Quiz

                                                                                                                                                                               
Dear Friends,Academy of Pediatrics, Vadodara, Gujarat (India) welcomes you to Online Pediatric Quiz. Aim of starting this quiz is "LEARN WITH FUN"You may attempt this quiz number of times upto your satisfaction. You will be able to know the answers after attempting each question and also at the end of quiz. You may see your score and quiz related statistics immediately after finishing the quiz. There will be 10 questions in each quiz of 10 mark each. There is no negative marking. You have to finish the quiz in 10 minutes.  At the end of 10 minutes the quiz will be submitted irrespective of the questions attemptedSo, GET READY! Happy Quizzing!

Pediatric Quiz (February 2010) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

            Choose the best way to treat Otitis Media with Effusion:

    • Tonsillectomy

    • Myringotomy

    • Tympanostomy

    • Myringotomy with tube insertion

    • Adenoidectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Myringotomy with tube insertion
    Explanation
    Myringotomy with tube insertion is the best way to treat Otitis Media with Effusion. This procedure involves making a small incision in the eardrum to drain fluid and then inserting a tiny tube to help ventilate the middle ear and prevent fluid buildup. This allows the ear to function properly and reduces the risk of recurrent infections. Tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy, and tympanostomy are not the most effective treatments for Otitis Media with Effusion.

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  • 3. 

            A 9 year girl has presented with Goitre. Her TSH levels are high but T3 and T4 are normal. What should be the next appropriate step is this case ?

    • Estimation of Free T4, Antithyroglobulin Antibody, Thyroid Peroxidase Antibody

    • Refer the child to Endocrinologist

    • Start Levothyroxine

    • Reassure parents and reassess after 6 weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. Estimation of Free T4, Antithyroglobulin Antibody, Thyroid Peroxidase Antibody
    Explanation
    The next appropriate step in this case would be to estimate the levels of Free T4, Antithyroglobulin Antibody, and Thyroid Peroxidase Antibody. This is because the girl has presented with Goitre and her TSH levels are high, indicating a potential thyroid disorder. Estimating these levels can help determine the underlying cause of the Goitre and guide further management. Referring the child to an endocrinologist may also be necessary, but the first step would be to conduct these tests for a more accurate diagnosis. Starting Levothyroxine or reassuring the parents and reassessing after 6 weeks may not be appropriate without further investigations.

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  • 4. 

            Late hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of the following features except:

    • Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies

    • Onset occurs at 4-12 weeks of age

    • Intramuscular vit K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role

    • Intracranial Hemorrhage can occur

    Correct Answer
    A. Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies
    Explanation
    Late hemorrhagic disease of newborn is a bleeding disorder that occurs in infants between 2 and 12 weeks of age. It is caused by vitamin K deficiency, which is necessary for blood clotting. Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth is recommended to prevent this condition. The disease can lead to bleeding in various parts of the body, including the brain, but it is not specifically associated with cow-milk fed babies.

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  • 5. 

             A 2 years old male child had fever and coryza for last 3 days. He developed maculopapular erythmatous rashes which lasted for 48 hrs and disappeared without leaving behind pigmentation. Clinical diagnosis is

    • Measles

    • Fifth disease

    • Typhoid

    • Roseola infantum

    Correct Answer
    A. Roseola infantum
    Explanation
    The child's symptoms of fever, coryza, and maculopapular erythmatous rashes that lasted for 48 hours and disappeared without pigmentation are consistent with Roseola infantum. Measles typically presents with a prodrome of fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis followed by a maculopapular rash that lasts several days and may leave behind pigmentation. Fifth disease presents with a "slapped cheek" rash and can cause joint pain. Typhoid fever typically presents with fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Therefore, the most likely clinical diagnosis in this case is Roseola infantum.

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  • 6. 

    )            A 6 years old male presented with c/o mild fever, sore throat, headache, bodyache &   diarrhoea. Following statements are true regarding this patient EXCEPT:

    • Oseltamivir should be started along with symptomatic treatment

    • No testing for H1N1 is required

    • Confine patient at home and avoid mixing with public and high risk members in the family

    • Call for follow up at 24 to 48 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. Oseltamivir should be started along with symptomatic treatment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Oseltamivir should be started along with symptomatic treatment." This statement is false because oseltamivir is not recommended for the treatment of mild cases of influenza, including those caused by H1N1. Symptomatic treatment, such as rest, fluids, and over-the-counter medications, is typically sufficient for managing mild cases of the flu.

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  • 7. 

            All of the following statements are true regarding Congenital Hydrocoele except  

    • Doesn’t go away by age 2 years

    • Comes and goes

    • All are non communicating hydrocoeles

    • Causes painful swelling

    Correct Answer
    A. All are non communicating hydrocoeles
    Explanation
    Congenital hydrocoele is a condition where there is a collection of fluid in the scrotum of a male infant. It is typically non-painful and usually resolves on its own by the age of 2 years. Therefore, the statement "Causes painful swelling" is not true for congenital hydrocoele. The other statements are true, as congenital hydrocoele does not go away by age 2 years, it can come and go, and it is indeed a non-communicating hydrocoele.

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  • 8. 

            Bacterial Endocarditis is not seen in:

    • Coarctation of Aorta

    • ASD

    • VSD

    • PDA

    Correct Answer
    A. ASD
    Explanation
    Bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and heart valves. It occurs when bacteria from other parts of the body, such as the mouth or skin, enter the bloodstream and attach to damaged areas in the heart. While coarctation of the aorta, VSD, and PDA can all potentially lead to the development of bacterial endocarditis, ASD does not have the same risk. This is because ASD does not involve any structural abnormalities or damage to the heart valves, reducing the likelihood of bacterial attachment and infection.

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  • 9. 

             A 4 years male, weighing 18 Kgs child presented with fever and pain in right shoulder 8 months back. He was given antibiotics for 2 weeks and he improved in 1 week. Later on he developed recurrent joint pain at different joints which is continuing till today.Following is the most probable diagnosis:

    • Sickle cell disease

    • Henoch Schonlein Purpura

    • Reactive arthritis

    • Hemophilia

    • Scurvy

    Correct Answer
    A. Sickle cell disease
    Explanation
    The most probable diagnosis for this child's symptoms is sickle cell disease. Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the red blood cells, causing them to become crescent-shaped and less able to carry oxygen. This can lead to various complications, including pain crises and joint pain. The child's history of recurrent joint pain at different joints is consistent with the joint manifestations commonly seen in sickle cell disease. Additionally, the initial presentation with fever and pain in the right shoulder could have been a vaso-occlusive crisis, a common complication of sickle cell disease.

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  • 10. 

            Prednisolone is treatment of choice in a Haemophilic with

    • Gingival bleeding

    • Spontaneous Hematuria

    • Traumatic Hemarthroisis

    • Never use Prednisolone in Haemophilic

    Correct Answer
    A. Spontaneous Hematuria
    Explanation
    Prednisolone is the treatment of choice in a Haemophilic with spontaneous hematuria because it is a corticosteroid that helps reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Spontaneous hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine without any apparent cause or injury. Prednisolone can help reduce the inflammation in the urinary tract and prevent further bleeding. It is important to note that Prednisolone should not be used in all cases of hemophilia, but specifically in cases of spontaneous hematuria.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 31, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Drbhavesh
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