Pediatrics - 30 Random Questions

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| By Kar
Kar, Assistant Professor (Biochemistry)
Karthikeyan Pethusamy is an assistant professor in the Department of Biochemistry at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi
Quizzes Created: 33 | Total Attempts: 45,724
Questions: 30 | Attempts: 1,877

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Pediatrics - 30 Random Questions - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Growth hormone plays an important role in fetal growth.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Growth hormone does play an important role in fetal growth, so the correct answer should be True.

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  • 2. 

    StAR protein is 

    • A.

      Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein

    • B.

      Steroidogenic activated regulatory protein

    • C.

      Steroid activated regulatory protein

    • D.

      Steroid activating regulatory protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein
    Explanation
    StAR protein, also known as Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein, is involved in the transport of cholesterol into the mitochondria of steroidogenic cells, where it is converted into steroid hormones. This protein plays a crucial role in regulating steroid hormone synthesis, particularly in the adrenal glands and gonads. Therefore, the correct answer is Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein.

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  • 3. 

    Which is NOT seen in Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome ?

    • A.

      Hemihypertrophy, Nevus flammeus

    • B.

      Neonatal hypoglycemia, Abdominal wall defects

    • C.

      Chance of Wilms' tumor & hepatoblastoma

    • D.

      Hypoinsulinism

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypoinsulinism
    Explanation
    Hyperinsulinism --> anabolic effects

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  • 4. 

    NOT true about Rett syndrome

    • A.

      Mutated MECP2 gene on X chromosome

    • B.

      Exclusively affects girls

    • C.

      Disorder of white matter of the brain

    • D.

      Male fetus with this disorder mostly die in utero.

    Correct Answer
    C. Disorder of white matter of the brain
    Explanation
    disorder of grey matter of the brain

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is a prototype progeria sndrome ?

    • A.

      Hutchinson–Gilford syndrome

    • B.

      Werner's syndrome

    • C.

      Cockayne's syndrome

    • D.

      Xeroderma pigmentosum

    Correct Answer
    A. Hutchinson–Gilford syndrome
    Explanation
    Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome is a prototype progeria syndrome characterized by premature aging and rapid decline in health. It is a rare genetic disorder that affects children, causing them to age rapidly, leading to various health complications and a shortened lifespan. This syndrome is caused by a mutation in the LMNA gene, which is responsible for producing a protein that helps maintain the structure of the nucleus in cells. The premature aging symptoms include hair loss, wrinkled skin, joint stiffness, cardiovascular problems, and a higher risk of developing cancer. Werner's syndrome, Cockayne's syndrome, and Xeroderma pigmentosum are also genetic disorders but are not considered prototype progeria syndromes.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is known as adult progeria ?

    • A.

      Hutchinson–Gilford syndrome

    • B.

      Werner's syndrome

    • C.

      Cockayne's syndrome

    • D.

      Xeroderma pigmentosum

    Correct Answer
    B. Werner's syndrome
    Explanation
    Werner's syndrome is known as adult progeria because it is a rare genetic disorder that causes premature aging in individuals. It typically begins in adolescence or early adulthood and is characterized by the appearance of aging-related symptoms such as gray hair, wrinkled skin, and age-related diseases like cataracts and heart disease. This condition is caused by mutations in the WRN gene, which is involved in DNA repair and maintenance. Unlike other progeria syndromes, Werner's syndrome does not affect intellectual development.

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  • 7. 

    Which mineral potentiates the action of insulin ?

    • A.

      Zinc

    • B.

      Chromium

    • C.

      Selenium

    • D.

      Molybdinum

    Correct Answer
    B. Chromium
    Explanation
    zinc is for secretion.

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  • 8. 

    Cockayne syndrome is associated with hearing loss

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cockayne syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body, including the ears. Individuals with Cockayne syndrome often experience progressive hearing loss, which can range from mild to severe. This is due to the degeneration of the cochlea, the part of the inner ear responsible for hearing. Therefore, it is correct to say that Cockayne syndrome is associated with hearing loss.

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  • 9. 

    FALSE regarding Möbius syndrome

    • A.

      Use of misoprostal during pregnancy increases the risk

    • B.

      Complete facial paralysis

    • C.

      Strabismus

    • D.

      Children rarely survive to reach adulthood

    Correct Answer
    D. Children rarely survive to reach adulthood
    Explanation
    it won't affect the quantity of life.

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  • 10. 

    Only males are affected by Noonan syndrome

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    male turner's syndrome is a misnomer !

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  • 11. 

    Autosomal recessive inheritance is seen in all of the following except

    • A.

      Carpenter syndrome

    • B.

      Nail–patella syndrome

    • C.

      Laurence–Moon syndrome

    • D.

      Cockayne syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Nail–patella syndrome
    Explanation
    Autosomal recessive inheritance means that both copies of a gene must be mutated in order for a person to develop the associated condition. In Nail-patella syndrome, the inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant, not recessive. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for the condition to be present. Therefore, Nail-patella syndrome does not fit the criteria for autosomal recessive inheritance.

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  • 12. 

    CHEOPS pain scale for infants does not include

    • A.

      Cry

    • B.

      Facial

    • C.

      Torso

    • D.

      Oxygen saturation

    Correct Answer
    D. Oxygen saturation
    Explanation
    The CHEOPS pain scale for infants is a tool used to assess pain in young children. It consists of various behavioral and physiological indicators of pain. The scale includes crying, facial expressions, and torso movements as observable signs of pain. However, it does not include oxygen saturation as a parameter for pain assessment. Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is not directly related to pain perception. Therefore, it is not included in the CHEOPS pain scale.

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  • 13. 

    Most common type of seizure in newborn is 

    • A.

      Tonic

    • B.

      Clonic

    • C.

      Myotonic

    • D.

      Subtle

    Correct Answer
    D. Subtle
    Explanation
    Experienced doctors/nurses only can find out subtle s

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  • 14. 

    Treatment of nocturnal enuresis with least chance of relapse is

    • A.

      Imipramine

    • B.

      Bed alarm

    • C.

      Oxybutynin

    • D.

      Desmopressin

    Correct Answer
    B. Bed alarm
    Explanation
    A bed alarm is the most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis with the least chance of relapse. This device consists of a sensor that detects moisture and triggers an alarm, waking the individual when they start to wet the bed. By waking the person up, the bed alarm helps to condition their brain to recognize the need to wake up and use the bathroom during the night. This behavioral intervention is highly effective in treating bedwetting and has a lower chance of relapse compared to other treatments like medication (Imipramine, Oxybutynin, Desmopressin) which may have side effects or require continued use.

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  • 15. 

    Prodormal stage of measles is NOT infectious

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement that the prodromal stage of measles is not infectious is false. The prodromal stage is the initial stage of the disease where symptoms such as fever, cough, runny nose, and red eyes appear. During this stage, the infected person is highly contagious and can easily spread the virus to others through respiratory droplets. It is important to take precautions and isolate individuals in the prodromal stage to prevent the spread of measles.

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  • 16. 

    Lymph node biopsy is diagnostic in kawasaki disease.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Lymph node biopsy is not a diagnostic test for Kawasaki disease. The diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is usually based on clinical criteria, such as the presence of fever, rash, conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and mouth, swollen hands and feet, and other characteristic symptoms. Laboratory tests, such as blood tests and echocardiograms, are also used to support the diagnosis. Lymph node biopsy may be performed in some cases to help rule out other possible causes of the symptoms, but it is not considered a definitive diagnostic test for Kawasaki disease.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following occurs first in girls during puberty ?

    • A.

      Thelarche

    • B.

      Pubarche

    • C.

      Menarche

    • D.

      Adrenarche

    Correct Answer
    A. Thelarche
    Explanation
    Thelarche refers to the development of breast buds in girls, which is one of the first signs of puberty. This occurs before the other options mentioned. Pubarche refers to the development of pubic hair, menarche refers to the onset of menstruation, and adrenarche refers to the maturation of the adrenal glands. These typically occur after thelarche in the sequence of pubertal development.

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  • 18. 

    Prebiotics are used in management of Necrotising enterocolitis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Prebiotics are indeed used in the management of Necrotising enterocolitis (NEC). NEC is a serious gastrointestinal disease that primarily affects premature infants. Prebiotics, such as human milk oligosaccharides (HMOs), help promote the growth of beneficial gut bacteria and improve gut health. They have been shown to reduce the risk and severity of NEC in preterm infants. Therefore, the statement "Prebiotics are used in management of Necrotising enterocolitis" is true.

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  • 19. 

    Initial Drug Of Choice for Neonatal Seizure is

    • A.

      Diazepam

    • B.

      Phenytoin

    • C.

      Phenobarbitone

    • D.

      Sodium Valproate

    Correct Answer
    C. Phenobarbitone
    Explanation
    Phenobarbitone is the initial drug of choice for neonatal seizures because it has been proven to be effective and safe in treating seizures in newborns. It has a long half-life, allowing for sustained seizure control, and it is well-tolerated with minimal side effects. Additionally, phenobarbitone is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and reach therapeutic levels in the brain, making it an ideal option for treating neonatal seizures.

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  • 20. 

    Nadas' criteria is used in

    • A.

      Children with Dehydration

    • B.

      Children with Malnutrition

    • C.

      Children with Heart Disease

    • D.

      Children with Cerebral Palsy

    Correct Answer
    C. Children with Heart Disease
    Explanation
    http://www.usmleforum.com/files/forum/2007/2/162199.php

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  • 21. 

    Infetive endocarditis is not common in

    • A.

      ASD

    • B.

      VSD

    • C.

      PDA

    • D.

      TOF

    Correct Answer
    A. ASD
    Explanation
    Infective endocarditis is not common in ASD (Atrial Septal Defect) because ASD is a congenital heart defect that involves a hole in the wall between the heart's upper chambers. This condition does not typically cause turbulent blood flow or damage to the heart valves, which are the main factors that increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis.

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  • 22. 

    Most common bladder tumor in children is

    • A.

      Transitional Cell Carcinoma

    • B.

      Squamous Cell Carcinoma

    • C.

      Haemangioma

    • D.

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
    Explanation
    Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common bladder tumor in children. This type of tumor arises from the cells that normally develop into skeletal muscles. It is a highly malignant tumor that can occur in various parts of the body, including the bladder. Rhabdomyosarcoma in the bladder is more common in children than in adults and often presents with symptoms such as blood in the urine, urinary frequency, and pain. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial for managing this aggressive tumor and improving patient outcomes.

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  • 23. 

    Most common intra-adbominal tumour in neonate is

    • A.

      Wilms tumor

    • B.

      Neuroblastoma

    • C.

      Hydronephrosis

    • D.

      Bladder neoplasm

    Correct Answer
    B. Neuroblastoma
    Explanation
    Neuroblastoma is the most common intra-abdominal tumor in neonates. It is a type of cancer that develops in immature nerve cells called neuroblasts. It typically originates in the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys, but can also occur in other areas of the abdomen. Neuroblastoma is most commonly diagnosed in infants and young children, and it can cause a variety of symptoms such as abdominal swelling, weight loss, and bone pain. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with neuroblastoma.

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  • 24. 

    Posterior iliac horns are seen in

    • A.

      Crouzan Syndrome

    • B.

      Nail Patella Syndrome

    • C.

      Pierre Robbins Syndrome

    • D.

      Fishers Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Nail Patella Syndrome
    Explanation
    Posterior iliac horns are bony projections that can be seen on the posterior aspect of the ilium bone in the pelvis. These horns are a characteristic feature of Nail Patella Syndrome, also known as hereditary osteo-onychodysplasia. Nail Patella Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the development of nails, kneecaps, and other skeletal structures. The presence of posterior iliac horns is a diagnostic feature of this syndrome, along with other symptoms such as abnormal nails, absent or underdeveloped kneecaps, and skeletal abnormalities.

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  • 25. 

    Brachycephaly is due to premature fusion of 

    • A.

      Coronal Sutures

    • B.

      Lambdoid Sutures

    • C.

      Sagittal Sutures

    • D.

      Parietal Sutures

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronal Sutures
    Explanation
    Brachycephaly is a condition characterized by a short and wide head shape. It is caused by the premature fusion of the coronal sutures, which are the fibrous joints that connect the frontal and parietal bones of the skull. When these sutures fuse too early, it restricts the growth of the skull in the front to back direction, resulting in a flattened and wider head shape. The premature fusion of other sutures mentioned in the options, such as the lambdoid, sagittal, or parietal sutures, do not lead to brachycephaly.

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  • 26. 

    Neonatal Reflex which never reappears in later life is

    • A.

      Moros

    • B.

      Glabellar

    • C.

      Snout

    • D.

      Grasp

    Correct Answer
    A. Moros
    Explanation
    The Moro reflex is a neonatal reflex that occurs when a baby is startled by a sudden movement or noise. The reflex is characterized by the baby extending their arms and legs outwards and then bringing them back in towards their body. This reflex is present in newborns but typically disappears within the first few months of life. The Glabellar, Snout, and Grasp reflexes are also present in newborns but may reappear in certain neurological conditions or as a result of brain damage.

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  • 27. 

    Bag & Mask ventillation is contraindicated in

    • A.

      Cleft Lip

    • B.

      Diaphragmatic Hernia

    • C.

      Meconium Aspiration

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Diaphragmatic Hernia
    Explanation
    Bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated in diaphragmatic hernia because it can worsen the condition. Diaphragmatic hernia is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, compressing the lungs and limiting their ability to expand. Bag and mask ventilation can increase the pressure in the chest, further compressing the lungs and potentially causing more harm. Therefore, alternative methods of ventilation should be used in cases of diaphragmatic hernia.

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  • 28. 

    Blalock–Taussig shunt is a curative treatment for TOF.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is palliative only.

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  • 29. 

    Treatment of choice for mongolian spot in a newborn is

    • A.

      Laser therapy

    • B.

      Skin graft

    • C.

      Topical steroids

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None" because mongolian spots are benign birthmarks that do not require any treatment. They are common in newborns with darker skin tones and usually fade away on their own within a few years. Laser therapy, skin graft, and topical steroids are not necessary or effective in treating mongolian spots.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following immunoglobulin is maximum in breast milk ?

    • A.

      Ig A

    • B.

      Ig E

    • C.

      Ig G

    • D.

      Ig M

    Correct Answer
    A. Ig A
    Explanation
    IgA is the correct answer because it is the immunoglobulin that is most abundant in breast milk. IgA plays a crucial role in providing immune protection to infants, especially in the gastrointestinal tract. It helps prevent infections by neutralizing pathogens and toxins, and also supports the development of a healthy gut microbiome.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 19, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kar

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