Pediatrics - 30 Random Questions

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| By Kar
Kar, Assistant Professor (Biochemistry)
Karthikeyan Pethusamy is an assistant professor in the Department of Biochemistry at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi
Quizzes Created: 33 | Total Attempts: 50,711
| Attempts: 1,936 | Questions: 30
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1. Prodormal stage of measles is NOT infectious

Explanation

The statement that the prodromal stage of measles is not infectious is false. The prodromal stage is the initial stage of the disease where symptoms such as fever, cough, runny nose, and red eyes appear. During this stage, the infected person is highly contagious and can easily spread the virus to others through respiratory droplets. It is important to take precautions and isolate individuals in the prodromal stage to prevent the spread of measles.

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Pediatrics - 30 Random Questions - Quiz

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2. Cockayne syndrome is associated with hearing loss

Explanation

Cockayne syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body, including the ears. Individuals with Cockayne syndrome often experience progressive hearing loss, which can range from mild to severe. This is due to the degeneration of the cochlea, the part of the inner ear responsible for hearing. Therefore, it is correct to say that Cockayne syndrome is associated with hearing loss.

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3. Treatment of choice for mongolian spot in a newborn is

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because mongolian spots are benign birthmarks that do not require any treatment. They are common in newborns with darker skin tones and usually fade away on their own within a few years. Laser therapy, skin graft, and topical steroids are not necessary or effective in treating mongolian spots.

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4. Lymph node biopsy is diagnostic in kawasaki disease.

Explanation

Lymph node biopsy is not a diagnostic test for Kawasaki disease. The diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is usually based on clinical criteria, such as the presence of fever, rash, conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and mouth, swollen hands and feet, and other characteristic symptoms. Laboratory tests, such as blood tests and echocardiograms, are also used to support the diagnosis. Lymph node biopsy may be performed in some cases to help rule out other possible causes of the symptoms, but it is not considered a definitive diagnostic test for Kawasaki disease.

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5. CHEOPS pain scale for infants does not include

Explanation

The CHEOPS pain scale for infants is a tool used to assess pain in young children. It consists of various behavioral and physiological indicators of pain. The scale includes crying, facial expressions, and torso movements as observable signs of pain. However, it does not include oxygen saturation as a parameter for pain assessment. Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is not directly related to pain perception. Therefore, it is not included in the CHEOPS pain scale.

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6. Which of the following immunoglobulin is maximum in breast milk ?

Explanation

IgA is the correct answer because it is the immunoglobulin that is most abundant in breast milk. IgA plays a crucial role in providing immune protection to infants, especially in the gastrointestinal tract. It helps prevent infections by neutralizing pathogens and toxins, and also supports the development of a healthy gut microbiome.

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7. Neonatal Reflex which never reappears in later life is

Explanation

The Moro reflex is a neonatal reflex that occurs when a baby is startled by a sudden movement or noise. The reflex is characterized by the baby extending their arms and legs outwards and then bringing them back in towards their body. This reflex is present in newborns but typically disappears within the first few months of life. The Glabellar, Snout, and Grasp reflexes are also present in newborns but may reappear in certain neurological conditions or as a result of brain damage.

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8. Only males are affected by Noonan syndrome

Explanation

male turner's syndrome is a misnomer !

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9. Prebiotics are used in management of Necrotising enterocolitis.

Explanation

Prebiotics are indeed used in the management of Necrotising enterocolitis (NEC). NEC is a serious gastrointestinal disease that primarily affects premature infants. Prebiotics, such as human milk oligosaccharides (HMOs), help promote the growth of beneficial gut bacteria and improve gut health. They have been shown to reduce the risk and severity of NEC in preterm infants. Therefore, the statement "Prebiotics are used in management of Necrotising enterocolitis" is true.

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10. Which of the following occurs first in girls during puberty ?

Explanation

Thelarche refers to the development of breast buds in girls, which is one of the first signs of puberty. This occurs before the other options mentioned. Pubarche refers to the development of pubic hair, menarche refers to the onset of menstruation, and adrenarche refers to the maturation of the adrenal glands. These typically occur after thelarche in the sequence of pubertal development.

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11. Growth hormone plays an important role in fetal growth.

Explanation

Growth hormone does play an important role in fetal growth, so the correct answer should be True.

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12. Which is NOT seen in Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome ?

Explanation

Hyperinsulinism --> anabolic effects

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13. Bag & Mask ventillation is contraindicated in

Explanation

Bag and mask ventilation is contraindicated in diaphragmatic hernia because it can worsen the condition. Diaphragmatic hernia is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, compressing the lungs and limiting their ability to expand. Bag and mask ventilation can increase the pressure in the chest, further compressing the lungs and potentially causing more harm. Therefore, alternative methods of ventilation should be used in cases of diaphragmatic hernia.

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14. Most common type of seizure in newborn is 

Explanation

Experienced doctors/nurses only can find out subtle s

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15. Initial Drug Of Choice for Neonatal Seizure is

Explanation

Phenobarbitone is the initial drug of choice for neonatal seizures because it has been proven to be effective and safe in treating seizures in newborns. It has a long half-life, allowing for sustained seizure control, and it is well-tolerated with minimal side effects. Additionally, phenobarbitone is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and reach therapeutic levels in the brain, making it an ideal option for treating neonatal seizures.

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16. FALSE regarding Möbius syndrome

Explanation

it won't affect the quantity of life.

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17. Most common intra-adbominal tumour in neonate is

Explanation

Neuroblastoma is the most common intra-abdominal tumor in neonates. It is a type of cancer that develops in immature nerve cells called neuroblasts. It typically originates in the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys, but can also occur in other areas of the abdomen. Neuroblastoma is most commonly diagnosed in infants and young children, and it can cause a variety of symptoms such as abdominal swelling, weight loss, and bone pain. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with neuroblastoma.

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18. Treatment of nocturnal enuresis with least chance of relapse is

Explanation

A bed alarm is the most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis with the least chance of relapse. This device consists of a sensor that detects moisture and triggers an alarm, waking the individual when they start to wet the bed. By waking the person up, the bed alarm helps to condition their brain to recognize the need to wake up and use the bathroom during the night. This behavioral intervention is highly effective in treating bedwetting and has a lower chance of relapse compared to other treatments like medication (Imipramine, Oxybutynin, Desmopressin) which may have side effects or require continued use.

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19. Nadas' criteria is used in
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20. Blalock–Taussig shunt is a curative treatment for TOF.

Explanation

It is palliative only.

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21. Brachycephaly is due to premature fusion of 

Explanation

Brachycephaly is a condition characterized by a short and wide head shape. It is caused by the premature fusion of the coronal sutures, which are the fibrous joints that connect the frontal and parietal bones of the skull. When these sutures fuse too early, it restricts the growth of the skull in the front to back direction, resulting in a flattened and wider head shape. The premature fusion of other sutures mentioned in the options, such as the lambdoid, sagittal, or parietal sutures, do not lead to brachycephaly.

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22. Which of the following is known as adult progeria ?

Explanation

Werner's syndrome is known as adult progeria because it is a rare genetic disorder that causes premature aging in individuals. It typically begins in adolescence or early adulthood and is characterized by the appearance of aging-related symptoms such as gray hair, wrinkled skin, and age-related diseases like cataracts and heart disease. This condition is caused by mutations in the WRN gene, which is involved in DNA repair and maintenance. Unlike other progeria syndromes, Werner's syndrome does not affect intellectual development.

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23. Which of the following is a prototype progeria sndrome ?

Explanation

Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome is a prototype progeria syndrome characterized by premature aging and rapid decline in health. It is a rare genetic disorder that affects children, causing them to age rapidly, leading to various health complications and a shortened lifespan. This syndrome is caused by a mutation in the LMNA gene, which is responsible for producing a protein that helps maintain the structure of the nucleus in cells. The premature aging symptoms include hair loss, wrinkled skin, joint stiffness, cardiovascular problems, and a higher risk of developing cancer. Werner's syndrome, Cockayne's syndrome, and Xeroderma pigmentosum are also genetic disorders but are not considered prototype progeria syndromes.

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24. Infetive endocarditis is not common in

Explanation

Infective endocarditis is not common in ASD (Atrial Septal Defect) because ASD is a congenital heart defect that involves a hole in the wall between the heart's upper chambers. This condition does not typically cause turbulent blood flow or damage to the heart valves, which are the main factors that increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis.

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25. NOT true about Rett syndrome

Explanation

disorder of grey matter of the brain

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26. Most common bladder tumor in children is

Explanation

Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common bladder tumor in children. This type of tumor arises from the cells that normally develop into skeletal muscles. It is a highly malignant tumor that can occur in various parts of the body, including the bladder. Rhabdomyosarcoma in the bladder is more common in children than in adults and often presents with symptoms such as blood in the urine, urinary frequency, and pain. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial for managing this aggressive tumor and improving patient outcomes.

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27. Autosomal recessive inheritance is seen in all of the following except

Explanation

Autosomal recessive inheritance means that both copies of a gene must be mutated in order for a person to develop the associated condition. In Nail-patella syndrome, the inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant, not recessive. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for the condition to be present. Therefore, Nail-patella syndrome does not fit the criteria for autosomal recessive inheritance.

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28. Posterior iliac horns are seen in

Explanation

Posterior iliac horns are bony projections that can be seen on the posterior aspect of the ilium bone in the pelvis. These horns are a characteristic feature of Nail Patella Syndrome, also known as hereditary osteo-onychodysplasia. Nail Patella Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the development of nails, kneecaps, and other skeletal structures. The presence of posterior iliac horns is a diagnostic feature of this syndrome, along with other symptoms such as abnormal nails, absent or underdeveloped kneecaps, and skeletal abnormalities.

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29. Which mineral potentiates the action of insulin ?

Explanation

zinc is for secretion.

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30. StAR protein is 

Explanation

StAR protein, also known as Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein, is involved in the transport of cholesterol into the mitochondria of steroidogenic cells, where it is converted into steroid hormones. This protein plays a crucial role in regulating steroid hormone synthesis, particularly in the adrenal glands and gonads. Therefore, the correct answer is Steroidogenic acute regulatory protein.

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Prodormal stage of measles is NOT infectious
Cockayne syndrome is associated with hearing loss
Treatment of choice for mongolian spot in a newborn is
Lymph node biopsy is diagnostic in kawasaki disease.
CHEOPS pain scale for infants does not include
Which of the following immunoglobulin is maximum in breast milk ?
Neonatal Reflex which never reappears in later life is
Only males are affected by Noonan syndrome
Prebiotics are used in management of Necrotising enterocolitis.
Which of the following occurs first in girls during puberty ?
Growth hormone plays an important role in fetal growth.
Which is NOT seen in Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome ?
Bag & Mask ventillation is contraindicated in
Most common type of seizure in newborn is 
Initial Drug Of Choice for Neonatal Seizure is
FALSE regarding Möbius syndrome
Most common intra-adbominal tumour in neonate is
Treatment of nocturnal enuresis with least chance of relapse is
Nadas' criteria is used in
Blalock–Taussig shunt is a curative treatment for TOF.
Brachycephaly is due to premature fusion of 
Which of the following is known as adult progeria ?
Which of the following is a prototype progeria sndrome ?
Infetive endocarditis is not common in
NOT true about Rett syndrome
Most common bladder tumor in children is
Autosomal recessive inheritance is seen in all of the following except
Posterior iliac horns are seen in
Which mineral potentiates the action of insulin ?
StAR protein is 
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