3DX5X Vol 1 CDC

100 Questions | By Youdontlovecdc | Last updated: Feb 3, 2015 | Total Attempts: 113

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In order of UREs

Questions and Answers

1.

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted) ?
- A.
  
  Core task
- B.
  
  Duty competency
- C.
  
  Core competency
- D.
  
  Duty position task
2.

Which enlisted training element is defined as an intergrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
  
  Core task
- B.
  
  Duty competency
- C.
  
  Core competency
- D.
  
  Duty position task
3.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
- A.
  
  Cyber Surety
- B.
  
  Client Systems
- C.
  
  Cyber Transport
- D.
  
  Cyber Systems Operations
4.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
- A.
  
  Cyber Surety
- B.
  
  Client Systems
- C.
  
  Cyber Transport
- D.
  
  Cyber Systems Operations
5.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
6.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
7.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
8.

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
9.

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
10.

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test(SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
11.

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace NCO?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
12.

What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Modify training
- B.
  
  Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- C.
  
  Conduct climate training surveys
- D.
  
  Review the occupational analysis report
13.

Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"
- A.
  
  91-46
- B.
  
  91-50
- C.
  
  91-64
- D.
  
  91-68
14.

Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable , Antenna and Communications - Electronics Systems?"
- A.
  
  91-46
- B.
  
  91-50
- C.
  
  91-64
- D.
  
  91-68
15.

Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
- A.
  
  91-46
- B.
  
  91-50
- C.
  
  91-64
- D.
  
  91-68
16.

From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- A.
  
  Sunlight
- B.
  
  Microwaves
- C.
  
  Ionizing radiation
- D.
  
  Nonionizing radiation
17.

Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A.
  
  Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
  
  Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
  
  Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
- D.
  
  Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
18.

Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
- A.
  
  Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
  
  Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
  
  Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
- D.
  
  Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
19.

Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
- A.
  
  Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
  
  Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
  
  Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
- D.
  
  Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
20.

Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
- A.
  
  Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems
- B.
  
  Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data
- C.
  
  Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.
- D.
  
  Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they're from.
21.

Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
- A.
  
  Joint Operability network
- B.
  
  Tactical data links network
- C.
  
  Strategic data control network
- D.
  
  Supervisory control and data acuisition
22.

Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
- A.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC)
- B.
  
  Network Control Center (NCC)
- C.
  
  Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
- D.
  
  Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)
23.

Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
- A.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC)
- B.
  
  Network Control Center (NCC)
- C.
  
  Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
- D.
  
  Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)
24.

Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- C.
  
  Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
- D.
  
  Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
25.

Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF) ?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- C.
  
  Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
- D.
  
  Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)