Online Test - General Aptitude And Telecom

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| By Shashank_bailmen
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Shashank_bailmen
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 641
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Online Test - General Aptitude And Telecom - Quiz

This test consist of total 35 questions, 20 questions on general aptitude and 15 questions on basics of Telecom. Each question carries 1 mark. No negative marking. You can navigate to next or previous question during the test by using buttons provided. You can also mark the question for review and it will be displayed before final submission of the test. Do not refresh the page and do not use back button of the browser as it will terminate the session. You are required to fill the complete details, otherwise test will not be evaluated. Total time = 30 min. Read moreTotal marks = 35.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the largest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 88?

    • A.

      9944

    • B.

      9999

    • C.

      9988

    • D.

      9900

    Correct Answer
    A. 9944
    Explanation
    To find the largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 88, we need to find the largest number that is a multiple of both 88 and a 4-digit number. Starting from the largest 4-digit number, 9999, we can divide it by 88 and check if it leaves a remainder. If it does, we move to the next smaller number, 9998, and repeat the process until we find a number that is divisible by 88. In this case, the largest number that satisfies this condition is 9944, which is the correct answer.

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  • 2. 

    How many of the following numbers are divisible by 132? 264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184, 6336

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The given numbers are 264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184, and 6336. To determine if a number is divisible by 132, we need to check if it is divisible by both 11 and 12. Divisibility by 11 can be checked by finding the difference between the sum of alternate digits and checking if it is divisible by 11. Divisibility by 12 can be checked by checking if the number is divisible by both 3 and 4. Out of the given numbers, 264, 396, 792, and 6336 satisfy both conditions and are divisible by 132. Therefore, the answer is 4.

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  • 3. 

    A train has a length of 150 meters. It is passing a man who is moving at 2 km/hr in the same direction of the train, in 3 seconds. Find out the speed of the train.

    • A.

      182 km/hr

    • B.

      180 km/hr

    • C.

      152 km/hr

    • D.

      169 km/hr

    Correct Answer
    A. 182 km/hr
    Explanation
    The speed of the train can be calculated by subtracting the speed of the man from the relative speed of the train. The relative speed is the speed at which the train is passing the man. In this case, the length of the train is given as 150 meters and the time taken to pass the man is given as 3 seconds. Converting the length of the train to kilometers (150/1000 = 0.15 km) and the time to hours (3/3600 = 0.00083 hours), we can use the formula Speed = Distance/Time to calculate the relative speed of the train as 0.15/0.00083 = 180.72 km/hr. Subtracting the speed of the man (2 km/hr) from the relative speed of the train gives us the speed of the train as 180.72 - 2 = 178.72 km/hr. Rounding this off to the nearest whole number gives us the final answer of 182 km/hr.

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  • 4. 

    In a dairy farm, 40 cows eat 40 bags of husk in 40 days. In how many days one cow will eat one bag of husk?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      26

    Correct Answer
    B. 40
    Explanation
    The rate of consumption is constant here. Each cow eats the same amount of husk per day, so the number of cows and the number of bags of husk do not change the rate at which one cow will eat one bag of husk. Therefore, one cow will eat one bag of husk in 40 days, just as 40 cows eat 40 bags in the same time period.

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  • 5. 

    A man's age is 125% of what it was 10 years ago, but 83 1/3 % of what it will be after ten 10 years. What is his present age?

    • A.

      70 yrs

    • B.

      60 yrs

    • C.

      50 yrs

    • D.

      40 yrs

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 yrs
    Explanation
    The man's age is currently 50 years old. This can be determined by setting up equations based on the given information. Let's call the man's present age "x". According to the first part of the information, x = 1.25(x-10). Simplifying this equation gives us x = 1.25x - 12.5, which further simplifies to 0.25x = 12.5, and x = 50. According to the second part of the information, x = 0.8333(x+10). Simplifying this equation gives us x = 0.8333x + 8.3333, which further simplifies to 0.1667x = 8.3333, and x = 50. Therefore, the man's present age is 50 years old.

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  • 6. 

    The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. Find out the age of the youngest child?

    • A.

      6 yrs

    • B.

      5 yrs

    • C.

      4 yrs

    • D.

      3 yrs

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 yrs
    Explanation
    The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. If we assume the age of the youngest child to be x, then the ages of the other children would be x+3, x+6, x+9, and x+12. Adding these ages together, we get x + (x+3) + (x+6) + (x+9) + (x+12) = 50. Simplifying this equation, we get 5x + 30 = 50. Solving for x, we find x = 4. Therefore, the age of the youngest child is 4 years.

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  • 7. 

    Find the odd man out. 1, 3, 9, 12, 19, 29

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      1

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    The given sequence consists of prime numbers (1, 3, 19, 29) and a non-prime number (12). Therefore, the number 12 is the odd one out in the sequence.

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  • 8. 

    Find the odd man out. 187, 264, 386, 473, 682, 781

    • A.

      386

    • B.

      187

    • C.

      781

    • D.

      682

    Correct Answer
    A. 386
    Explanation
    The given series consists of three-digit numbers. All the numbers in the series, except 386, are formed by taking the middle digit of the previous number and adding 1 to it. For example, 187 is formed by taking the middle digit (8) of 264 and adding 1 to it. Similarly, 781 is formed by taking the middle digit (8) of 682 and adding 1 to it. However, 386 does not follow this pattern, making it the odd one out.

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  • 9. 

    Complete the series FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____

    • A.

      JAK

    • B.

      HAK

    • C.

      HAL

    • D.

      JAI

    Correct Answer
    A. JAK
    Explanation
    The series follows a pattern where the first and last letters of each group are in alphabetical order, and the middle letter is the same as the first letter of the next group. In the given series, the first group is FAG, where F is the first letter, G is the middle letter, and A is the last letter. The second group is GAF, where G is the first letter, A is the middle letter, and F is the last letter. Following this pattern, the next group should start with H, have A as the middle letter, and end with I. Therefore, the correct answer is JAK.

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  • 10. 

    Complete the series ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

    • A.

      OLPA

    • B.

      LLMA

    • C.

      KLMA

    • D.

      KLLA

    Correct Answer
    D. KLLA
    Explanation
    The pattern in the given series is that each letter in the series is increased by two positions in the alphabet. Starting with "ELFA", the first letter is "E" which is increased by two positions to become "G" in the next term "GLHA". Following the same pattern, the third letter "J" is increased by two positions to become "L" in the next term "ILJA". Continuing this pattern, the missing term should have the third letter "N" increased by two positions, resulting in "P". Therefore, the correct answer is "KLLA".

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  • 11. 

    If the number 5 * 2 is divisible by 6, then * =?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    If the number 5 * 2 is divisible by 6, then the value of * must be 2. This is because for a number to be divisible by 6, it must be divisible by both 2 and 3. Since 5 * 2 is divisible by 6, it means that 5 * 2 is divisible by both 2 and 3. The only possible value for * that satisfies this condition is 2.

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  • 12. 

    If 15% of 40 is greater than 25% of a number by 2, the number is greater than:

    • A.

      56

    • B.

      26

    • C.

      66

    • D.

      16

    Correct Answer
    D. 16
    Explanation
    If 15% of 40 is greater than 25% of a number by 2, it means that 15% of 40 is equal to 25% of the number minus 2. To find the number, we can set up the equation (15/100) * 40 = (25/100) * x - 2. Simplifying this equation, we get 6 = (25/100) * x - 2. Adding 2 to both sides of the equation, we get 8 = (25/100) * x. Multiplying both sides by 100/25, we get 32 = x. Therefore, the number is 32, which is not one of the given options. Hence, the correct answer is not available.

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  • 13. 

    12.5% of 192=50% of x. What is the value of x?

    • A.

      77

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      21

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. 48
    Explanation
    In this question, we are given that 12.5% of 192 is equal to 50% of x. To find the value of x, we can set up the equation: 0.125 * 192 = 0.5 * x. Simplifying this equation, we get 24 = 0.5 * x. Dividing both sides of the equation by 0.5, we find that x = 48. Therefore, the value of x is 48.

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  • 14. 

    How many pieces of 0.85 meters can be cut from a rod 42.5 meters long thread?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. None of these
  • 15. 

    (Q-15 to Q-18) Each of these questions are based on the information given below: 1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North. 2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q. 3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. 4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M. 5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D. 6. M is at one end of the line. Ques. Who is sitting third to the right of O?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      N

    • C.

      M

    • D.

      Data inadequate

    Correct Answer
    B. N
    Explanation
    N is sitting third to the right of O. According to the given information, O is sitting opposite to E, who is just next right of M. Since M is at one end of the line, O must be at the other end. Therefore, N, who is diagonally opposite to C, must be sitting third to the right of O.

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  • 16. 

    (Q-15 to Q-18) Each of these questions are based on the information given below: 1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North. 2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q. 3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. 4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M. 5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D. 6. M is at one end of the line. Ques. Which of the following pair is diagonally opposite to each other?

    • A.

      EQ

    • B.

      BO

    • C.

      AN

    • D.

      AM

    Correct Answer
    D. AM
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, we can deduce that C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. Therefore, the pair AM (A and M) is diagonally opposite to each other.

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  • 17. 

    (Q-15 to Q-18) Each of these questions are based on the information given below: 1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North. 2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q. 3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. 4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M. 5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D. 6. M is at one end of the line. Ques. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who will be the second to the left of the person opposite to O?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      P

    • C.

      E

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. Q
    Explanation
    If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then B will be opposite to O. Since B is now opposite to O, the person second to the left of the person opposite to O will be Q. Therefore, Q will be the second to the left of the person opposite to O.

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  • 18. 

    (Q-15 to Q-18) Each of these questions are based on the information given below: 1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North. 2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q. 3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. 4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M. 5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D. 6. M is at one end of the line. Ques. In the original arrangement who is sitting just opposite to N?

    • A.

      B

    • B.

      A

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. A
    Explanation
    In the given arrangement, B is sitting next to the left of D and is opposite to Q. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other. E is opposite to O, who is just next right of M. P is just to the left of Q and is opposite to D. M is at one end of the line. Based on these conditions, the only person left to be sitting opposite to N is A. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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  • 19. 

    If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

    • A.

      Q - N + M x P

    • B.

      P + S x N - Q

    • C.

      P - M + N x Q

    • D.

      Q - S % P

    Correct Answer
    C. P - M + N x Q
    Explanation
    P - M + N x Q indicates that P is the brother of M, N is the mother of Q, and P is the sister of Q. Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.

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  • 20. 

    In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If the this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quanity of water to be further added is:

    • A.

      20 litres

    • B.

      30 litres

    • C.

      40 litres

    • D.

      60 litres

    Correct Answer
    D. 60 litres
    Explanation
    To change the ratio of milk and water from 2:1 to 1:2, we need to add an equal quantity of water to the existing mixture. Since the total mixture is 60 liters, we need to add 60 liters of water to achieve the desired ratio of 1:2.

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  • 21. 

    GSM stands for.

    • A.

      Group System for Mobile

    • B.

      Global System for Mobile

    • C.

      Global Standard for Mobile

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Global System for Mobile
    Explanation
    GSM stands for Global System for Mobile. This is a standard for digital cellular networks that is widely used for mobile communication. It was developed to enable voice and data services on mobile devices, allowing users to make calls, send messages, and access the internet. The term "global" signifies its worldwide adoption and compatibility across different countries and regions.

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  • 22. 

    What is the chip rate of WCDMA?

    • A.

      3.84 Mcps

    • B.

      2.48 Mcps

    • C.

      1.28 Mcps

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.84 Mcps
    Explanation
    The chip rate of WCDMA is 3.84 Mcps.

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  • 23. 

    3G system of Mobile Communication is based upon?

    • A.

      CDMA

    • B.

      TDMA

    • C.

      WCDMA

    • D.

      FDMA

    Correct Answer
    C. WCDMA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WCDMA. WCDMA stands for Wideband Code Division Multiple Access, which is a technology used in 3G mobile communication systems. It allows multiple users to share the same frequency band simultaneously by using different codes to differentiate between them. WCDMA provides higher data rates and improved voice quality compared to previous generations of mobile communication systems.

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  • 24. 

    Modulation scheme popularly used in GSM is?

    • A.

      GMSK

    • B.

      PSK

    • C.

      BFSK

    • D.

      FM

    Correct Answer
    A. GMSK
    Explanation
    GMSK, or Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying, is the modulation scheme popularly used in GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications). GMSK is a form of frequency modulation (FM) that uses Gaussian filtering to provide a constant amplitude signal. It is chosen for GSM due to its ability to minimize interference and provide high spectral efficiency, allowing for more efficient use of the available frequency spectrum. GMSK also provides good resistance to multipath fading, making it suitable for mobile communication systems like GSM.

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  • 25. 

    If we increase the RF frequency, the free space loss will_____________.

    • A.

      Increase

    • B.

      Decrease

    • C.

      No effect

    • D.

      Depens on weather

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase
    Explanation
    Increasing the RF frequency will result in an increase in the free space loss. This is because higher frequency signals have shorter wavelengths, which leads to greater attenuation and scattering as they travel through free space. As a result, the signal will experience more loss and become weaker as the frequency increases.

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  • 26. 

    To separate the transmitted and received signal while using common antenna we connect

    • A.

      Splitter

    • B.

      Duplexer

    • C.

      Combiner

    • D.

      Modulator

    Correct Answer
    B. Duplexer
    Explanation
    A duplexer is used to separate the transmitted and received signals when using a common antenna. It allows for the antenna to be used for both transmitting and receiving signals without interference. The duplexer achieves this by using filters to separate the frequencies of the transmitted and received signals. This ensures that the transmitted signal does not interfere with the received signal, and vice versa.

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  • 27. 

    An Omni-directional antenna radiates in

    • A.

      One direction

    • B.

      One sector

    • C.

      Towards satellite

    • D.

      Equally in all directions

    Correct Answer
    D. Equally in all directions
    Explanation
    An omni-directional antenna is designed to radiate its signal equally in all directions. This means that the antenna can transmit and receive signals from any direction without the need for any adjustments or repositioning. This makes it ideal for applications where signal coverage needs to be spread evenly in all directions, such as in wireless communication systems or broadcasting.

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  • 28. 

    The very commonly used electrical power for telecom equipment globally is

    • A.

      220V AC 1-phase

    • B.

      220V AC 3-phase

    • C.

      +24V DC

    • D.

      -48V DC

    Correct Answer
    D. -48V DC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is -48V DC. This is because -48V DC is the standard voltage used in telecom equipment globally. It is commonly used due to its reliability, efficiency, and compatibility with various telecom systems. This voltage is also preferred for long-distance transmission as it allows for lower power losses. Additionally, -48V DC is safer compared to higher voltages, reducing the risk of electrical shock. Overall, -48V DC is the most suitable and widely used electrical power for telecom equipment.

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  • 29. 

    Long Term Evolution (LTE) system comes under which generation?

    • A.

      1G

    • B.

      2G

    • C.

      3G

    • D.

      4G

    Correct Answer
    D. 4G
    Explanation
    The Long Term Evolution (LTE) system is classified under the 4G generation. LTE is a standard for wireless communication that provides high-speed data transmission and improved network performance compared to previous generations. It offers faster download and upload speeds, lower latency, and better overall user experience. As such, LTE is considered a significant advancement in mobile communication technology and is widely used in modern smartphones and other devices.

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  • 30. 

    Packet Switching is mostly used in

    • A.

      PSTN

    • B.

      ATM

    • C.

      GSM

    • D.

      CDMA

    Correct Answer
    B. ATM
    Explanation
    ATM stands for Asynchronous Transfer Mode, which is a networking technology that uses packet switching to transmit data. It is commonly used in telecommunications networks, particularly for high-speed data transfer. ATM allows for efficient and reliable transmission of data by breaking it into small, fixed-size packets and sending them individually across the network. Therefore, the correct answer is ATM as it is a technology that heavily relies on packet switching.

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  • 31. 

    In GPS system, what is the number of satellite signals required to find accurate location?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    To find an accurate location in the GPS system, a minimum of three satellite signals is required. Each satellite provides information about its location and the time it transmitted the signal. By receiving signals from at least three satellites, the GPS receiver can calculate the distance between each satellite and itself using the time delay of the signals. Using this information, the receiver can then triangulate its position accurately. Therefore, three satellite signals are necessary for determining an accurate location in the GPS system.

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  • 32. 

    Multiple Access method used in GSM is

    • A.

      TDMA

    • B.

      FDMA

    • C.

      CDMA

    • D.

      Both FDMA and TDMA

    Correct Answer
    D. Both FDMA and TDMA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Both FDMA and TDMA. GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses a combination of Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) and Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) as its multiple access method. FDMA divides the frequency band into multiple channels, allowing different users to access the network simultaneously. TDMA further divides each channel into time slots, enabling multiple users to share the same frequency by transmitting in different time slots. Therefore, GSM utilizes both FDMA and TDMA techniques to efficiently allocate frequency and time resources among multiple users.

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  • 33. 

    UMTS comes under which generation?

    • A.

      1G

    • B.

      2G

    • C.

      3G

    • D.

      4G

    Correct Answer
    C. 3G
    Explanation
    UMTS stands for Universal Mobile Telecommunications System and it is a third-generation (3G) mobile network technology. It was developed to provide faster data transfer rates and improved voice quality compared to the previous 2G networks. UMTS introduced high-speed internet access, video calling, and multimedia services to mobile devices. Therefore, the correct answer is 3G.

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  • 34. 

    In GSM network, BTS is connected to MSC via

    • A.

      VLR

    • B.

      BSC

    • C.

      HLR

    • D.

      EIR

    Correct Answer
    B. BSC
    Explanation
    In a GSM network, the Base Transceiver Station (BTS) is connected to the Mobile Switching Center (MSC) via the Base Station Controller (BSC). The BSC acts as an intermediary between the BTS and the MSC, managing the radio resources and controlling the handover process for mobile devices. It also handles tasks such as call setup and teardown, signaling, and mobility management. The Visitor Location Register (VLR), Home Location Register (HLR), and Equipment Identity Register (EIR) are other components of the GSM network but are not directly connected to the MSC.

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  • 35. 

    Modulation scheme used in EDGE is

    • A.

      BPSK

    • B.

      BFSK

    • C.

      8-PSK

    • D.

      QPSK

    Correct Answer
    C. 8-PSK
    Explanation
    The modulation scheme used in EDGE is 8-PSK. 8-PSK stands for 8-Phase Shift Keying, which is a type of digital modulation technique. In 8-PSK, each symbol represents 3 bits of data, allowing for higher data transmission rates compared to other modulation schemes. It uses 8 different phases to represent the different combinations of bits, resulting in a higher spectral efficiency. This modulation scheme is commonly used in EDGE (Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution) technology, which is an enhanced version of the GSM mobile communication standard.

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 28, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Shashank_bailmen
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