Nursing Practice II: Community Health Nursing And Maternal-child care

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which of the following drugs is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

    • Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
    • Hydralazine (Apresoline)
    • Naloxone (Narcan)
    • Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
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About This Quiz

This quiz focuses on key principles and practices in community health nursing alongside care for mothers and children. It covers topics such as health promotion, disease prevention, and family-centered care in community settings. The quiz also explores prenatal, perinatal, and postnatal care, addressing common challenges and nursing interventions for mothers and infants.

Designed to reinforce practical knowledge and skills, it highlights the role of nurses in supporting the health of families and communities. Test your understanding of effective strategies to improve maternal and child health outcomes while delivering compassionate, culturally sensitive care in diverse populations.

Nursing Practice II: Community Health Nursing And Maternal-child care - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?

    • 3 seconds

    • 6 seconds

    • 9 seconds

    • 10 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 seconds
    Explanation
    Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds.

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  • 3. 

    A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal heart rate would be:

    • 80 to 100 beats/minute

    • 100 to 120 beats/minute

    • 120 to 160 beats/minute

    • 160 to 180 beats/minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 120 to 160 beats/minute
    Explanation
    A rate of 120 to 160 beats/minute in the fetal heart appropriate for filling the heart with blood and pumping it out to the system.

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  • 4. 

    When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a new mother, the nurse Jenny would include which information?

    • Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change

    • Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing

    • Keep the cord dry and open to air

    • Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep the cord dry and open to air
    Explanation
    Keeping the cord dry and open to air helps reduce infection and hastens drying. Infants aren’t given tub bath but are sponged off until the cord falls off. Petroleum jelly prevents the cord from drying and encourages infection. Peroxide could be painful and isn’t recommended.

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  • 5. 

    Gina is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will tell her to:

    • Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment.

    • Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy.

    • Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician.

    • Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
    Explanation
    If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he has to be referred urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with Oresol administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly.

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  • 6. 

    A pregnant woman accompanied by her husband, seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. She states that she's in labor and says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal care. Which question should the nurse Oliver ask her first?

    • “Do you have any chronic illnesses?”

    • “Do you have any allergies?”

    • “What is your expected due date?”

    • “Who will be with you during labor?”

    Correct Answer
    A. “What is your expected due date?”
    Explanation
    When obtaining the history of a client who may be in labor, the nurse's highest priority is to determine her current status, particularly her due date, gravidity, and parity. Gravidity and parity affect the duration of labor and the potential for labor complications. Later, the nurse should ask about chronic illnesses, allergies, and support persons.

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  • 7. 

    Which action should nurse Marian include in the care plan for a 2 month old with heart failure?

    • Feed the infant when he cries.

    • Allow the infant to rest before feeding.

    • Bathe the infant and administer medications before feeding.

    • Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
    Explanation
    Because feeding requires so much energy, an infant with heart failure should rest before feeding.

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  • 8. 

    Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is suspected?

    • Placenta previa

    • Abruptio placentae

    • Premature labor

    • Sexually transmitted disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    Placenta previa with painless vaginal bleeding.

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  • 9. 

    A young child named Richard is suspected of having pinworms. The community nurse collects a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should schedule the collection of this specimen for:

    • Just before bedtime

    • After the child has been bathe

    • Any time during the day

    • Early in the morning

    Correct Answer
    A. Early in the morning
    Explanation
    Based on the nurse’s knowledge of microbiology, the specimen should be collected early in the morning. The rationale for this timing is that, because the female worm lays eggs at night around the perineal area, the first bowel movement of the day will yield the best results. The specific type of stool specimen used in the diagnosis of pinworms is called the tape test.

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  • 10. 

    The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

    • Nasal mucosa

    • Buccal mucosa

    • Skin on the abdomen

    • Skin on neck

    Correct Answer
    A. Buccal mucosa
    Explanation
    Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.

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  • 11. 

    Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip and palate repair. What should the nurse do to prevent trauma to operative site?

    • Avoid touching the suture line, even when cleaning.

    • Place the baby in prone position.

    • Give the baby a pacifier.

    • Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.
    Explanation
    Soft restraints from the upper arm to the wrist prevent the infant from touching her lip but allow him to hold a favorite item such as a blanket. Because they could damage the operative site, such as objects as pacifiers, suction catheters, and small spoons shouldn’t be placed in a baby’s mouth after cleft repair. A baby in a prone position may rub her face on the sheets and traumatize the operative site. The suture line should be cleaned gently to prevent infection, which could interfere with healing and damage the cosmetic appearance of the repair.

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  • 12. 

    During vaginal examination of Janah who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it as:

    • Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.

    • Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.

    • Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.

    • Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
    Explanation
    Fetus at station plus two indicates that the presenting part is 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.

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  • 13. 

    Calcium gluconate is being administered to a client with pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). A nursing action that must be initiated as the plan of care throughout injection of the drug is:

    • Ventilator assistance

    • CVP readings

    • EKG tracings

    • Continuous CPR

    Correct Answer
    A. EKG tracings
    Explanation
    A potential side effect of calcium gluconate administration is cardiac arrest. Continuous monitoring of cardiac activity (EKG) throught administration of calcium gluconate is an essential part of care.

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  • 14. 

    Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. She is aware that one of the following is unassociated with this condition?

    • Excessive fetal activity.

    • Larger than normal uterus for gestational age.

    • Vaginal bleeding

    • Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive fetal activity.
    Explanation
    The most common signs and symptoms of hydatidiform mole includes elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin, vaginal bleeding, larger than normal uterus for gestational age, failure to detect fetal heart activity even with sensitive instruments, excessive nausea and vomiting, and early development of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Fetal activity would not be noted.

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  • 15. 

    A 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect?

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Tetanus

    • Leptospirosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Leptospirosis
    Explanation
    Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.

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  • 16. 

    Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board is:

    • Mayor

    • Municipal Health Officer

    • Public Health Nurse

    • Any qualified physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Mayor
    Explanation
    The local executive serves as the chairman of the Municipal Health Board.

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  • 17. 

    Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding has just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa. Which of the following procedures is usually performed to diagnose placenta previa?

    • Amniocentesis

    • Digital or speculum examination

    • External fetal monitoring

    • Ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    A. Ultrasound
    Explanation
    Once the mother and the fetus are stabilized, ultrasound evaluation of the placenta should be done to determine the cause of the bleeding. Amniocentesis is contraindicated in placenta previa. A digital or speculum examination shouldn’t be done as this may lead to severe bleeding or hemorrhage. External fetal monitoring won’t detect a placenta previa, although it will detect fetal distress, which may result from blood loss or placenta separation.

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  • 18. 

    Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) of the tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to have a positive test for which of the following results?

    • An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.

    • An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.

    • A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.

    • A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.
    Explanation
    A positive PPD result would be an indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter that appears in 48 to 72 hours. The area must be a raised wheal, not a flat circumcised area to be considered positive.

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  • 19. 

    Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?

    • Giardiasis

    • Cholera

    • Amoebiasis

    • Dysentery

    Correct Answer
    A. Cholera
    Explanation
    Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom of cholera. Both amebic and bacillary dysentery are characterized by the presence of blood and/or mucus in the stools. Giardiasis is characterized by fat malabsorption and, therefore, steatorrhea.

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  • 20. 

    Marie brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?

    • Perform a tourniquet test.

    • Ask where the family resides.

    • Get a specimen for blood smear.

    • Ask if the fever is present everyday.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask where the family resides.
    Explanation
    Because malaria is endemic, the first question to determine malaria risk is where the client’s family resides. If the area of residence is not a known endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months, where she was brought and whether she stayed overnight in that area.

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  • 21. 

    Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20, has just completed a difficult, forceps-assisted delivery of twins. Her labor was unusually long and required oxytocin (Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse who's caring for her should stay alert for:

    • Uterine inversion

    • Uterine atony

    • Uterine involution

    • Uterine discomfort

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterine atony
    Explanation
    Multiple fetuses, extended labor stimulation with oxytocin, and traumatic delivery commonly are associated with uterine atony, which may lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine inversion may precede or follow delivery and commonly results from apparent excessive traction on the umbilical cord and attempts to deliver the placenta manually. Uterine involution and some uterine discomfort are normal after delivery.

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  • 22. 

    A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should the nurse do first?

    • Calm the neonate.

    • Notify the physician.

    • Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered

    • Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.
    Explanation
    The nurse's first action should be to clear the neonate's airway with a bulb syringe. After the airway is clear and the neonate's color improves, the nurse should comfort and calm the neonate. If the problem recurs or the neonate's color doesn't improve readily, the nurse should notify the physician. Administering oxygen when the airway isn't clear would be ineffective.

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  • 23. 

    Nurse Carla should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:

    • Baby oil

    • Baby lotion

    • Laundry detergent

    • Powder with cornstarch

    Correct Answer
    A. Laundry detergent
    Explanation
    Eczema or dermatitis is an allergic skin reaction caused by an offending allergen. The topical allergen that is the most common causative factor is laundry detergent.

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  • 24. 

    Which symptom would indicate the Baby Alexandra was adapting appropriately to extra-uterine life without difficulty?

    • Nasal flaring

    • Light audible grunting

    • Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute

    • Respiratory rate 60 to 80 breaths/minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
    Explanation
    A respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute is normal for a neonate during the transitional period. Nasal flaring, respiratory rate more than 60 breaths/minute, and audible grunting are signs of respiratory distress.

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  • 25. 

    Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?

    • 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear

    • 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

    • 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear

    • 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
    Explanation
    A multibacillary leprosy case is one who has a positive slit skin smear and at least 5 skin lesions.

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  • 26. 

    Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?

    • Inability to drink

    • High grade fever

    • Signs of severe dehydration

    • Cough for more than 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. Inability to drink
    Explanation
    A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred urgently to a hospital if he/she has one or more of the following signs: not able to feed or drink, vomits everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken.

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  • 27. 

    When teaching parents of a neonate the proper position for the neonate’s sleep, the nurse Patricia stresses the importance of placing the neonate on his back to reduce the risk of which of the following?

    • Aspiration

    • Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

    • Suffocation

    • Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)

    Correct Answer
    A. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
    Explanation
    Supine positioning is recommended to reduce the risk of SIDS in infancy. The risk of aspiration is slightly increased with the supine position. Suffocation would be less likely with an infant supine than prone and the position for GER requires the head of the bed to be elevated.

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  • 28. 

    After reviewing the Myrna’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would nurse Richard anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?

    • Hypoglycemia

    • Jitteriness

    • Respiratory depression

    • Tachycardia

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory depression
    Explanation
    Magnesium sulfate crosses the placenta and adverse neonatal effects are respiratory depression, hypotonia, and bradycardia. The serum blood sugar isn’t affected by magnesium sulfate. The neonate would be floppy, not jittery.

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  • 29. 

    A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition that warrant the nurse in-charge to discontinue I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:

    • Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.

    • Maternal temperature 101.2

    • Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate.

    • Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
    Explanation
    Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds, is indicative of hyperstimulation of the uterus, which could result in injury to the mother and the fetus if Pitocin is not discontinued.

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  • 30. 

    A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier caesareans, would likely to be given to a gravida, who had:

    • First low transverse cesarean was for active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was positive.

    • First and second caesareans were for cephalopelvic disproportion.

    • First caesarean through a classic incision as a result of severe fetal distress.

    • First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.
    Explanation
    This type of client has no obstetrical indication for a caesarean section as she did with her first caesarean delivery.

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  • 31. 

    Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to take a crying toddler’s temperature is:

    • Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.

    • Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.

    • Encourage the mother to hold the child.

    • Ignore the crying and screaming.

    Correct Answer
    A. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
    Explanation
    When dealing with a crying toddler, the best approach is to talk to the mother and ignore the toddler first. This approach helps the toddler get used to the nurse before she attempts any procedures. It also gives the toddler an opportunity to see that the mother trusts the nurse.

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  • 32. 

    Nurse Lynette is working in the triage area of an emergency department. She sees that several pediatric clients arrive simultaneously. The client who needs to be treated first is:

    • A crying 5 year old child with a laceration on his scalp.

    • A 4 year old child with a barking coughs and flushed appearance.

    • A 3 year old child with Down syndrome who is pale and asleep in his mother’s arms.

    • A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up in his mother’s arms and drooling.

    Correct Answer
    A. A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up in his mother’s arms and drooling.
    Explanation
    The infant with the airway emergency should be treated first, because of the risk of epiglottitis.

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  • 33. 

    Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea for 4 to 5 times a day. Her skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?

    • No signs of dehydration

    • Some dehydration

    • Severe dehydration

    • The data is insufficient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Some dehydration
    Explanation
    Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2 months to 5 years old) with diarrhea is classified as having SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or more of the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, the skin goes back slow after a skin pinch.

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  • 34. 

    Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by her mother to the health center because of cough. His respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, his breathing is considered as:

    • Fast

    • Slow

    • Normal

    • Insignificant

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal
    Explanation
    In IMCI, a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is fast breathing for an infant aged 2 to 12 months.

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  • 35. 

    Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?

    • Pre-pathogenesis

    • Pathogenesis

    • Prodromal

    • Terminal

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminal
    Explanation
    Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of permanent disability and disability limitation appropriate for convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage of a disease).

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  • 36. 

    A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). The clinical findings that would warrant use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:

    • Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.

    • Absent patellar reflexes.

    • Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.

    • Rapid rise in blood pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Absent patellar reflexes.
    Explanation
    Absence of patellar reflexes is an indicator of hypermagnesemia, which requires administration of calcium gluconate.

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  • 37. 

    Nurse Gina is aware that the most common condition found during the second-trimester of pregnancy is:

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Mastitis

    • Physiologic anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiologic anemia
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin values and hematocrit decrease during pregnancy as the increase in plasma volume exceeds the increase in red blood cell production.

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  • 38. 

    Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma with preeclampsia to prevent which of the following condition?

    • Hemorrhage

    • Hypertension

    • Hypomagnesemia

    • Seizure

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizure
    Explanation
    The anticonvulsant mechanism of magnesium is believes to depress seizure foci in the brain and peripheral neuromuscular blockade. Hypomagnesemia isn’t a complication of preeclampsia. Antihypertensive drug other than magnesium are preferred for sustained hypertension. Magnesium doesn’t help prevent hemorrhage in preeclamptic clients.

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  • 39. 

    To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?

    • Lateral position

    • Squatting position

    • Supine position

    • Standing position

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine position
    Explanation
    The supine position causes compression of the client's aorta and inferior vena cava by the fetus. This, in turn, inhibits maternal
    circulation, leading to maternal hypotension and, ultimately, fetal hypoxia. The other positions promote comfort and aid labor progress. For instance, the lateral, or side-lying, position improves maternal and fetal circulation, enhances comfort, increases maternal relaxation, reduces muscle tension, and eliminates pressure points. The squatting position promotes comfort by taking advantage of gravity. The standing position also takes advantage of gravity and aligns the fetus with the pelvic angle.

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  • 40. 

    Myrna a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:

    • Contact tracing

    • Community survey

    • Mass screening tests

    • Interview of suspects

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact tracing
    Explanation
    Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible sources of person-to-person transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted diseases.

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  • 41. 

    The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs only up to:

    • 5 months

    • 6 months

    • 1 year

    • 2 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months
    Explanation
    After 6 months, the baby’s nutrient needs, especially the baby’s iron requirement, can no longer be provided by mother’s milk alone.

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  • 42. 

    The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?

    • DPT

    • Oral polio vaccine

    • Measles vaccine

    • MMR

    Correct Answer
    A. DPT
    Explanation
    DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. OPV and measles vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and require freezing. MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program on Immunization.

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  • 43. 

    May knows that the step in community organizing that involves training of potential leaders in the community is:

    • Integration

    • Community organization

    • Community study

    • Core group formation

    Correct Answer
    A. Core group formation
    Explanation
    In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the technology of community organizing to the potential or informal community leaders through a training program.

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  • 44. 

    To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of diaphragm for family planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how she will use the appliance. Which response indicates a need for further health teaching?

    • “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use it”

    • “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds”

    • “The diaphragm must be left in place for atleast 6 hours after intercourse”

    • “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.

    Correct Answer
    A. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.
    Explanation
    The woman must understand that, although the “fertile” period is approximately mid-cycle, hormonal variations do occur and can result in early or late ovulation. To be effective, the diaphragm should be inserted before every intercourse.

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  • 45. 

    When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Olivia should expect that the child most likely would have an:

    • Loud, machinery-like murmur.

    • Bluish color to the lips.

    • Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities

    • Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
    Explanation
    A loud, machinery-like murmur is a characteristic finding associated with patent ductus arteriosus.

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  • 46. 

    May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that a home pregnancy test was positive but she began to have mild cramps and is now having moderate vaginal bleeding. During the physical examination of the client, the nurse notes that May has a dilated cervix. The nurse determines that May is experiencing which type of abortion?

    • Inevitable

    • Incomplete

    • Threatened

    • Septic

    Correct Answer
    A. Inevitable
    Explanation
    An inevitable abortion is termination of pregnancy that cannot be prevented. Moderate to severe bleeding with mild cramping and cervical dilation would be noted in this type of abortion.

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  • 47. 

    A 23 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:

    • Menorrhagia

    • Metrorrhagia

    • Dyspareunia

    • Amenorrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Menorrhagia
    Explanation
    Menorrhagia is an excessive menstrual period.

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  • 48. 

    Emily has gestational diabetes and it is usually managed by which of the following therapy?

    • Diet

    • Long-acting insulin

    • Oral hypoglycemic

    • Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. Diet
    Explanation
    Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by diet alone to control their glucose intolerance. Oral hypoglycemic drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy. Long-acting insulin usually isn’t needed for blood glucose control in the client with gestational diabetes.

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  • 49. 

    Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased risk for having a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy. Aggressive management of a sickle cell crisis includes which of the following measures?

    • Antihypertensive agents

    • Diuretic agents

    • I.V. fluids

    • Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain

    Correct Answer
    A. I.V. fluids
    Explanation
    A sickle cell crisis during pregnancy is usually managed by exchange transfusion oxygen, and L.V. Fluids. The client usually needs a stronger analgesic than acetaminophen to control the pain of a crisis. Antihypertensive drugs usually aren’t necessary. Diuretic wouldn’t be used unless fluid overload resulted.

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