Perioperative Nursing Quiz Questions And Answers!

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Perioperative Nursing Quiz Questions And Answers! - Quiz


Welcome to our comprehensive Perioperative Nursing Quiz! This quiz is designed to test your knowledge and understanding of perioperative nursing. It contains a variety of questions and answers that will challenge your grasp of the subject. During surgery, a surgeon would not be able to have a successful operation if it wasn’t for the perioperative nurses. Their role is crucial in ensuring the safety and well-being of patients.

You can take this perioperative nursing quiz to check your knowledge of the same. This is your chance to shine and show your readiness for this challenging and rewarding field. Best of Read moreluck! Remember, this is not just a basic perioperative nursing quiz but a comprehensive test of your knowledge and skills.


Perioperative Nursing Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. What is the most effective method for obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading from the client?

    • A.

      Obtain a cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm.

    • B.

      Position the cuff approximately 4 inches above the antecubital arm.

    • C.

      Use a cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s upper arm.

    • D.

      Identify the Korotkoff sounds, and take a systolic reading at 10 mmHg after the first sound.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use a cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s upper arm.
    Explanation
    To obtain an accurate blood pressure reading, it is crucial to use a cuff that covers two-thirds of the client's upper arm. Using an improperly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate readings. The width of the cuff should be sufficient to ensure accurate compression and measurement of blood pressure.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following items on a client’s pre-surgery laboratory results would indicate a need to contact the surgeon?

    • A.

      Platelet count of 250,000/cu.mm.

    • B.

      Total cholesterol of 325 mg/dl.

    • C.

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)) 17 mg/dl.

    • D.

      Hemoglobin 9.5 mg/dl.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hemoglobin 9.5 mg/dl.
    Explanation
    A hemoglobin level of 9.5 mg/dl indicates anemia, which may affect the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity. This is a concern for surgery as inadequate oxygenation can lead to complications. The nurse should contact the surgeon to discuss the need for potential interventions or adjustments to the surgical plan.

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  • 3. 

    To prevent complications of immobility, which activities would help the nurse plan for the first postoperative day after a colon resection?

    • A.

      Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes around the clock.

    • B.

      Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair.

    • C.

      Provide a passive range of motion three times a day.

    • D.

      It is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first postoperative day.

    Correct Answer
    B. Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair.
    Explanation
    Ambulation helps prevent complications of immobility after colon resection. Early mobilization aids in preventing postoperative complications such as atelectasis and deep vein thrombosis. It promotes circulation and respiratory function, contributing to a quicker recovery.

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  • 4. 

    In the recovery room, the postoperative client suddenly becomes cyanotic. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

    • A.

      Start administration of oxygen through a nasal cannula.

    • B.

      Call for assistance.

    • C.

      Reposition the head and determine patency of the airway.

    • D.

      Insert an oral airway and suction the nasopharynx.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reposition the head and determine patency of the airway.
    Explanation
    Cyanosis suggests inadequate oxygenation. The nurse should first reposition the client's head to open the airway, ensuring proper ventilation. If cyanosis persists, calling for assistance and administering oxygen may follow. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial for the client's safety.

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  • 5. 

    A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Preoperative orders have been written. What is most important to do before surgery?

    • A.

      Have all consent forms signed.

    • B.

      Remove all jewelry or tape wedding ring.

    • C.

      Verify that all laboratory work is complete.

    • D.

      Inform family or next of kin.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have all consent forms signed.
    Explanation
    Ensuring all laboratory work is complete is crucial before surgery to identify and address any potential issues. It helps the surgical team make informed decisions and ensures the patient's safety during the procedure.

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  • 6. 

    The nurse is caring for a first-day postoperative surgical client. Prioritize the patient’s desired dietary progression. Arrange in sequence the dietary progression from 1 to 4:  1. Full liquid;  2. NPO;  3. Clear liquid;  4. Soft

    • A.

      1, 2, 3, 4

    • B.

      2, 3, 1, 4

    • C.

      2, 1, 4, 3

    • D.

      4, 3, 2, 1

    Correct Answer
    B. 2, 3, 1, 4
    Explanation
    Initially, the patient is kept on NPO to allow the digestive system to rest. Once the patient’s condition stabilizes, they are gradually moved to a clear liquid diet, then to a full liquid diet, and finally to a soft diet as their tolerance improves. This progression helps to prevent complications and aids in the patient’s recovery. Always remember, the specific dietary progression can vary based on the patient’s individual health status and the nature of the surgery. It’s important to follow the healthcare provider’s instructions.

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  • 7. 

    A postoperative client receives a dinner tray with gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream. Based on the foods on the client’s tray, what would the nurse anticipate the client’s current diet order to be:

    • A.

      Bland diet

    • B.

      Soft diet

    • C.

      Full liquid diet

    • D.

      Regular diet

    Correct Answer
    C. Full liquid diet
    Explanation
    Based on the provided food items (gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream), the nurse would anticipate that the client's current diet order is a full liquid diet. A full liquid diet typically includes foods that are liquid at room temperature or turn into a liquid at body temperature. Gelatin, pudding, and liquid ice cream are consistent with the items allowed on a full liquid diet.

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  • 8. 

    The nurse is preparing the preoperative client for surgery. The following statements indicate the client is knowledgeable about his impending surgery, except:

    • A.

      “After surgery, I will need to wear the pneumatic compression device while sitting in the chair.”

    • B.

      “The skin prep area is going to be longer and wider than the anticipated incision.”

    • C.

      “I cannot have anything to drink or eat after midnight on the night before the surgery.”

    • D.

      “To ensure my safety, a ‘time out’ will be conducted in the operating room.”

    Correct Answer
    C. “I cannot have anything to drink or eat after midnight on the night before the surgery.”
    Explanation
    This statement is incorrect because guidelines for fasting before surgery have changed in many places. It's essential for the client to be aware of the specific fasting instructions provided by the healthcare team to prevent complications and ensure a safe surgery. Therefore, this statement indicates a lack of up-to-date information.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO for 6 to 8 hours before surgery?

    • A.

      To prevent malnutrition.

    • B.

      To prevent electrolyte imbalance.

    • C.

      To prevent aspiration pneumonia.

    • D.

      To prevent intestinal obstruction.

    Correct Answer
    C. To prevent aspiration pneumonia.
    Explanation
    Maintaining NPO status before surgery helps prevent aspiration pneumonia. With an empty stomach, the risk of regurgitated gastric contents entering the lungs during anesthesia induction is minimized.

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  • 10. 

    The nurse will provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing, and turning exercises. When is the best time to provide the preoperative teachings?

    • A.

      Before administration of preoperative medications.

    • B.

      The afternoon or evening prior to surgery.

    • C.

      Several days prior to surgery.

    • D.

      Upon admission of the client in the recovery room.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before administration of preoperative medications.
    Explanation
    Providing preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing, and turning exercises is most effective before administering preoperative medications. This ensures the patient is alert and can actively participate in learning essential postoperative care practices.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following factors ensure the validity of informed written consent, except:

    • A.

      The patient is of legal age with a proper mental disposition.

    • B.

      If the patient is a child, secure consent from the parents or legal guardian.

    • C.

      The consent is secured before administration of preoperative medications.

    • D.

      If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient.

    Correct Answer
    D. If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient.
    Explanation
    The nurse should not sign the consent for the patient. Informed consent requires the patient's autonomous agreement. If the patient is unable to write, a witness may confirm that the patient provided verbal consent.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory secretions preoperatively?

    • A.

      Valium (diazepam)

    • B.

      Phenergan (promethazine)

    • C.

      Atropine sulfate

    • D.

      Demerol (Meperidine)

    Correct Answer
    C. Atropine sulfate
    Explanation
    Atropine sulfate is administered preoperatively to minimize respiratory secretions. This helps maintain a clear airway during surgery and reduces the risk of respiratory complications.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is experienced by the patient who is under general anesthesia?

    • A.

      The patient is unconscious.

    • B.

      The patient is awake.

    • C.

      The patient experiences slight pain.

    • D.

      The patient experiences loss of sensation in the lower half of the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient is unconscious.
    Explanation
    Under general anesthesia, the patient is unconscious and completely unaware. General anesthesia induces a controlled state of unconsciousness to allow surgery without pain or awareness.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is the most dangerous complication during induction of spinal anesthesia?

    • A.

      Cardiac arrest

    • B.

      Hypotension

    • C.

      Hyperthermia

    • D.

      Respiratory paralysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypotension
    Explanation
    Hypotension is a potentially dangerous complication during induction of spinal anesthesia. It can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, requiring prompt intervention to stabilize the patient.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following postoperative patients is at risk for respiratory complications?

    • A.

      The obese patient with a long history of smoking who had undergone upper abdominal surgery.

    • B.

      The patient with a normal pulmonary function who had undergone upper abdominal surgery.

    • C.

      An adolescent patient with diabetes mellitus who had undergone cholecystectomy.

    • D.

      A football player who had undergone knee replacement surgery.

    Correct Answer
    A. The obese patient with a long history of smoking who had undergone upper abdominal surgery.
    Explanation
    Obesity and long history of smoking pose a high risk for respiratory complications among postop clients. The upper abdominal incision is near the diaphragm. This usually inhibits deep breathing by the client due to the anticipation of pain. This factor further contributes to risk of respiratory complications.

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  • 16. 

    The patient had undergone spinal anesthesia for appendectomy. To prevent spinal headaches, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions?

    • A.

      Semi-Fowler’s.

    • B.

      Flat on the bed for 6 to 8 hours.

    • C.

      Prone position.

    • D.

      Modified Trendelenburg position.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flat on the bed for 6 to 8 hours.
    Explanation
    To prevent spinal headaches, the patient should lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after spinal anesthesia. This position allows the puncture site to seal properly, minimizing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage and subsequent headaches.

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  • 17. 

    The nurse is admitting a patient to the operating room. Which of the following nursing actions should be given the highest priority by the nurse?

    • A.

      Assessing the patient’s level of consciousness.

    • B.

      Checking the patient’s vital signs.

    • C.

      Checking the patient’s identification and correct operative permit.

    • D.

      Positioning and performing skin preparation to the patient.

    Correct Answer
    C. Checking the patient’s identification and correct operative permit.
    Explanation
    Ensuring correct patient identification and a valid operative permit is the highest priority when admitting a patient to the operating room. This step helps prevent errors and ensures the right patient undergoes the correct procedure.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following assessment data is most important to determine when caring for a patient who has received spinal anesthesia?

    • A.

      The time of the return of motion and sensation in the patient’s legs and toes.

    • B.

      The character of the patient’s respiration.

    • C.

      The patient’s level of consciousness.

    • D.

      The amount of wound drainage.

    Correct Answer
    B. The character of the patient’s respiration.
    Explanation
    Monitoring the character of respiration is crucial after spinal anesthesia to detect any respiratory distress or complications. Changes in respiratory patterns can indicate potential issues that require prompt intervention.

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  • 19. 

    The nurse is transferring the patient from the postanesthesia care unit to the surgical unit. Which of the following is the primary reason for the gradual change of position of the patient?

    • A.

      To prevent muscle injury.

    • B.

      To prevent sudden drop of blood pressure.

    • C.

      To prevent respiratory distress.

    • D.

      To promote comfort.

    Correct Answer
    C. To prevent respiratory distress.
    Explanation
    The gradual change of position during transfer helps prevent respiratory distress in postoperative patients. Sudden position changes may lead to respiratory compromise, particularly in those recovering from anesthesia.

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  • 20. 

    The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone exploratory laparotomy. Which of the following postop findings should the nurse report to the physician?

    • A.

      The patient pushes out the oral airway with his tongue.

    • B.

      The patient’s urine output has been 20 ml/hr for the past 2 hours.

    • C.

      The patient’s vital signs are as follows: BP = 100/70 mmHg; PR = 95 bpm; RR = 9 minute; T = 36.8°C.

    • D.

      The patient’s wound drainage.

    Correct Answer
    B. The patient’s urine output has been 20 ml/hr for the past 2 hours.
    Explanation
    A low urine output may indicate inadequate renal perfusion and potential renal impairment. This finding should be reported to the physician for further assessment and intervention.

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  • 21. 

    The patient had undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following are the earliest signs of poor tissue perfusion and poor respiratory function?

    • A.

      Cyanosis, lethargy.

    • B.

      Fast, thready pulse, bradypnea.

    • C.

      Apprehension and restlessness.

    • D.

      Faintness, pallor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Apprehension and restlessness.
    Explanation
    Apprehension and restlessness are often early signs of poor tissue perfusion and compromised respiratory function. These symptoms can indicate that the body is experiencing stress due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain and other vital organs. Such signs are early indicators that prompt medical professionals to assess and intervene to prevent further decline. This response can precede more visible signs such as cyanosis or changes in pulse and breathing patterns, making it crucial in early diagnosis and management.

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  • 22. 

    The diabetic patient who had undergone abdominal surgery experienced wound evisceration. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate nursing action?

    • A.

      Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile normal saline.

    • B.

      Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze.

    • C.

      Cover the wound with a water-soaked gauze.

    • D.

      Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile normal saline.
    Explanation
    Covering the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile normal saline helps maintain a moist environment and protects exposed tissues. It is crucial for preventing further tissue damage and promoting optimal wound healing.

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  • 23. 

    The patient had undergone a total hip replacement. He complains of pain in the operative site. Which of the following is the appropriate initial nursing action?

    • A.

      Administer the ordered analgesic.

    • B.

      Instruct the patient to do deep breathing and coughing exercises.

    • C.

      Assess the patient’s pain level and vital signs.

    • D.

      Change the patient’s position.

    Correct Answer
    C. Assess the patient’s pain level and vital signs.
    Explanation
    Assessing the patient's pain level and vital signs is the initial nursing action to determine the appropriate intervention for postoperative pain management. It helps tailor the pain relief plan to the patient's needs.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following individuals is not typically considered a member of the sterile team in an operating room?

    • A.

      Surgeon

    • B.

      Scrub nurse

    • C.

      Radiology technician

    • D.

      Circulating nurse

    Correct Answer
    C. Radiology technician
    Explanation
    Radiology technicians are not part of the sterile team in the operating room. Their role involves medical imaging, such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs, which are typically performed in specialized radiology suites or areas outside of the surgical environment. They do not work within the sterile field during surgery.

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  • 25. 

    The best position for kidney, chest, or hip surgery is:

    • A.

      Supine

    • B.

      Trendelenburg

    • C.

      Lithotomy

    • D.

      Lateral

    Correct Answer
    D. Lateral
    Explanation
    The lateral position is often the best for kidney, chest, or hip surgery. It provides optimal access to these areas while maintaining patient safety and comfort during the procedure.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 29, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Medsurgudanchapq
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