CDC 2r051 Vol. 2 Maintenance Information Systems

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (202) The database manager must inform users when a batch program is scheduled to be run

    • Very long.
    • In the middle of the day.
    • By the defense enterprise computing center.
    • Requiring the Intergrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) online processing to be down.
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in the automation and management of maintenance information systems, specifically focusing on the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). It covers key processes such as aircrew debriefing, system downtime management, and data verification.

CDC 2r051 Vol. 2 Maintenance Information Systems - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (204) Which program is used to verify program NFS760 runs each week?

    • NFS760.

    • NFS910.

    • NFSO40.

    • NFSRU0

    Correct Answer
    A. NFSRU0
    Explanation
    The program used to verify program NFS760 runs each week is NFSRU0.

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  • 3. 

    (205) What is the reason for establishing an alternate Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) processing site?

    • Uninterrupted batch processing.

    • Continuous inprocessing of new IMDS users.

    • Uninterrupted database management operation.

    • Continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable job data documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable job data documentation.
    Explanation
    The reason for establishing an alternate Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) processing site is to ensure continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable job data documentation. This means that even if the primary processing site experiences any interruptions or issues, the alternate site will be able to continue generating and reporting the necessary documentation without any disruptions. This helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the IMDS system.

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  • 4. 

    (206) What does the 754th Electronic Systems Group (ELSG) send out to the field right away if a software problem is discovered but a system advisory notice (SAN) might be delayed?

    • Wireless email.

    • Instant text messaging.

    • Heads up message (HUM).

    • Facsimile message (FAX).

    Correct Answer
    A. Heads up message (HUM).
    Explanation
    If a software problem is discovered but a system advisory notice (SAN) might be delayed, the 754th Electronic Systems Group (ELSG) sends out a Heads up message (HUM) right away. This allows them to quickly inform the field about the issue and provide any necessary instructions or updates. This ensures that the field is aware of the problem and can take appropriate action while waiting for the SAN to be issued.

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  • 5. 

    (211) In G081, when you see three asterisks (*) in a row, it means you need to press

    • Enter to logoff G081.

    • Escape to continue.

    • Enter to continue.

    • F1 to continue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter to continue.
    Explanation
    In G081, when three asterisks (*) are seen in a row, it indicates that the user needs to press "enter" to continue.

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  • 6. 

    (214) As the result of an aircraft mishap, an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database save tape expiration date is changed to

    • 14 days.

    • 1 month.

    • 6 months.

    • 1 year.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 year. In the given scenario, the expiration date of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database save tape is changed as a result of an aircraft mishap. The expiration date determines how long the save tape can be used before it becomes invalid or outdated. Out of the given options, 1 year is the longest duration, indicating that the save tape can be used for a year before it expires.

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  • 7. 

    (216) What type(s) of database system(s) compose the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) central database?

    • Network only.

    • Relational only.

    • Network and relational.

    • Network and non-networked.

    Correct Answer
    A. Network and relational.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) central database is composed of both network and relational database systems. This means that the database uses a combination of both network and relational models to store and organize its data. The network model allows for complex relationships between data elements, while the relational model allows for efficient querying and manipulation of data using structured query language (SQL). This combination of database systems provides flexibility and efficiency in managing and accessing data within the IMDS central database.

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  • 8. 

    (216) The most distinguishing characteristic of a relational query language, like Structured Query Language (SQL), is

    • Its non-procedural language.

    • It’s the oldest retrieval language.

    • The use of a complex data language.

    • The use of an exact procedural language.

    Correct Answer
    A. Its non-procedural language.
    Explanation
    The most distinguishing characteristic of a relational query language, like SQL, is its non-procedural language. This means that users can specify what data they want to retrieve or manipulate, without having to specify how to do it. In other words, users can focus on the end result they want, rather than the specific steps to get there. This makes the language more user-friendly and easier to learn, as users don't need to have a deep understanding of the underlying data structures or algorithms.

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  • 9. 

    (218) What does the schema of a database describe?

    • The user of the database.

    • The location of the database.

    • Physical relationships between every type of area.

    • Physical layout of records and logical relationships between records.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical layout of records and logical relationships between records.
    Explanation
    The schema of a database describes the physical layout of records and the logical relationships between records. This includes how the data is organized and stored in the database, as well as the relationships between different tables or entities. The schema defines the structure of the database and allows users to understand how the data is organized and how different pieces of data are related to each other.

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  • 10. 

    (221) Within Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), a direct type of record has its database key assigned and controlled by the

    • Host database manager.

    • Combat Systems Support Help Desk.

    • Major Command (MAJCOM) database manager.

    • Electronic Systems Group (ELSG) database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic Systems Group (ELSG) database administrator.
    Explanation
    In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), a direct type of record has its database key assigned and controlled by the Electronic Systems Group (ELSG) database administrator. This means that the ELSG database administrator is responsible for managing and assigning the unique identifier for the record in the IMDS database.

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  • 11. 

    (221) Which type of records comprise a majority of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?

    • Special.

    • Via set.

    • Placement.

    • Relationship.

    Correct Answer
    A. Via set.
    Explanation
    The majority of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database is comprised of Via set records.

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  • 12. 

    (222) Which type of linkage would be present when the owner record points to the first member record, the first member record points to the next member, and the last member points back to the owner?

    • Prior.

    • Relationship.

    • One-way circular.

    • Two-way circular.

    Correct Answer
    A. One-way circular.
    Explanation
    In a one-way circular linkage, the owner record points to the first member record, the first member record points to the next member, and the last member points back to the owner. This creates a circular chain of pointers where each member points to the next member, forming a one-way circular relationship.

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  • 13. 

    (223) When viewing the rectangle box on an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) schematic, the area consisting of one schematic page is denoted by

    • A whole number.

    • A first digit of the set number.

    • The first digit of the area code.

    • The Transaction Interface Package (TIP) number.

    Correct Answer
    A. A whole number.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a whole number. This means that the area consisting of one schematic page is represented by a complete number without any decimals or fractions. It does not refer to the first digit of the set number, the first digit of the area code, or the Transaction Interface Package (TIP) number.

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  • 14. 

    (233) The adding or subtracting of a transaction interface code (TRIC) with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual is known as

    • ELCI.

    • DELTA.

    • File Update.

    • Allowed ELC.

    Correct Answer
    A. DELTA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DELTA. DELTA refers to the process of adding or subtracting a transaction interface code (TRIC) with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual. This process allows for the modification of a profile by adding or removing specific transaction interface codes, providing flexibility and customization for the individual's needs.

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  • 15. 

    (234) Up to how many user-identifications (User ID) can the enterprise location codes (ELC) Profile Manager By Profile ID program load to a single Master Profile?

    • 10.

    • 15.

    • 20.

    • 25.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25.
    Explanation
    The enterprise location codes (ELC) Profile Manager By Profile ID program can load up to 25 user-identifications (User ID) to a single Master Profile.

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  • 16. 

    (236) What type of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database errors cannot be created by Transaction Interface Package (TIP) users?

    • Data.

    • Pointer.

    • Logical.

    • Structural.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pointer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pointer." In the context of an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database, pointer errors cannot be created by Transaction Interface Package (TIP) users. Pointer errors typically occur when a program tries to access a memory location that is invalid or does not exist. Since TIP users do not have direct access to the underlying database structure or memory management, they cannot create pointer errors.

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  • 17. 

    (238) Which input is required to obtain a record printout of a random access locator record when using the program random access locator (LAF)?

    • Transaction identification code key.

    • Database key.

    • Control key.

    • CALC key.

    Correct Answer
    A. CALC key.
    Explanation
    To obtain a record printout of a random access locator record using the program random access locator (LAF), the input required is the CALC key. This key is used to initiate the calculation process and retrieve the desired record. The other options mentioned, such as the transaction identification code key, database key, and control key, do not directly relate to obtaining a record printout in this context.

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  • 18. 

    (243) Which words in a Query Language Processor (QLP) syntax skeleton are mandatory if they are underlined?

    • Proper.

    • Generic.

    • Uppercase.

    • Lowercase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uppercase.
    Explanation
    In a Query Language Processor (QLP) syntax skeleton, the words that are mandatory if they are underlined are "Uppercase". This means that when constructing a query using the QLP, the words must be written in uppercase letters. The other words mentioned, "Proper", "Generic", and "Lowercase", are not mandatory and can be written in any case.

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  • 19. 

    (244) Query Language Processor (QLP) can be initialized online only in the

    • EDIT mode.

    • ECHO mode.

    • DEMAND mode.

    • Transaction Interface Package (TIP) mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. DEMAND mode.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DEMAND mode. This is because the Query Language Processor (QLP) can only be initialized online in DEMAND mode. The other modes mentioned, such as EDIT mode, ECHO mode, and Transaction Interface Package (TIP) mode, do not allow for the initialization of the QLP online.

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  • 20. 

    (248) When printing a Query Language Processor (QLP) output, what command do you use to activate a side-by printer?

    • PRNT.

    • PRINT.

    • @PRNT.

    • @@PRNT.

    Correct Answer
    A. @@PRNT.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is @@PRNT. This command is used to activate a side-by printer when printing a Query Language Processor (QLP) output.

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  • 21. 

    (201) Which subsystem process does Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) automate?

    • Aircraft status.

    • Aircraft location.

    • Aircrew debriefing.

    • Personnel inprocessing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircrew debriefing.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) automates the process of aircrew debriefing. This means that IMDS is responsible for collecting and organizing information related to the performance and experiences of aircrew members after a flight. It helps to streamline the debriefing process and ensure that all necessary information is recorded and stored accurately.

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  • 22. 

    (201) What system best describes the operating concept of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • User-oriented.

    • Event-oriented.

    • Database-centered.

    • Information-centered.

    Correct Answer
    A. Event-oriented.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is event-oriented because Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) focuses on recording and tracking maintenance events and activities. It is designed to capture and manage data related to maintenance events such as repairs, inspections, and replacements. This system is primarily concerned with the events that occur during the maintenance process rather than the overall information or database structure.

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  • 23. 

    (202) When monitoring computer maintenance as a database manager, your efforts must be directed toward

    • Requesting hardware and software.

    • Updating the capabilities on an as needed basis.

    • The analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime.

    • Technical maintenance of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. The analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime.
    Explanation
    As a database manager, monitoring computer maintenance involves analyzing both unscheduled and scheduled downtime. This means keeping track of any unexpected disruptions or failures in the system, as well as planned maintenance activities. By analyzing downtime, the manager can identify patterns, potential issues, and areas for improvement in the maintenance process. This information can then be used to optimize the system's performance and minimize future downtime, ensuring smooth operations and efficient use of resources.

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  • 24. 

    (202) Make sure your notification checklist includes the

    • Last result of a database verify.

    • Last result of a delete history run.

    • User IDs of each user to be notified.

    • Address and phone number of each user to be notified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Address and phone number of each user to be notified.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to include the address and phone number of each user to be notified in the notification checklist. This is important because in order to effectively notify users, their contact information is necessary. Including their address and phone number ensures that the notification can be delivered through multiple channels, increasing the chances of reaching the users in a timely manner.

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  • 25. 

    (205) Implement pseudo processing when

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) will not come back on-line.

    • IMDS is running slow in transaction interface (TIP) mode.

    • The system is unavailable for only a short period of time.

    • The system is unavailable for a long time.

    Correct Answer
    A. The system is unavailable for a long time.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the system is unavailable for a long time." This is because implementing pseudo processing is a technique used when the system is unavailable for an extended period of time. Pseudo processing involves simulating the processing of data and transactions, allowing users to continue working as if the system were online. This ensures that work can still be done even when the system is down for a prolonged period.

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  • 26. 

    (207) For which situation may the user submit an Air Force IMT 3215, C4 Systems Requirements Document regarding Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • Add new capabilities to IMDS.

    • Change user name and password in IMDS.

    • Report a problem while using an IMDS screen.

    • Correct a data entered in error on an IMDS screen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Add new capabilities to IMDS.
    Explanation
    The user may submit an Air Force IMT 3215, C4 Systems Requirements Document regarding Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) when they want to add new capabilities to IMDS. This form is used to request changes or enhancements to the system, so if the user wants to expand the functionality of IMDS, they would need to submit this document.

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  • 27. 

    (208) A difficulty report (DIREP) in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used when

    • A user has difficulty using IMDS.

    • IMDS is not operating as designed.

    • The DBM cannot fix an IMDS problem.

    • A user wants to make changes to an IMDS program.

    Correct Answer
    A. IMDS is not operating as designed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "IMDS is not operating as designed." A difficulty report (DIREP) in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used when there is an issue with the system not functioning as intended. It is a way for users to report problems or malfunctions in IMDS so that they can be addressed and fixed by the appropriate personnel. This option accurately reflects the purpose and usage of a DIREP in IMDS.

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  • 28. 

    (209) The responsibility for initializing Interactive Communication Interface (ICI) via screen #891 lies with

    • The host data base manager (DBM).

    • The system monitor.

    • Unit level DBMs.

    • Functional users.

    Correct Answer
    A. The host data base manager (DBM).
    Explanation
    The responsibility for initializing Interactive Communication Interface (ICI) via screen #891 lies with the host data base manager (DBM). This means that the DBM is responsible for setting up and initializing the ICI through the specific screen mentioned. The system monitor, unit level DBMs, and functional users do not have this responsibility.

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  • 29. 

    (210) Which Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) interface program reschedules REMIS inventory reconciliations?

    • REMIS table load.

    • REMIS error inquiry.

    • REMIS error correction menu.

    • Defense Data Network (DDN) address record.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Data Network (DDN) address record.
    Explanation
    The Defense Data Network (DDN) address record is the correct answer because it is the interface program in the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) that is responsible for rescheduling REMIS inventory reconciliations. This program manages the addresses of the DDN, which is a global communications network used by the Department of Defense. By updating the DDN address record, the REMIS system can ensure that inventory reconciliations are rescheduled and conducted efficiently.

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  • 30. 

    (212) Which option would you select on the Time Sharing Option (TSO) Primary Option Menu in order to start the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility?

    • Option 6 Command.

    • Option S Security.

    • Option 3 Utilities.

    • Option SD SDSF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Option S Security.
    Explanation
    To start the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility on the Time Sharing Option (TSO) Primary Option Menu, you would select Option S Security. This option is chosen because user ID maintenance is related to security measures, such as creating, modifying, or deleting user IDs, managing user access privileges, and ensuring the security of the system.

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  • 31. 

    (220) Record placement in the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database depends on association, distribution, and

    • Data.

    • Volatility.

    • Page size.

    • Relationship.

    Correct Answer
    A. Volatility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "volatility". In the context of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database, record placement is determined by the volatility of the data. Volatility refers to the frequency and likelihood of changes or updates to the data. Data that is more volatile, meaning it is subject to frequent changes, is typically placed in a different location within the database to ensure efficient access and management. Therefore, the placement of records in the IMDS database depends on the volatility of the data.

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  • 32. 

    (222) What clause in the set section determines the logical placement of a new member record added to a set?

    • Code.

    • Mode.

    • Order.

    • Set selection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Order.
    Explanation
    The clause in the set section that determines the logical placement of a new member record added to a set is the "Order" clause. This clause specifies the order in which the records should be arranged within the set.

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  • 33. 

    (224) What is the first step in building an effective data model?

    • Schema design.

    • Adding key attributes to the model.

    • Planning and requirements analysis.

    • Adding non-key attributes to the model.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning and requirements analysis.
    Explanation
    The first step in building an effective data model is planning and requirements analysis. This involves understanding the needs and goals of the project, identifying the data that needs to be captured and stored, and determining how it will be used. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the data model and ensures that it aligns with the business requirements. Once the planning and requirements analysis is complete, the data model can be designed and implemented, including the addition of key and non-key attributes.

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  • 34. 

    (230) In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, the tables in an area are drawn in

    • Boxes.

    • Circles.

    • Oblong.

    • Triangles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Boxes.
    Explanation
    In a Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, the tables are typically represented by boxes. This is a common convention used to visually depict the tables in the database. The use of boxes makes it easier to identify and distinguish the tables from other elements in the diagram.

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  • 35. 

    (245) Which Query Language Processor (QLP) clause allows you to specify only portions of a data item as the selection criteria?

    • LIST.

    • SORT.

    • MASK.

    • LIST IN COLUMN.

    Correct Answer
    A. MASK.
    Explanation
    The MASK clause in the Query Language Processor (QLP) allows you to specify only portions of a data item as the selection criteria. This means that you can select specific parts or fields of a data item rather than the entire item. The MASK clause is useful when you only need to retrieve or manipulate certain parts of the data, rather than the entire data item.

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  • 36. 

    (249) The Query Language Processor (QLP) clause that defines the explicit attributes of a derived name is

    • DEFAULT PICTURE.

    • CONTROLS.

    • DECLARE.

    • REPORT.

    Correct Answer
    A. DECLARE.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DECLARE. The DECLARE clause in the Query Language Processor (QLP) is used to define the explicit attributes of a derived name. It is used to declare variables and their data types in order to store and manipulate data within the QLP.

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  • 37. 

    (252) Which Query Language Processor (QLP) savefile command is used to list all or specific entities?

    • SAVE.

    • COPY.

    • PRINT.

    • PURGE.

    Correct Answer
    A. PRINT.
    Explanation
    The PRINT command in the Query Language Processor (QLP) is used to list all or specific entities. It allows for the retrieval and display of information from the database without making any changes to the data. This command is commonly used to view the contents of a database table or to retrieve specific records based on certain criteria.

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  • 38. 

    (203) Which utility program requires that the database be down when you run this program?

    • NDA500.

    • Database editor.

    • Interactive query utility.

    • Data management utility verifies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data management utility verifies.
    Explanation
    A data management utility verifies the integrity and consistency of a database by performing various checks and validations. In order to ensure accurate results, it is necessary for the database to be offline or down when running this program. This is because any changes made to the database while it is being verified could potentially affect the results and compromise the integrity of the database. Therefore, running the data management utility requires the database to be inaccessible to any other processes.

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  • 39. 

    (204) How many days of history does program NFS760 retain on the database?

    • 92.

    • 102.

    • No more than 92.

    • No more than 102.

    Correct Answer
    A. No more than 92.
    Explanation
    The program NFS760 retains no more than 92 days of history on the database.

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  • 40. 

    (204) How many options are there for program NFS7U0?

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    • 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the number of options for program NFS7U0. The correct answer is 3. However, without any additional context or information provided, it is difficult to determine what these options refer to. It could be the number of available versions or variations of the program, or it could be the number of features or functionalities within the program. Without further information, it is not possible to provide a more specific explanation.

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  • 41. 

    (204) When contacted by supply, which screen does the database manager (DBM) run for an annual Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) reconciliation?

    • 126.

    • 349.

    • 730.

    • 899.

    Correct Answer
    A. 126.
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is 126. This means that when contacted by supply, the database manager (DBM) runs screen 126 for an annual Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) reconciliation.

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  • 42. 

    (205) Which is an option for off-line processing?

    • Creating input text files.

    • Running a database save.

    • Updating the audit trail tape.

    • Memorizing every transaction made.

    Correct Answer
    A. Creating input text files.
    Explanation
    Creating input text files is an option for off-line processing because it allows for the collection and organization of data that can be processed at a later time. By creating input text files, data can be stored and prepared for batch processing, where large amounts of data are processed together. This method is commonly used when real-time processing is not necessary or when there is a need to process data in bulk. Running a database save, updating the audit trail tape, and memorizing every transaction made are not options for off-line processing as they involve immediate or continuous processing of data.

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  • 43. 

    (205) The two basic procedures for data recovery are processing

    • Pseudo remote and off-line.

    • Manual remote and off-line.

    • Pseudo remote and manual remote.

    • Manual remote and straight-line input.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pseudo remote and manual remote.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pseudo remote and manual remote. These two procedures are commonly used for data recovery. Pseudo remote refers to the process of recovering data from a remote location, such as a server or cloud storage. Manual remote, on the other hand, involves physically accessing the device or storage medium and manually recovering the data. Both procedures are important in different scenarios, with pseudo remote being useful for remote data recovery and manual remote being necessary for physical access to the device.

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  • 44. 

    (206) What document is used by the Field Assistance Service to communicate with field agencies?

    • System advisory notice (SAN).

    • Heads up messages (HUM).

    • Printed newsletter.

    • System release.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heads up messages (HUM).
    Explanation
    The Field Assistance Service uses heads up messages (HUM) to communicate with field agencies. This indicates that heads up messages are the preferred document for communication between the Field Assistance Service and field agencies.

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  • 45. 

    (210) Which Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) interface program provides a list of all files which have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours?

    • Defense Data Network (DDN) Address Record.

    • Table Validation Problem Reporting.

    • Debriefing MOA Builder.

    • REMIS Error Inquiry.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Data Network (DDN) Address Record.
    Explanation
    The Defense Data Network (DDN) Address Record is the correct answer because it provides a list of all files that have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours. This interface program helps track the communication between REMIS and other systems, ensuring that all necessary files are being exchanged properly.

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  • 46. 

    (211) Which option on the G081 Session Selection menu brings up the G081 Time Sharing Option (TSO) menu?

    • ATAIMTI1 TDSC –IMSC Development.

    • IMSA CAMS (G081) Production.

    • IMSB CAMS (G081) Test.

    • ATATS TSO.

    Correct Answer
    A. ATATS TSO.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ATATS TSO. This option on the G081 Session Selection menu brings up the G081 Time Sharing Option (TSO) menu.

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  • 47. 

    (212) In addition to creating a new G081 User ID in the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility, which program must the G081 manager process in order to grant access to G081?

    • F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update.

    • F9077A, 8033/User Master Record Update.

    • F9007, Work Center Update.

    • F0045, Shop Updates.

    Correct Answer
    A. F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update. This program needs to be processed in order to grant access to G081.

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  • 48. 

    (213) Which option of the virtual telecommunications access method (VTAM) Printing System Virtual Machine Communications Facility (VMCF) F Printer Selection List is used to access a particular printer’s command page?

    • Option H.

    • Option Q.

    • Option C.

    • Option D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Option C.
    Explanation
    Option C is used to access a particular printer's command page in the VTAM Printing System VMCF F Printer Selection List.

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  • 49. 

    (215) What must you immediately do in G081 if there is an aircraft mishap?

    • Run history reports.

    • Run a database save.

    • Secure the database.

    • Secure the aircraft records.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure the aircraft records.
    Explanation
    In G081, if there is an aircraft mishap, the immediate action that must be taken is to secure the aircraft records. This is important to ensure that all relevant information regarding the aircraft is preserved and protected. By securing the aircraft records, any potential evidence or data related to the mishap can be properly documented and analyzed. This will help in investigating the cause of the mishap and taking appropriate actions to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 14, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 14, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 08, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Chris7781
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