Nten111 / Elen115 / CompTIA Practice

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Nten111 / Elen115 / CompTIA Practice - Quiz


Just a few practices questions for the NTEN111/ELEN115 final exam. Most of this material should be relevant for those taking their CompTIA A+ certification.
No log-in or email required - Just make up a user name to take the quiz (Sorry - ProProfs won't let me disable this)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    BIOS stands for:

    • A.

      Binary Initialization Operation Scheme

    • B.

      Basic Input/Output System

    • C.

      Binary Input/Output System

    Correct Answer
    B. Basic Input/Output System
    Explanation
    BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System. It is a firmware that is stored on a computer's motherboard. BIOS is responsible for initializing and controlling the hardware components of the computer during the booting process. It provides a set of low-level software instructions that allow the operating system to communicate with the hardware. BIOS also provides configuration options that can be accessed during startup, allowing users to modify certain settings.

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  • 2. 

    Every computer performs a POST during start-up.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During start-up, every computer performs a Power-On Self-Test (POST). This is a diagnostic process that checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly. The POST verifies the integrity of the CPU, memory, storage devices, and other essential hardware. It also checks for any errors or issues that may prevent the computer from booting up successfully. Therefore, it is correct to say that every computer performs a POST during start-up.

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  • 3. 

    The BIOS configuration can be reset to factory defaults by either removing the back-up battery or shorting the "CLEAR" jumper on the motherboard.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The BIOS configuration can indeed be reset to factory defaults by either removing the back-up battery or shorting the "CLEAR" jumper on the motherboard. This is a common practice when troubleshooting or when the BIOS settings need to be reverted to their original state. Removing the back-up battery disconnects the power source to the BIOS chip, causing it to lose all saved settings. Shorting the "CLEAR" jumper temporarily connects the two pins, effectively erasing the BIOS settings. Both methods are valid ways to reset the BIOS configuration.

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  • 4. 

    By default, on most systems the POST will halt the boot process if it does not detect that a monitor is connected.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    On most systems, the POST (Power-On Self-Test) does not halt the boot process if it does not detect a connected monitor. This means that even if there is no monitor connected, the boot process will continue.

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  • 5. 

    The BIOS is stored on the first sector of the primary hard drive.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is not stored on the first sector of the primary hard drive. It is actually stored on a separate chip on the motherboard. The first sector of the primary hard drive is typically reserved for the Master Boot Record (MBR), which contains the partition table and boot loader. The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components and loading the operating system from the storage device, but it is not stored on the hard drive itself.

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  • 6. 

    SATA stands for:

    • A.

      Serial Advanced Technology Attachment

    • B.

      Serial Advanced Terminal Adapter

    • C.

      Serial Adapter Terminal Attachment

    Correct Answer
    A. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment
    Explanation
    SATA stands for Serial Advanced Technology Attachment. This is a type of computer bus interface that is used to connect storage devices, such as hard drives and solid-state drives, to a computer's motherboard. The SATA interface allows for high-speed data transfer and is commonly used in modern computer systems.

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  • 7. 

    ATAPI was created to allow the connection of CD-ROM and tape drives to SATA ports

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    ATAPI allows the connection of these devices to IDE or PATA buses.

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  • 8. 

    Virtually all new hard drives on the market today connect to the motherboard through an IDE interface.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because virtually all new hard drives on the market today connect to the motherboard through a SATA interface, not an IDE interface. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) was a common interface for hard drives in the past, but it has been largely replaced by SATA (Serial ATA) which offers faster data transfer speeds.

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  • 9. 

    How many devices can be connected to a single IDE channel?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      12

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A single IDE channel can support up to two devices. This is because IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) is a standard interface used to connect storage devices such as hard drives and CD/DVD drives to a computer's motherboard. Each IDE channel has two connectors, typically labeled as "Master" and "Slave," allowing for two devices to be connected. The Master device is given priority and is typically connected to the end of the cable, while the Slave device is connected to the middle connector. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 10. 

    Typically, a SCSI controller card will assume the lowest address in the device chain.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A SCSI controller card does not assume the lowest address in the device chain. The SCSI protocol allows for multiple devices to be connected in a chain, and each device is assigned a unique address. The controller card itself does not have an address and is responsible for managing the communication between the devices on the chain.

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  • 11. 

    How many devices can be connected to a wide SCSI bus? (Including the controller card)

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 16
    Explanation
    A wide SCSI bus can support up to 16 devices, including the controller card. This means that a total of 16 devices can be connected to the wide SCSI bus, allowing for efficient data transfer and communication between the devices.

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  • 12. 

    VGA is an analog interface.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, which is an analog video display standard. It uses analog signals to transmit video data from a computer to a monitor or display device. Unlike digital interfaces such as HDMI or DisplayPort, VGA does not transmit digital signals but instead uses analog signals to represent the video information. Therefore, the statement "VGA is an analog interface" is true.

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  • 13. 

    DVI (Digital Visual Interface) cables carry both video and audio signals.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    DVI (Digital Visual Interface) cables only carry video signals, not audio signals.

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  • 14. 

    What is the word size of a Pentium 4 CPU?

    • A.

      16-Bit

    • B.

      32-Bit

    • C.

      64-Bit

    Correct Answer
    B. 32-Bit
    Explanation
    The word size of a Pentium 4 CPU is 32-Bit. The word size refers to the number of bits that the CPU can process at a time. In the case of a Pentium 4 CPU, it can process 32 bits of data in a single operation. This allows for faster and more efficient processing of instructions and data.

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  • 15. 

    IEEE1394 is also commonly known as:

    • A.

      USB

    • B.

      SATA

    • C.

      Firewire

    Correct Answer
    C. Firewire
    Explanation
    IEEE1394 is commonly known as Firewire. Firewire is a high-speed serial bus interface that is used for connecting devices such as computers, digital cameras, and external hard drives. It was developed by Apple and is widely used in the audio and video industry for its fast data transfer rates and ability to daisy-chain multiple devices. USB and SATA, on the other hand, are different types of interfaces used for connecting devices, but they are not synonymous with IEEE1394.

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  • 16. 

    USB 2.0 has a theoretical maximum throughput of _____Mbps

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      1000

    Correct Answer
    B. 480
    Explanation
    USB 2.0 has a theoretical maximum throughput of 480 Mbps. This means that the maximum data transfer rate for USB 2.0 is 480 megabits per second. This is significantly faster than the previous USB 1.1 standard, which had a maximum throughput of 12 Mbps. USB 2.0 is capable of transferring data at a much higher speed, making it suitable for various devices such as external hard drives, flash drives, and cameras.

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  • 17. 

    A standard KVM allows you to connect multiple monitors to one PC.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A standard KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) allows you to connect multiple computers or servers to one set of peripherals (keyboard, monitor, and mouse), not multiple monitors to one PC. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 18. 

    RAID6 Requires a Minimum of __ disks.

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    RAID6 requires a minimum of 4 disks because it uses dual parity, meaning it can tolerate the failure of up to two disks without losing data. The parity information is distributed across all the disks, providing redundancy and allowing for data reconstruction in case of disk failures. With 4 disks, RAID6 can have two disks dedicated to storing parity information, ensuring data integrity and fault tolerance.

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  • 19. 

    RAID0 Requires a Minimum of __ disks.

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    RAID0, also known as striping, requires a minimum of 2 disks. In RAID0, data is divided into blocks and distributed evenly across multiple disks. This improves performance as data can be read and written simultaneously from/to multiple disks. However, RAID0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, meaning that if one disk fails, all data is lost. Therefore, having at least 2 disks is necessary to implement RAID0.

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  • 20. 

    RAID5 Requires a Minimum of __ disks.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    RAID5 requires a minimum of 3 disks because it uses block-level striping with distributed parity across all the drives in the array. This means that data and parity information are distributed across all the disks, providing both redundancy and performance benefits. With only 2 disks, there would not be enough disks to distribute the parity information effectively. Therefore, a minimum of 3 disks is required for RAID5 to function properly.

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  • 21. 

    The data path width and word size of a CPU do not necessarily have to be the same.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The data path width and word size of a CPU can be different because they serve different purposes. The data path width refers to the number of bits that can be processed simultaneously, while the word size refers to the number of bits that can be stored in a single memory location. It is possible for a CPU to have a wider data path to enhance performance, while still using a smaller word size for memory efficiency. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 22. 

    In a typical computer, data would travel between the CPU and the RAM via the:

    • A.

      WR Bennett Bridge

    • B.

      Northbridge

    • C.

      Southbridge

    • D.

      Westbridge

    Correct Answer
    B. Northbridge
    Explanation
    The Northbridge is responsible for connecting the CPU to the RAM in a typical computer. It acts as a bridge between the two components, facilitating the transfer of data. This connection is essential for the CPU to access and manipulate data stored in the RAM. The Northbridge also plays a crucial role in controlling the flow of data between the CPU and other components, such as the graphics card.

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  • 23. 

    Peripheral controllers for interfaces such as USB and Ethernet connect to the CPU by way of the:

    • A.

      Westbridge

    • B.

      Southbridge

    • C.

      Northbridge

    Correct Answer
    B. Southbridge
    Explanation
    Southbridge = Slowbridge

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  • 24. 

    Graphics cards typically connect to the CPU through the:

    • A.

      Northbridge

    • B.

      Westbridge

    • C.

      Southbridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Northbridge
    Explanation
    Graphics cards typically connect to the CPU through the Northbridge. The Northbridge is responsible for handling high-speed communication between the CPU, memory, and the graphics card. It acts as a bridge between the CPU and the rest of the system, including the graphics card. The Northbridge provides the necessary bandwidth and communication channels for the graphics card to send and receive data from the CPU efficiently. It plays a crucial role in ensuring smooth and fast communication between the CPU and the graphics card, which is essential for rendering graphics and running demanding applications.

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  • 25. 

    A certain hard drive has 65535 Cylinders, 32 Heads, and 500 Sectors. Given the industry standard sector size is 512 bytes, how big is the drive?

    • A.

      0.00190GB

    • B.

      32 GB

    • C.

      500 GB

    • D.

      65535 MB

    Correct Answer
    C. 500 GB
    Explanation
    The size of the drive can be determined by multiplying the number of cylinders, heads, sectors, and sector size. In this case, the number of cylinders is 65535, the number of heads is 32, the number of sectors is 500, and the sector size is 512 bytes. Multiplying these values together gives us the total number of bytes on the drive. Converting this value to gigabytes gives us the answer of 500 GB.

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  • 26. 

    SRAM must constantly be re-written, or it will lose its contents.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    SRAM (Static Random-Access Memory) is a type of computer memory that does not require constant rewriting to retain its contents. Unlike dynamic RAM (DRAM), which needs to be refreshed periodically, SRAM can hold data as long as power is supplied to it. Therefore, the statement that SRAM must constantly be re-written is incorrect.

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  • 27. 

    On an ATX motherboard, the power supply will be connected via:

    • A.

      A 1/2" Garden Hose

    • B.

      A 40-Pin Ribbon Cable

    • C.

      A 24-Pin Molex-Style Connector labeled P1

    • D.

      Two, 8-Pin Connectors

    Correct Answer
    C. A 24-Pin Molex-Style Connector labeled P1
    Explanation
    The power supply on an ATX motherboard is connected via a 24-Pin Molex-Style Connector labeled P1. This connector is specifically designed to provide power to the motherboard and is a standard feature on ATX motherboards. The 24-pin connector ensures a secure and reliable connection between the power supply and the motherboard, allowing for the proper distribution of power to all components.

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  • 28. 

    When speaking of RS-232 connections, a PC is considered to be the:

    • A.

      DTE side (Data Terminal Equipment)

    • B.

      DCE side (Data Communications Equipment)

    • C.

      Master

    Correct Answer
    A. DTE side (Data Terminal Equipment)
    Explanation
    In RS-232 connections, a PC is considered to be the DTE side (Data Terminal Equipment). DTE refers to the device that initiates or controls the communication, and in this case, the PC is the device that sends and receives data. The DCE side (Data Communications Equipment) refers to the device that provides the communication interface, such as a modem or a switch. Therefore, the PC, being the device that controls the communication, is classified as the DTE side in RS-232 connections.

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  • 29. 

    The RTS/CTS pins on an RS-232 port are used for:

    • A.

      Data transmission

    • B.

      Handshaking

    • C.

      Flow Control

    Correct Answer
    C. Flow Control
    Explanation
    The RTS/CTS pins on an RS-232 port are used for flow control. Flow control is a mechanism that allows the sender and receiver to regulate the rate of data transmission to prevent data loss or buffer overflow. The RTS (Request to Send) pin is used by the sender to signal the receiver that it is ready to transmit data. The CTS (Clear to Send) pin is used by the receiver to indicate that it is ready to receive data. By using these pins, the sender and receiver can coordinate and control the flow of data to ensure smooth and error-free transmission.

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  • 30. 

    Most PCs today are built around a ______ architecture.

    • A.

      POST

    • B.

      RISC

    • C.

      CISC

    • D.

      SATA

    Correct Answer
    C. CISC
    Explanation
    Most PCs today are built around a CISC (Complex Instruction Set Computer) architecture. This architecture is characterized by a large set of complex instructions that can perform multiple operations in a single instruction. CISC architecture allows for more flexible and powerful instruction sets, making it suitable for a wide range of applications. It also allows for efficient memory utilization and reduces the need for frequent memory access, resulting in improved performance. CISC architecture is widely used in modern PCs due to its versatility and ability to handle complex tasks efficiently.

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  • 31. 

    Which term is commonly used to reference the process of division and multiplication of the system clock to achieve the necessary frequency?

    • A.

      Derived System Clocks

    • B.

      Frequency Multiplexers

    • C.

      Bit shifting

    • D.

      Multiplier and Divider clocks

    Correct Answer
    A. Derived System Clocks
    Explanation
    Derived System Clocks is the correct answer because it refers to the process of dividing and multiplying the system clock to achieve the desired frequency. This process is commonly used in electronic devices to synchronize various components and ensure proper timing and functioning. Derived system clocks are generated by dividing the original clock frequency or multiplying it using frequency dividers and multipliers respectively. This allows for flexibility in adjusting the clock frequency to meet the specific requirements of different components and subsystems within a system.

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  • 32. 

    The BIOS starts at what memory address?

    • A.

      A0000

    • B.

      D0000

    • C.

      B0000

    • D.

      F0000

    Correct Answer
    D. F0000
    Explanation
    The BIOS starts at the memory address F0000.

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  • 33. 

    The POST would likely prevent the system from booting if a video adapter was not installed.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If a video adapter is not installed, the system would not be able to display any visual output. The POST (Power-On Self-Test) is a diagnostic process that a computer undergoes during the booting process to check if all the hardware components are functioning properly. If the video adapter is missing, the system would fail the POST and would not be able to boot because it cannot display any visuals on the screen. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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  • 34. 

    PCI-Express cards can be installed in standard PCI slots, however they will run at a reduced speed.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    PCI-Express cards cannot be installed in standard PCI slots. They are not physically compatible and have different slot configurations. PCI-Express cards require a PCI-Express slot to function properly.

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  • 35. 

    IRQ0 is reserved for the:

    • A.

      Keyboard

    • B.

      System Clock

    • C.

      Real-Time Clock

    • D.

      SCSI Controller

    Correct Answer
    B. System Clock
    Explanation
    IRQ0 is reserved for the System Clock. The System Clock is responsible for generating timing signals that synchronize the operations of various components in a computer system. IRQ0 is the interrupt request line associated with the System Clock, which means that it is used to signal the CPU when there is a request for attention from the System Clock. This allows the CPU to handle time-sensitive operations and ensure that the system functions properly.

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  • 36. 

    Name that port!Hint: It's not SCSI!

    • A.

      IEEE 1284 (Parallel)

    • B.

      Game Port

    • C.

      RS-232 (Serial)

    Correct Answer
    A. IEEE 1284 (Parallel)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IEEE 1284 (Parallel). This is because the hint suggests that the port being referred to is not SCSI. Among the given options, IEEE 1284 is a parallel port standard used for connecting printers and other devices to a computer. SCSI is a different type of port used for connecting storage devices. Therefore, the correct answer is IEEE 1284 (Parallel).

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  • 37. 

    The most common parallel port type found today is:

    • A.

      EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port)

    • B.

      ECP (Extended Capabilities Parallel Port)

    • C.

      SPP (Standard Parallel Port)

    Correct Answer
    B. ECP (Extended Capabilities Parallel Port)
    Explanation
    The most common parallel port type found today is ECP (Extended Capabilities Parallel Port). This is because ECP offers faster data transfer rates and improved features compared to the older SPP (Standard Parallel Port) and EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port) types. ECP allows for bi-directional communication, meaning data can be sent and received simultaneously. It also supports DMA (Direct Memory Access) for direct data transfer between devices without involving the CPU. These enhanced capabilities make ECP the preferred choice for modern parallel port connections.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following devices would MOST likely connect via a parallel interface?

    • A.

      External DVD-RW Drive

    • B.

      Bluetooth Dongle

    • C.

      Laser Printer

    Correct Answer
    C. Laser Printer
    Explanation
    Though considered by most to be legacy, the parallel port is still very widely used in industrial settings.

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  • 39. 

    When choosing a UPS, the unit should have a VA rating that is equal to or greater than the load connected to it.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When choosing a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply), it is important to select a unit with a VA (Volt-Ampere) rating that is equal to or greater than the load connected to it. The VA rating indicates the maximum amount of power that the UPS can supply to the connected devices. If the load exceeds the VA rating of the UPS, it may lead to overload and cause the UPS to fail. Therefore, selecting a UPS with a VA rating equal to or greater than the load ensures that it can provide sufficient power backup and protect the connected devices during power outages or fluctuations.

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  • 40. 

    When speaking of computer power systems, UPS stands for:

    • A.

      Uninterruptable Power Supply

    • B.

      United Parcel Service

    • C.

      Unintentional Power Shutdown

    Correct Answer
    A. Uninterruptable Power Supply
    Explanation
    UPS stands for Uninterruptable Power Supply. In computer power systems, an UPS is a device that provides emergency power to a computer or other electronic equipment when the primary power source fails. It acts as a backup power source, preventing data loss and allowing for a safe shutdown of the system. The term "uninterruptable" emphasizes the continuous power supply that the UPS provides, ensuring uninterrupted operation during power outages or fluctuations.

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  • 41. 

    When selecting a UPS for a mission-critical server, you would likely opt for a:

    • A.

      Standby UPS

    • B.

      Line-Interactive UPS

    • C.

      On-Line UPS

    Correct Answer
    C. On-Line UPS
    Explanation
    When selecting a UPS for a mission-critical server, the most suitable option would be an On-Line UPS. This type of UPS provides the highest level of protection and reliability for critical equipment. It constantly filters and conditions the incoming power, ensuring a stable and clean power supply to the server. In case of a power outage, the On-Line UPS seamlessly switches to battery power without any interruption, guaranteeing uninterrupted operation of the server. This is crucial for mission-critical servers that cannot afford any downtime or data loss. Standby UPS and Line-Interactive UPS are not as reliable and may cause brief interruptions during power transitions.

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  • 42. 

    A personal desktop computer and it's peripherals draw a total of 4A when operating off of 230VAC 50Hz (Australia) line voltage. What size UPS (VA) would you want to use to ensure there is enough time to safely shut down the machine in the event of a power failure?

    • A.

      1000VA

    • B.

      500VA

    • C.

      1kVA

    • D.

      230VA

    Correct Answer
    A. 1000VA
    Explanation
    To ensure there is enough time to safely shut down the machine in the event of a power failure, a UPS with a higher capacity is required. The total power draw of the personal desktop computer and its peripherals is 4A, which is equivalent to 920W (4A x 230V). Therefore, a UPS with a capacity of at least 1000VA is needed to provide enough power to the system and allow for a safe shutdown.

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  • 43. 

    On legacy systems, the AGP slot was used for:

    • A.

      Graphics (Video) Cards

    • B.

      Modems

    • C.

      RAID Controller Cards

    Correct Answer
    A. Graphics (Video) Cards
    Explanation
    The AGP slot on legacy systems was specifically designed to be used for Graphics (Video) Cards. This slot provided a dedicated connection between the graphics card and the motherboard, allowing for faster and more efficient communication. Modems and RAID Controller Cards, on the other hand, typically used different types of slots such as PCI or PCI Express. Therefore, the correct answer is Graphics (Video) Cards.

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  • 44. 

    TFT stands for:

    • A.

      Thin-Film Transistor

    • B.

      Total File Transfer

    • C.

      Thick-Film Transistor

    Correct Answer
    A. Thin-Film Transistor
    Explanation
    TFT stands for Thin-Film Transistor. Thin-Film Transistors are a type of electronic display technology commonly used in devices such as televisions, computer monitors, and smartphones. They are responsible for controlling the individual pixels on the screen, allowing for high-resolution and fast-refreshing displays. TFT technology offers several advantages over other display technologies, including wide viewing angles, high contrast ratios, and low power consumption.

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  • 45. 

    The first computer to implement a Graphical User Interface (GUI), mouse, and Ethernet networking was the:

    • A.

      Commodore 64

    • B.

      Xerox ALTO

    • C.

      IBM PC

    • D.

      Apple Macintosh

    Correct Answer
    B. Xerox ALTO
    Explanation
    The Xerox ALTO was the first computer to implement a Graphical User Interface (GUI), mouse, and Ethernet networking. This groundbreaking system, developed at Xerox's Palo Alto Research Center (PARC) in the 1970s, introduced many of the features and concepts that are now standard in modern computers. The ALTO's GUI allowed users to interact with the computer using icons, windows, and menus, revolutionizing the way people interacted with computers. The inclusion of a mouse made it easier to navigate and manipulate objects on the screen. Additionally, the ALTO was one of the first computers to use Ethernet networking, enabling communication and sharing of resources between multiple computers.

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  • 46. 

    The first commercially-successful spreadsheet utility was:

    • A.

      Microsoft Excel

    • B.

      Apple Clarisworks

    • C.

      VisiCalc

    Correct Answer
    C. VisiCalc
    Explanation
    VisiCalc was the first commercially-successful spreadsheet utility. It was released in 1979 for the Apple II computer and revolutionized the business world by allowing users to create automated calculations and perform complex data analysis. VisiCalc's success paved the way for future spreadsheet software, including Microsoft Excel.

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  • 47. 

    Name That Connector! (And it's purpose)

    • A.

      Molex - Power for optical drives

    • B.

      Berg - Power for floppy drives

    • C.

      SATA - Data for Hard Drives

    Correct Answer
    B. Berg - Power for floppy drives
    Explanation
    The given answer states that Berg connectors are used for providing power to floppy drives. This means that Berg connectors are specifically designed to deliver the necessary electrical power required for the operation of floppy drives.

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  • 48. 

    During the boot process, which of these steps occurs LAST?

    • A.

      The user executes applications software

    • B.

      Power-on self test (POST)

    • C.

      The OS configures the system and completes its own loading

    • D.

      The ROM BIOS startup program searches for and loads an OS

    Correct Answer
    A. The user executes applications software
    Explanation
    The user executing applications software occurs last during the boot process. This step occurs after the power-on self test (POST), the ROM BIOS startup program searching for and loading an OS, and the OS configuring the system and completing its own loading. Once all these steps are completed, the user can then execute applications software.

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  • 49. 

    On a hard disk drive, where is the Master Boot Record located?

    • A.

      F0000

    • B.

      Cylinder 0, Head 0, Sector 1

    • C.

      Cylinder 1, Head 1, Sector 1

    • D.

      Cylinder 0, Head 0, Sector 0

    • E.

      In the shoe closet

    Correct Answer
    B. Cylinder 0, Head 0, Sector 1
    Explanation
    The Master Boot Record (MBR) is located in Cylinder 0, Head 0, Sector 1 on a hard disk drive. This is the first sector of the disk and contains important information for the computer's boot process, such as the partition table and bootloader code. The MBR is crucial for the system to start up properly and access the operating system.

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  • 50. 

    What must always be present between a CPU and heatsink?

    • A.

      Hot Glue

    • B.

      Thermal Paste / Thermal Compound

    • C.

      Riser Card

    Correct Answer
    B. Thermal Paste / Thermal Compound
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Thermal Paste / Thermal Compound. Thermal paste is a substance that is applied to the surface of a CPU before attaching the heatsink. It helps to fill in microscopic gaps between the CPU and heatsink, improving the transfer of heat from the CPU to the heatsink. This ensures that the CPU remains cool and prevents overheating. Without thermal paste, there would be poor heat conduction and the CPU could potentially overheat, leading to performance issues or even hardware damage.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 07, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    ELENWorkgroup
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