Physical Dysfunction Midterm (Part 1)

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| By SkimOT2014
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SkimOT2014
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 7 | Total Attempts: 3,791
Questions: 16 | Attempts: 151

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Midterm Quizzes & Trivia

Includes material from:
Medical issues impacting treatment planning and occupational performance Frames of Reference: Biomechanical/
Neurological MMT/ROM assessment


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    You approach a patient's room and notice that he is under strict isolation precautions due to his mumps infection. You know that:

    • A.

      You are dealing with a serious illness transmitted by an airborne route

    • B.

      The patient is in a negative air pressure isolation room.

    • C.

      You are dealing with a serious illness transmitted by particle droplets and/or direct contact

    • D.

      A single room is indicated and you are not required to keep the door closed at all times.

    Correct Answer
    C. You are dealing with a serious illness transmitted by particle droplets and/or direct contact
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the patient's mumps infection is transmitted by particle droplets and/or direct contact. This means that the illness can spread through respiratory droplets when the infected person coughs or sneezes, or through direct contact with saliva or mucus from the infected person. The fact that the patient is in a single room indicates that the infection is contagious and precautions need to be taken to prevent its spread. However, the answer does not provide any information about the requirement of keeping the door closed at all times.

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  • 2. 

    Premature babies have a respiration rate of about 40-90 breaths/minute.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Premature babies have a higher respiration rate compared to full-term babies because their lungs are not fully developed. This increased rate allows them to compensate for their underdeveloped respiratory system and ensures they receive enough oxygen. The range of 40-90 breaths per minute is considered normal for premature babies and helps them maintain proper oxygenation levels. Therefore, the statement that premature babies have a respiration rate of about 40-90 breaths per minute is true.

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  • 3. 

    You are working with a patient and notice that she has some difficulty breathing. You ask her count out loud to 15 and she has to take 2 breaths. What would you rate her on the Dyspnea Index?

    • A.

      Level 0

    • B.

      Level 1

    • C.

      Level 2

    • D.

      Level 3

    • E.

      Level 4

    Correct Answer
    C. Level 2
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is experiencing some difficulty breathing as she requires 2 breaths to count out loud to 15. This indicates a mild level of dyspnea or shortness of breath. Therefore, she would be rated as Level 2 on the Dyspnea Index.

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  • 4. 

    During a session, you rate a patient at a Level 3 on the Dyspnea Index. You decide to stop the activity immediately. Was this an appropriate response?

    • A.

      Yes, because patient safety is at risk

    • B.

      Yes, because ICF protocols indicate that you stop at Level 3

    • C.

      No, because she was at a Level 3 and you should stop if she was at a Level 1

    • D.

      No, because you can reduce the level of activity intensity and teach breathing techniques

    Correct Answer
    D. No, because you can reduce the level of activity intensity and teach breathing techniques
    Explanation
    The correct answer is No, because you can reduce the level of activity intensity and teach breathing techniques. This response is appropriate because even though the patient was rated at a Level 3 on the Dyspnea Index, there are alternative interventions that can be implemented before completely stopping the activity. By reducing the level of activity intensity and teaching breathing techniques, the patient may be able to continue with the session safely while managing their dyspnea. Stopping at Level 1 is not necessary if other interventions can be effective in managing the patient's symptoms.

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  • 5. 

    During a session, your patient's blood pressure skyrockets. What should you do?

    • A.

      Sit him down

    • B.

      Lay him down so he's flat on his back

    • C.

      Lay him down and keep his legs elevated

    • D.

      Lay him down and keep his head elevated

    Correct Answer
    A. Sit him down
    Explanation
    When a patient's blood pressure skyrockets during a session, the best course of action is to sit them down. This helps to alleviate the pressure on their cardiovascular system and allows for better blood flow. Laying the patient down, whether flat on their back or with elevated legs or head, may potentially worsen the situation by reducing blood flow to vital organs. Sitting the patient down allows for a more natural and stable position, promoting better blood circulation and potentially preventing complications.

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  • 6. 

    You are reviewing a chart and notice that orthostatic hypotension is listed as a precaution. What should you do to follow this precaution?

    • A.

      Note the patient's skin for edema

    • B.

      Monitor sit to stand BP and watch for any drop in systolic pressure

    • C.

      Ask him to count to 15 and note any breathing changes

    • D.

      Monitor for any difficulty producing speech

    Correct Answer
    B. Monitor sit to stand BP and watch for any drop in systolic pressure
    Explanation
    To follow the precaution of orthostatic hypotension, you should monitor the patient's blood pressure while they transition from sitting to standing and watch for any decrease in their systolic pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where a person's blood pressure drops significantly when they change positions from lying down or sitting to standing, which can cause symptoms like dizziness or fainting. By monitoring the patient's blood pressure during this position change, you can identify any drop in systolic pressure and take appropriate measures to prevent any adverse effects.

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  • 7. 

    Your patient's blood pressure reads at 129/87. You consider his BP as:

    • A.

      Normal

    • B.

      Prehypertension

    • C.

      Hypertension

    Correct Answer
    B. Prehypertension
    Explanation
    The patient's blood pressure reading of 129/87 falls within the prehypertension range. Prehypertension is a condition where the blood pressure is slightly elevated but not yet classified as hypertension. It is important to monitor the patient's blood pressure closely and make lifestyle modifications to prevent it from progressing to hypertension.

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  • 8. 

    When your patient's SpO2 drops lower than 90% is when you should grow concerned.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    92% and lower is considered the "danger zone."

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  • 9. 

    You are reviewing a chart, and you are looking at the results of a patient's troponin test. You are checking the patient's:

    • A.

      Cardiac function

    • B.

      Liver function

    • C.

      Kidney function

    • D.

      Brain function (specifically the thalamus)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac function
    Explanation
    The troponin test is a blood test used to measure the level of troponin, a protein released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle. Therefore, when reviewing the results of a patient's troponin test, you are specifically checking their cardiac function. This test helps in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as heart attacks and other cardiac diseases.

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  • 10. 

    Check the pressure ulcer stage(s) that require(s) surgery to treat.

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 3

    • D.

      Stage 4

    • E.

      No surgery required for any stage. Can all be managed with wound care.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Stage 3
    D. Stage 4
    Explanation
    Stage 3 and Stage 4 pressure ulcers require surgery to treat because they involve extensive tissue damage, including damage to the underlying muscle and bone. These stages of pressure ulcers are more severe and have a higher risk of complications such as infection and necrosis. Surgery may be necessary to remove dead tissue, promote healing, and prevent further damage. Stage 1 and Stage 2 pressure ulcers can typically be managed with wound care and do not typically require surgery.

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  • 11. 

    One of the best ways to prevent a DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is LE movement.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    LE movement refers to movement of the lower extremities, such as walking or flexing the legs. Engaging in regular LE movement helps to prevent blood clots from forming in the deep veins of the legs, which can lead to DVT. By promoting blood flow and preventing blood from pooling in the veins, LE movement reduces the risk of developing a DVT. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 12. 

    The biomechanical FOR is considered rehabilitative.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Considered a remediation approach

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  • 13. 

    Using a splint to improve soft-tissue stretch is considered a LLPS treatment modality.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Remember, LLPS stands for Low Load Prolonged Stretch.

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  • 14. 

    Check all the treatment(s) that is/are associated with the Rehabilitative FOR.

    • A.

      Soft-tissue stretch

    • B.

      A/AA/PROM

    • C.

      Compensation

    • D.

      Aerobic activity

    • E.

      Assistive devices

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Compensation
    E. Assistive devices
    Explanation
    The Rehabilitative FOR (Framework of Reference) focuses on enhancing an individual's functional abilities and promoting independence. Compensation refers to strategies and techniques used to overcome limitations or disabilities, such as modifying the environment or using adaptive equipment. Assistive devices are tools or equipment that assist individuals in performing daily activities or tasks. Both compensation and assistive devices are associated with the Rehabilitative FOR as they aim to support individuals in achieving their maximum potential and improving their overall functioning.

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  • 15. 

    A patient is able to flex her elbow against gravity (going through full ROM) but breaks a few seconds after you apply slight resistance. You would rate her as a:

    • A.

      2+/5

    • B.

      3-/5

    • C.

      3/5

    • D.

      3+/5

    Correct Answer
    D. 3+/5
    Explanation
    The rating of 3+/5 indicates that the patient has moderate strength. The patient is able to flex her elbow against gravity, which suggests that her muscle strength is at least a grade 3. However, when slight resistance is applied, she breaks after a few seconds, indicating that her strength is not fully normal. Therefore, the rating of 3+/5 is appropriate to describe her muscle strength.

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