3d1x5 Comprehensive Ure Test
(206).webp "3d1x5 Comprehensive Ure Test - Quiz")
For use by 3D1X5 personnel for the purpose of CDC EOC testing.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What characteristic of frequency does a radar target moving towards the radar exhibit?
- A.
A lower frequency than the original broadcast
- B.
A higher frequency than the original broadcast
- C.
No apparent frequency change than the original broadcast
- D.
Oscillating lower and higher frequency changes in respect to the original broadcast
Correct Answer
B. A higher frequency than the original broadcastExplanation
When a radar target is moving towards the radar, it exhibits a higher frequency than the original broadcast. This is known as the Doppler effect. As the target moves closer to the radar, the waves are compressed, causing an increase in frequency. This change in frequency is detected by the radar system and used to determine the speed and direction of the target.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What radar subassembly allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna?
- A.
Synchronizer
- B.
Transmitter
- C.
Modulator
- D.
Duplexer
Correct Answer
D. DuplexerExplanation
A duplexer is a radar subassembly that allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna. It is responsible for separating the transmitted and received signals, allowing them to be processed independently. This is important because it allows the radar system to alternate between transmitting and receiving signals without the need for separate antennas. By using a duplexer, the radar system can save space, reduce costs, and improve overall efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 3.
An antenna is said to be reciprocal if
- A.
It is nonlinear
- B.
It transmits patterns
- C.
It contains ferrite devices
- D.
Its transmit and receive patterns are identical
Correct Answer
D. Its transmit and receive patterns are identicalExplanation
A reciprocal antenna is one that exhibits the same transmit and receive patterns. This means that the antenna behaves the same way when transmitting a signal as it does when receiving a signal. In other words, the antenna has the same radiation pattern and characteristics regardless of whether it is transmitting or receiving. This is an important property for many practical applications, as it allows for efficient and reliable communication. None of the other options (nonlinearity, transmission of patterns, or ferrite devices) are directly related to the reciprocity of an antenna.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which feedhorn is used only for receiving?
- A.
Active
- B.
Linear
- C.
Passive
- D.
Circular
Correct Answer
C. PassiveExplanation
Passive feedhorns are used only for receiving signals. Unlike active feedhorns, which can both transmit and receive signals, passive feedhorns are designed solely for the purpose of receiving signals. They do not have any active components or electronics that enable them to transmit signals. Therefore, the correct answer is "Passive".Rate this question:
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- 5.
The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar’s
- A.
Gain
- B.
Location
- C.
Purpose
- D.
Power
Correct Answer
C. PurposeExplanation
The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar's purpose. Different radar systems are designed for different purposes, such as air traffic control, weather monitoring, or military surveillance. Each purpose requires a specific beam shape and antenna pattern to achieve optimal performance. For example, a radar system used for air traffic control needs a narrow beam and a focused antenna pattern to accurately track aircraft in a specific area. Therefore, the purpose of the radar system determines the shape of the beam and antenna pattern.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The scanning method used by the radar system refers to the
- A.
Direction of energy into an appropriately shaped beam
- B.
Orientation of the electromagnetic wave as it travels through space
- C.
Motion of the antenna axis (of the beam) as the radar looks for an aircraft
- D.
Efficient launch and reception of electromagnetic energy in the atmosphere or space
Correct Answer
C. Motion of the antenna axis (of the beam) as the radar looks for an aircraftExplanation
The correct answer is "motion of the antenna axis (of the beam) as the radar looks for an aircraft". This means that the radar system scans the area by moving the antenna axis in order to search for an aircraft. This motion allows the radar to cover a wider area and detect any potential targets within its range. By continuously scanning the surroundings, the radar system can track the movement of aircraft and provide accurate information about their location and trajectory.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What scan is identified at the electronic countermeasure receiver by its regular intervals between illuminations?
- A.
Raster
- B.
Conical
- C.
Circular
- D.
Monopulse
Correct Answer
C. CircularExplanation
Circular scan is identified at the electronic countermeasure receiver by its regular intervals between illuminations. This type of scan involves the radar beam rotating in a circular pattern, illuminating the target at regular intervals as it completes each rotation. This allows for a systematic coverage of the surrounding area and provides a consistent and predictable scanning pattern.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which scan radar is also used in the acquisition phase by some airborne intercept radars?
- A.
Raster
- B.
Conical
- C.
Circular
- D.
Monopulse
Correct Answer
A. RasterExplanation
Some airborne intercept radars use the Raster scan radar in the acquisition phase. The Raster scan radar is a type of radar system that scans the target area in a systematic pattern by sweeping a narrow beam in a series of horizontal and vertical lines. This scanning technique allows the radar to gather information about the target's position, velocity, and other characteristics. In the acquisition phase, the radar is searching for and acquiring targets, and the Raster scan radar is used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What causes delayed, but separate, pulses?
- A.
Simultaneous reception of pulse-type information
- B.
Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information
- C.
Electromagnetic (EM) waves reach the receiving antenna by direct paths
- D.
EM waves reach the receiving antenna by indirect paths
Correct Answer
B. Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type informationExplanation
Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information causes delayed, but separate, pulses. This means that the pulses are received at slightly different times, resulting in a delay between them. However, they are still separate and distinct pulses, not overlapping or simultaneous. This could occur, for example, when multiple signals are transmitted from different sources and received by the same antenna, causing a slight delay in the reception of each pulse.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Attempts to reduce multipath effects on radar tracking accuracy include the use of
- A.
Off-axis tracking
- B.
Frequency agility
- C.
Monopulse radar
- D.
Off-boresight tracking
Correct Answer
B. Frequency agilityExplanation
Frequency agility refers to the ability of a radar system to rapidly change its operating frequency. By doing so, the radar can avoid or mitigate the effects of multipath interference, which occurs when radar signals bounce off objects and create additional echoes. By changing the frequency, the radar can minimize the impact of these echoes and improve tracking accuracy. This technique is commonly used in radar systems to enhance their performance in challenging environments with multiple reflections.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What type of radar system uses a B-scan indicator?
- A.
Long-range surveillance
- B.
Airport surveillance
- C.
Precision approach
- D.
Weather
Correct Answer
C. Precision approachExplanation
A radar system that uses a B-scan indicator is typically used for precision approach. Precision approach radar systems are specifically designed to provide accurate and detailed information about an aircraft's position and altitude during the final stages of landing. The B-scan indicator is a display feature that shows a cross-sectional view of the aircraft's altitude profile, allowing for precise monitoring and adjustment of the aircraft's descent path. This type of radar system is crucial for ensuring a safe and accurate landing, particularly in low visibility conditions or at airports with challenging terrain.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What target information is provided by a plan-position indicator?
- A.
Azimuth only
- B.
Elevation only
- C.
Range and azimuth
- D.
Elevation and range
Correct Answer
C. Range and azimuthExplanation
A plan-position indicator provides information about the range and azimuth of a target. Range refers to the distance between the radar and the target, while azimuth refers to the horizontal angle between the radar and the target. By providing both range and azimuth information, a plan-position indicator can give a complete picture of the target's location in relation to the radar. This information is crucial for tracking and identifying targets in radar systems.Rate this question:
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- 13.
In a Raster scan indicator, how many vertical scan periods does it take to produce one complete picture?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
In a raster scan indicator, it takes two vertical scan periods to produce one complete picture. This is because the raster scan works by scanning the image from top to bottom, line by line. The first scan period covers half of the picture, scanning every other line, while the second scan period completes the picture by scanning the remaining lines. Therefore, it requires two vertical scan periods to display the entire image on the screen.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)
- A.
Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken
- B.
Keeps the phosphor coating from burning
- C.
Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates
- D.
Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules
Correct Answer
D. Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air moleculesExplanation
The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT) prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules. In a CRT, an electron beam is generated and accelerated towards a phosphor coating, which emits light when struck by the electrons. The vacuum inside the CRT ensures that there are no air molecules present to hinder the movement of the electrons, allowing them to travel freely and accurately hit the phosphor coating. If there were air molecules present, the electrons would collide with them, causing scattering and distortion of the electron beam, ultimately affecting the display quality.Rate this question:
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- 15.
An X pulse is present in a selective identification feature code train when
- A.
A Mode 4 reply is being received
- B.
The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile
- C.
The aircraft is declaring a military emergency
- D.
It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position
Correct Answer
B. The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missileExplanation
The presence of an X pulse in a selective identification feature code train indicates that the aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile. This is because the X pulse is specifically associated with pilotless drones or missiles, and it serves as a way to identify their position or presence. The other options mentioned, such as receiving a Mode 4 reply, declaring a military emergency, or being requested by the radar operator, do not directly correspond to the presence of an X pulse.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which selective identification feature special response explains a 7500 reply?
- A.
Communication failure
- B.
Military emergency
- C.
Engine failure
- D.
Hijacking
Correct Answer
D. HijackingExplanation
The special response that explains a 7500 reply is hijacking. When an aircraft transmits the code "7500" to air traffic control, it indicates that the aircraft has been hijacked or is under the threat of hijacking. This code is part of the selective identification feature used in aviation communication systems to quickly and discreetly alert authorities of a hijacking situation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the AN/UPM–155 radar test set capable of testing?
- A.
Interrogators and associated components
- B.
Radar antenna orientation
- C.
Radar jamming strength
- D.
Radar receivers
Correct Answer
A. Interrogators and associated componentsExplanation
The AN/UPM-155 radar test set is capable of testing interrogators and associated components. This means that it can assess the performance and functionality of the equipment used for interrogating other radar systems. It can verify the proper functioning of the interrogators and ensure that they are able to effectively communicate with other radar systems. Additionally, the test set can also evaluate the associated components that are used in conjunction with the interrogators, such as antennas, signal processors, and data links.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?
- A.
Amplitude of the modulating signal
- B.
Frequency of the modulating signal
- C.
Amplitude of the carrier signal
- D.
Frequency of the carrier signal
Correct Answer
B. Frequency of the modulating signalExplanation
The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In frequency modulation, the amount of oscillator frequency change is
- A.
Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
- B.
Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
- C.
Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal
- D.
Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal
Correct Answer
B. Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signalExplanation
In frequency modulation, the amount of oscillator frequency change is directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases, the frequency deviation of the carrier signal also increases. This relationship is due to the fact that the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in proportion to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal. Therefore, a higher amplitude modulating signal will result in a greater change in the frequency of the carrier signal.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In phase modulation, the carrier’s
- A.
Phase shifts at the rate of the modulating signal
- B.
Phase shifts with the phase of the modulating signal
- C.
Amplitude shifts at the rate of the modulating signal
- D.
Amplitude shifts with the phase of the modulating signal
Correct Answer
A. Phase shifts at the rate of the modulating signalExplanation
In phase modulation, the phase of the carrier signal changes in accordance with the changes in the modulating signal. This means that the phase of the carrier signal shifts at the same rate as the modulating signal. The amplitude of the carrier signal, on the other hand, remains constant. Therefore, the correct answer is "phase shifts at the rate of the modulating signal."Rate this question:
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- 21.
What size bit combinations are allowed when using 16–phase shift keying?
- A.
2 bit
- B.
3 bit
- C.
4 bit
- D.
5 bit
Correct Answer
C. 4 bitExplanation
16-phase shift keying allows for 4-bit combinations. This means that each symbol in the transmitted signal can represent 4 bits of information. With 4-bit combinations, a total of 16 different symbols can be used to convey data.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How is the parity bit used in asynchronous transmission?
- A.
By the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly
- B.
By the transmitting device to verify that the transmission was transmitted correctly
- C.
By the modulator device to verify that the intelligence signal was received correctly
- D.
By the band limiting device to verify that the output signal was transmitted correctly
Correct Answer
A. By the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctlyExplanation
The parity bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly. Parity bit is an extra bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either odd or even. The transmitting device adds the parity bit to the data, and the receiving device checks if the number of 1s in the received data matches the expected parity. If they don't match, it indicates that there was an error in the transmission. Therefore, the receiving device uses the parity bit to verify the correctness of the received transmission.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How does synchronous transmission reduce the overhead costs of data transmission?
- A.
Communicates in parallel format
- B.
Blocks many characters together for transmission
- C.
Eliminates the control bits, so more message data can be sent
- D.
Uses low cost equipment to support synchronous transmission
Correct Answer
B. Blocks many characters together for transmissionExplanation
Synchronous transmission reduces the overhead costs of data transmission by blocking many characters together for transmission. This means that multiple characters are sent as a single unit, reducing the number of control bits and increasing the amount of message data that can be sent. By transmitting multiple characters together, the transmission process becomes more efficient and reduces the overall overhead costs.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
- A.
Receiving end
- B.
In the oscillator
- C.
Transmitting end
- D.
In the primary buffers
Correct Answer
A. Receiving endExplanation
Error correction takes place at the receiving end when using forward error control as a method of error correction. This means that the errors are detected and corrected after the data has been transmitted and received. The receiving end is responsible for identifying any errors in the received data and applying the necessary corrections to ensure accurate and reliable data transmission.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic cable?
- A.
The easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables reduces security risks
- B.
Fiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable
- C.
Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables
- D.
Nuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cable
Correct Answer
C. Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cablesExplanation
Fiber optic cables are not affected by electromagnetic fields. This is because they use light signals to transmit data, rather than electrical signals. Unlike copper cables, which can experience interference from electromagnetic fields, fiber optic cables are immune to this type of interference. This advantage makes fiber optic cables more reliable and less prone to signal degradation, making them ideal for use in environments with high levels of electromagnetic interference, such as near power lines or in industrial settings.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which statement describes a security feature of using fiber optic cable?
- A.
Easy to encrypt data
- B.
Low signal attenuation
- C.
Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticed
- D.
Fiber optic cables are considerably smaller than metallic cable
Correct Answer
C. Virtually impossible to tap a fiber optic cable unnoticedExplanation
Fiber optic cables are virtually impossible to tap unnoticed because they do not emit any electromagnetic signals that can be intercepted. Unlike metallic cables, which can be tapped by attaching a device to the cable and intercepting the electrical signals, fiber optic cables use light pulses to transmit data, making it extremely difficult for someone to tap into the cable without being detected.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Most fiber optic links use infrared light and consist of what frequency range?
- A.
400 to 750 nm
- B.
750 to 1500 nm
- C.
400 to 750 mm
- D.
750 to 1500 mm
Correct Answer
B. 750 to 1500 nmExplanation
Most fiber optic links use infrared light because it has a longer wavelength and can transmit data over long distances without significant loss. The frequency range of 750 to 1500 nm falls within the infrared spectrum, making it the correct range for fiber optic links. The other options, 400 to 750 nm and 400 to 750 mm, are not within the infrared spectrum and are therefore incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When considering light wave propagation, what is the name of the angle between the normal in the first material and the ray that is bounced back in the first material?
- A.
Angle of refraction
- B.
Angle of incidence
- C.
Angle of reflection
- D.
Critical angle
Correct Answer
C. Angle of reflectionExplanation
The angle between the normal in the first material and the ray that is bounced back in the first material is called the angle of reflection.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What is the principle on which fiber optics work?
- A.
Total internal reflection
- B.
Refraction of light
- C.
Light wavelengths
- D.
Rays of incidence
Correct Answer
A. Total internal reflectionExplanation
Fiber optics work on the principle of total internal reflection. This occurs when light traveling through a medium with a higher refractive index encounters the boundary with a medium of lower refractive index at an angle greater than the critical angle. Instead of being refracted, the light is reflected back into the medium. In fiber optics, this phenomenon allows the transmission of light signals through the fiber by bouncing the light off the walls of the fiber core, ensuring minimal loss of signal strength.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What occurs because of imperfections in an optical fiber’s basic structure?
- A.
Absorption
- B.
Scattering
- C.
Reflection
- D.
Dispersion
Correct Answer
B. ScatteringExplanation
Imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure cause scattering. Scattering refers to the phenomenon where light waves are deflected and dispersed in different directions due to variations in the refractive index of the fiber. These imperfections can be in the form of impurities, irregularities in the fiber's core or cladding, or structural defects. Scattering leads to the loss of signal strength and can result in reduced transmission quality and distance in optical communication systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is reduced through the use of index matching fluids on fiber optic connectors?
- A.
Macrobends
- B.
Bandwidths
- C.
Fresnal reflection
- D.
Spectral attenuation
Correct Answer
C. Fresnal reflectionExplanation
The use of index matching fluids on fiber optic connectors helps to reduce Fresnel reflection. Fresnel reflection occurs when there is a mismatch of refractive index between the fiber and the connector, leading to the loss of light signal. Index matching fluids minimize this reflection by matching the refractive indices of the fiber and the connector, allowing for efficient transmission of light signals through the fiber optic system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the most useful way to classify fiber optic cable?
- A.
Fiber material and number of fibers
- B.
Buffer type and application method
- C.
Numerical aperture and cable elements
- D.
Refractive index profile and number of modes
Correct Answer
D. Refractive index profile and number of modesExplanation
The most useful way to classify fiber optic cable is based on the refractive index profile and the number of modes. The refractive index profile refers to the way the refractive index changes across the core of the fiber, which affects the way light propagates through the cable. The number of modes refers to the number of different paths that light can take within the fiber. These two characteristics are important in determining the performance and capabilities of the fiber optic cable.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?
- A.
Circuit jacks
- B.
Rotary switch
- C.
Range pushbutton
- D.
Touch-hold pushbutton
Correct Answer
B. Rotary switchExplanation
The rotary switch is the feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter that allows you to select various measurement functions. By turning the rotary switch, you can choose the specific measurement function you want to use, such as voltage, current, resistance, or continuity. This feature provides convenience and ease of use, allowing you to quickly switch between different measurement options without the need for additional buttons or settings.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)?
- A.
Microamps direct current (DC)
- B.
Microamps AC
- C.
Milliamps/amp DC
- D.
Milliamps/amp AC
Correct Answer
D. Milliamps/amp ACExplanation
To measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC) on the Fluke 8025A, you would select the "Milliamps/amp AC" current range. This range is specifically designed to measure alternating current in milliamps.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is caused by low-insulation resistance between conductors?
- A.
High-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise
- B.
Fresnel reflection, dispersion, and scattering
- C.
High-impedance, capacitance, and rectification
- D.
Low-attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and absorption
Correct Answer
A. High-attenuation, crosstalk, and noiseExplanation
Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause high-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise. When the insulation resistance is low, it means that there is a leakage of current between the conductors. This leakage can result in a decrease in signal strength, leading to high-attenuation. Additionally, the leakage current can interfere with adjacent conductors, causing crosstalk, which is the unwanted transfer of signals between them. Furthermore, the leakage current can introduce unwanted electrical noise into the system, leading to noise interference. Therefore, low-insulation resistance can cause these issues.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When will insulation resistance increases?
- A.
Length of insulation increases
- B.
Area of the conductor increases
- C.
Thickness of the insulating material increases
- D.
Thickness and length of insulating material increases
Correct Answer
C. Thickness of the insulating material increasesExplanation
Insulation resistance increases when the thickness of the insulating material increases. This is because a thicker insulating material provides a greater barrier to the flow of electric current, reducing the chances of leakage or short circuits. It effectively prevents the current from passing through the insulation and ensures that the conductive material is well insulated. As a result, the insulation resistance increases, improving the overall safety and performance of the electrical system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When using the AN/PSM–2 megger, how do you apply the correct regulated output voltage?
- A.
Turn the hand-crank until an arc is present
- B.
Turn the hand-crank until the needle set has stopped moving
- C.
Turn the hand-crank and monitor the megger’s output with another meter
- D.
Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow
Correct Answer
D. Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow -
- 38.
What type of megohmmeter do you use on paper insulated conductor cable?
- A.
500 volt
- B.
1000 volt
- C.
1500 volt
- D.
2500 volt
Correct Answer
A. 500 voltExplanation
The correct answer is 500 volt. This is because paper insulated conductor cables typically have lower insulation resistance compared to other types of cables. Therefore, a lower voltage megohmmeter, such as a 500 volt one, is sufficient to measure the insulation resistance accurately without causing any damage to the cable.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How many probes are normally used for an earth ground tester?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
An earth ground tester typically uses 3 probes. These probes are used to measure the resistance between the grounding system and the earth, ensuring that the electrical system is properly grounded. By using 3 probes, the tester can obtain more accurate measurements and detect any potential issues with the grounding system.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the earth ground standard for communications facilities?
- A.
10 ohms or less
- B.
10 ohms or more
- C.
25 ohms or less
- D.
25 ohms or more
Correct Answer
A. 10 ohms or lessExplanation
The earth ground standard for communications facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the earth ground and the communications facility should be 10 ohms or lower. This is important for ensuring proper grounding and protection against electrical faults or surges. A lower resistance value indicates a better and more effective grounding system, which helps to prevent damage to equipment and ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
- A.
Current probe
- B.
Passive 1:1 probe
- C.
Active field effect transistor probe
- D.
Passive divider, 10:1 probe
Correct Answer
A. Current probeExplanation
A current probe is a type of probe that does not need to make physical contact with the circuit under test. It uses a magnetic field to measure the current flowing through a conductor without interrupting the circuit. This is achieved by placing the current-carrying conductor inside the probe's magnetic field. The probe then detects the magnetic field and converts it into a measurable current. This non-contact method makes it convenient and safe to measure high currents or currents in circuits where direct contact is not possible or desirable.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
- A.
Sequential records
- B.
Waveform points
- C.
Record lengths
- D.
Record points
Correct Answer
B. Waveform pointsExplanation
The answer "waveform points" is correct because in a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in memory as waveform points. These waveform points represent the amplitude values of the waveform at specific time intervals. By storing the waveform points, the oscilloscope can accurately recreate and display the waveform on the screen for analysis. Sequential records, record lengths, and record points are not the correct terms to describe the storage of sampled data points in a digital storage oscilloscope.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the frequency range of an audio signal generator?
- A.
10 Hz to 10 kHz
- B.
20 Hz to 20 kHz
- C.
10 kHz to 10GHz
- D.
20 kHz to 35 MHz
Correct Answer
B. 20 Hz to 20 kHzExplanation
The frequency range of an audio signal generator is typically 20 Hz to 20 kHz. This range covers the audible frequencies for human hearing, allowing the generator to produce a wide range of tones and sounds within the normal hearing range. Frequencies below 20 Hz and above 20 kHz are generally considered to be outside of the audible range for most people.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?
- A.
Verifying transmitter frequencies
- B.
Troubleshooting receivers
- C.
Checking antenna systems
- D.
Aligning galvanometers
Correct Answer
D. Aligning galvanometersExplanation
Aligning galvanometers is not an application of a radio frequency generator. A radio frequency generator is used for various purposes related to radio frequencies, such as verifying transmitter frequencies, troubleshooting receivers, and checking antenna systems. However, aligning galvanometers is not directly related to radio frequencies but rather involves calibrating and adjusting the sensitivity of galvanometers, which are instruments used to measure small electrical currents.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How is a radio frequency generator used?
- A.
Monitor odd harmonics
- B.
Align telemetry receivers
- C.
Modulate subcarrier oscillators
- D.
Check galvanometer frequency response
Correct Answer
B. Align telemetry receiversExplanation
A radio frequency generator is used to align telemetry receivers. This means that it is used to adjust the settings and parameters of the receivers in order to optimize their performance and ensure accurate reception of telemetry signals. By aligning the receivers, any potential issues or inaccuracies in the reception can be identified and corrected, resulting in improved overall functionality and reliability of the telemetry system.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What does a power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicate?
- A.
Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard
- B.
Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard
- C.
Actual power level expressed in milliwatts
- D.
Actual power level expressed in megawatts
Correct Answer
A. Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standardExplanation
A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard. This means that the power level being measured is compared to the power level of 1 milliwatt. The dBm unit is commonly used in telecommunications and signal strength measurements to express power levels in a logarithmic scale. It provides a convenient way to compare power levels and signal strengths.Rate this question:
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- 47.
If someone says, “we doubled our transmitter power;” how much is the gain in dB?
- A.
3 dB
- B.
6 dB
- C.
9 dB
- D.
12 dB
Correct Answer
A. 3 dBExplanation
When someone says "we doubled our transmitter power," it means that the power has been increased by a factor of 2. In terms of decibels (dB), a doubling of power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB. This is because the dB scale is logarithmic, and a 3 dB increase represents a doubling of power. Therefore, the gain in dB when the transmitter power is doubled is 3 dB.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter system are determined by the
- A.
Digital display
- B.
Selected sensor
- C.
Power meter
- D.
Interface
Correct Answer
B. Selected sensorExplanation
The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter system are determined by the selected sensor. Different sensors have different capabilities and specifications, such as frequency range and power handling capacity. Therefore, by selecting a specific sensor for the power meter system, the user can determine the frequency and power ranges that can be measured accurately.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which measurement is not made with a spectrum analyzer?
- A.
Frequency stability
- B.
Peak-peak voltage
- C.
Amplitude modulation
- D.
Subcarrier oscillator outputs
Correct Answer
B. Peak-peak voltageExplanation
A spectrum analyzer is a device used to measure and display the frequency spectrum of a signal. It is commonly used to analyze the amplitude and frequency characteristics of signals. However, it is not designed to directly measure peak-peak voltage, which is the difference between the maximum positive and negative amplitudes of a waveform. Peak-peak voltage is typically measured using an oscilloscope, which is specifically designed for this purpose. Therefore, peak-peak voltage is not made with a spectrum analyzer.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input signal?
- A.
Period
- B.
Scaling
- C.
Frequency
- D.
Time interval
Correct Answer
A. PeriodExplanation
Period represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input signal. It is the time taken for one complete cycle of a repeating waveform. In the context of electronic counter measurement, the period refers to the time it takes for a signal to complete one full cycle. Therefore, it represents the average bit-to-bit time of the input signal.Rate this question:
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Apr 10, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Mar 16, 2014Quiz Created by
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