Pathology Exam 1 Review.

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  • 1/117 Questions

    Cerebral infarcts due to focal obstruction of blood flow may arise from either thrombotic or embolic arterial occlusion

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

Most questions taken from Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th ed.

Pathology Exam 1 Review. - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When subaracchnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, the circle of willis should be carefully examined for a berry aneurysm.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When a subarachnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, it is important to carefully examine the circle of Willis for a berry aneurysm. This is because a berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage, and it is important to identify and understand the presence of this condition in order to determine the cause of the hemorrhage. Therefore, it is true that the circle of Willis should be carefully examined in such cases.

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  • 3. 

    What is the 11th cranial nerve?

    Correct Answer
    Accessory, Accessory nerve
    Explanation
    The 11th cranial nerve is called the Accessory nerve. This nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of the neck and shoulders. It helps in movements such as turning the head, shrugging the shoulders, and tilting the head to the side. The Accessory nerve also plays a role in swallowing and speaking.

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  • 4. 

    Tinea pedis is also known as?

    • Athlete's foot

    • Athlete's jumper knee

    • Frostbite on toes

    • Tophus

    Correct Answer
    A. Athlete's foot
    Explanation
    Tinea pedis is the medical term for a common fungal infection of the feet, commonly known as athlete's foot. It is characterized by itching, redness, and peeling of the skin on the feet, particularly between the toes. The term "athlete's foot" is widely used to describe this condition because it is commonly seen in athletes who frequently wear tight-fitting shoes and engage in activities that cause their feet to become sweaty. The other options, such as athlete's jumper knee, frostbite on toes, and tophus, are unrelated conditions and not alternate names for tinea pedis.

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  • 5. 

    Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?

    • Right

    • Left

    Correct Answer
    A. Right
    Explanation
    The right primary bronchus is more prone to aspiration because it is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left primary bronchus. This anatomical difference makes it easier for foreign objects or substances to enter and get lodged in the right bronchus, leading to aspiration.

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  • 6. 

    What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?

    • Astrocytes

    • Neurons

    • Ependymal

    • Oligodendroglial

    Correct Answer
    A. Neurons
    Explanation
    Neurons are the most sensitive cells to hypoxia because they have a high demand for oxygen and are extremely sensitive to oxygen deprivation. Unlike other cells, neurons cannot store energy in the form of glycogen, making them reliant on a continuous supply of oxygen for energy production. Without sufficient oxygen, neurons are unable to generate ATP, leading to cellular dysfunction and ultimately cell death.

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  • 7. 

    Multiple small brain infarcts often associated with hypertension may cause dementia.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can lead to the development of small brain infarcts, which are areas of dead tissue in the brain caused by a lack of blood supply. When these infarcts occur frequently, they can contribute to the development of dementia. Dementia is a broad term that refers to a decline in cognitive function, memory, and thinking skills. Therefore, it is true that multiple small brain infarcts associated with hypertension can cause dementia.

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  • 8. 

    Embryonal carcinoma is _____ aggressive than seminomas.

    • More

    • Less

    • Same

    Correct Answer
    A. More
    Explanation
    Embryonal carcinoma is more aggressive than seminomas. This means that embryonal carcinoma has a higher tendency to grow and spread rapidly compared to seminomas. It is a type of testicular cancer that is characterized by aggressive behavior and a higher risk of metastasis. Seminomas, on the other hand, are typically less aggressive and have a better prognosis.

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  • 9. 

    T/F, Strawberry hemangiomas normally metastisize.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Strawberry hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that occur in infants. They typically appear as bright red or strawberry-colored raised patches on the skin. These tumors are known to grow rapidly during the first year of life and then gradually shrink and disappear without any treatment. It is important to note that strawberry hemangiomas are not cancerous and do not metastasize or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 10. 

    Schwannoma's have antoni A and B growth patterns

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Schwannomas are tumors that arise from Schwann cells, which are responsible for the formation of the myelin sheath around nerve fibers. These tumors typically exhibit two distinct growth patterns known as Antoni A and Antoni B. Antoni A areas are characterized by densely packed Schwann cells forming a palisading pattern, while Antoni B areas have a looser arrangement of cells with a myxoid background. Therefore, the statement that schwannomas have Antoni A and B growth patterns is true.

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  • 11. 

    Nasal polyps are?

    • Neoplastic

    • Inflammatory response to allergy

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammatory response to allergy
    Explanation
    Nasal polyps are growths that occur in the lining of the nasal passages and sinuses. They are not neoplastic, meaning they are not cancerous or tumors. Instead, they are typically caused by chronic inflammation of the nasal passages, which can be a result of allergies. This inflammatory response to allergies can cause the lining of the nasal passages to become swollen and form polyps. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inflammatory response to allergy."

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  • 12. 

    Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis

    • Epispadias

    • Hypospadias

    • Phimosis

    • Paraphimosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypospadias
    Explanation
    Hypospadias is a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis instead of at the tip. This malformation of the urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis is the characteristic feature of hypospadias. In this condition, the urethra does not extend to the tip of the penis, causing difficulties in urination and sexual function. Surgical correction is often required to reposition the urethral opening to the tip of the penis.

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  • 13. 

    T/f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage occur most often with rupture of a berry aneurysm.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Subarachnoid hemorrhage refers to bleeding in the space between the brain and the thin tissues that cover it. It is most commonly caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm, which is a small, sac-like bulge that forms in a weak area of a blood vessel in the brain. When the aneurysm ruptures, it leads to bleeding into the subarachnoid space, resulting in a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Therefore, it is correct to say that subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs most often with the rupture of a berry aneurysm.

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  • 14. 

    If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?

    • External Carotid

    • Lingual

    • Facial

    • Occipital

    • Middle Meningeal

    Correct Answer
    A. Middle Meningeal
    Explanation
    If a skull is fractured, the artery that is potentially severed is the Middle Meningeal artery. Fractures to the skull can cause damage to the blood vessels running through it, including the Middle Meningeal artery. This artery is located between the dura mater and the skull, and a fracture can result in the artery being severed or damaged, leading to bleeding and potentially serious complications.

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  • 15. 

    What is the commonest infection?

    • Cold

    • UTI

    Correct Answer
    A. Cold
    Explanation
    The commonest infection refers to the most frequently occurring or widespread infection. In this case, the correct answer is "Cold" because the common cold is a highly prevalent viral infection that affects a large number of people worldwide. It is characterized by symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sore throat, cough, and sneezing. UTI (urinary tract infection) is also a common infection, but it is not as widespread or prevalent as the common cold.

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  • 16. 

    A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:

    • Cryptorchidism

    • Balanoposthitis

    • Epispadias

    • Chylocele

    Correct Answer
    A. Balanoposthitis
    Explanation
    Balanoposthitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and infection of the glans penis and prepuce. It can be caused by poor hygiene, irritation, or certain infections. Symptoms may include redness, swelling, discharge, and discomfort in the affected area. Treatment typically involves proper hygiene, topical medications, and in some cases, oral antibiotics. Cryptorchidism refers to undescended testicles, epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis, and chylocele is an accumulation of lymphatic fluid in the scrotum.

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  • 17. 

    Venous drainage system of brain courses through dural sinuses, but there is no lymphatic drainage?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the venous drainage system of the brain does indeed course through dural sinuses. However, there is no lymphatic drainage system in the brain. This is due to the presence of the blood-brain barrier, which prevents the entry of large molecules, including lymphatic vessels. Therefore, waste products and excess fluid from the brain are cleared through the venous system rather than the lymphatic system.

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  • 18. 

    Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?

    • Between Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries

    • Between Middle and Posterior cerebral arteries

    • Between left and right Anterior cerebral arteries

    • Between Medial and Lateral cerebreal arteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Between Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries
    Explanation
    The watershed area between the anterior and middle cerebral arteries is most sensitive to infarction. This is because this region is located at the boundary between two major arteries, making it more susceptible to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply. Infarction refers to the death of tissue due to lack of blood flow, and the watershed area is particularly vulnerable to this because it receives blood supply from two different sources, making it more prone to ischemia when blood flow is compromised.

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  • 19. 

    T/F.  In a subfalcine herniation, cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx, which may compromise the anterior cerebral artery.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In a subfalcine herniation, the cingulate gyrus, which is a part of the brain, herniates or moves under the falx, a fold of dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres. This herniation can potentially compress or compromise the anterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for supplying blood to the front part of the brain. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 20. 

    What autosomal dominant, bilateral kidney disease (that accounts for 10% of chronic renal failure) causes cysts?

    • Polycystic kidney dz

    • Medullary sponge kidney

    • Adult onset medullary cystic dz

    • Acquired cystic dz.

    Correct Answer
    A. Polycystic kidney dz
    Explanation
    Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic disorder characterized by the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys. It is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that an affected individual has a 50% chance of passing the disease on to each of their children. Polycystic kidney disease is bilateral, meaning that it affects both kidneys, and it is a common cause of chronic renal failure, accounting for about 10% of cases. The other options listed are not associated with the same characteristics or prevalence as polycystic kidney disease.

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  • 21. 

    RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    RPGN stands for rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which is a type of kidney disease. It is characterized by inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, the small blood vessels in the kidneys. RPGN is considered autoimmune because it occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the kidneys, leading to their dysfunction. Additionally, it is considered idiopathic because the exact cause of RPGN is unknown. Therefore, the statement that RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic is true.

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  • 22. 

    Both leydig and sertoli cell tumors produce androgens or estrogens, but which one is more likely to produce them in levels high enough to show clinical manifestations (i.e. gynecomastia)

    • Leydig

    • Sertoli

    Correct Answer
    A. Leydig
    Explanation
    Leydig cell tumors are more likely to produce androgens or estrogens in levels high enough to show clinical manifestations such as gynecomastia. Gynecomastia is the development of breast tissue in males, which can be caused by an imbalance of hormones. Leydig cells are responsible for producing testosterone, which is an androgen hormone. Therefore, if there is an abnormal growth or tumor in the Leydig cells, it can lead to excessive production of androgens, resulting in gynecomastia. Sertoli cell tumors, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with infertility rather than hormone imbalances.

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  • 23. 

    Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"

    • 2;2

    • 2;3

    • 3;2

    • 3;3

    • 1;2

    Correct Answer
    A. 3;2
    Explanation
    Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as "a persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause." This means that for a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis, the individual must have a cough with sputum production for a minimum of 3 months in a row, and this must occur for at least 2 years. The other options provided do not meet this criteria, therefore the correct answer is 3;2.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a pattern of glomerular dz?

    • Focal

    • Segmental

    • Diffuse

    • Fusiform

    Correct Answer
    A. Fusiform
    Explanation
    Fusiform is not a pattern of glomerular disease. Glomerular disease refers to conditions that affect the glomeruli, which are tiny blood vessels in the kidneys. Focal, segmental, and diffuse are all patterns of glomerular disease, but fusiform is not. Fusiform usually refers to a spindle-shaped enlargement or dilation of a blood vessel, which is not directly related to glomerular disease.

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  • 25. 

    Alport syndrome, thin membrane dz and Fabry dz are secondary, hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Alport syndrome, thin membrane disease, and Fabry disease are indeed secondary hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis. Alport syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the glomerular basement membrane, leading to progressive kidney damage. Thin membrane disease is characterized by a thinning of the glomerular basement membrane, also resulting in glomerulonephritis. Fabry disease is caused by a mutation in the GLA gene, leading to the accumulation of a fatty substance in the kidneys and other organs, causing glomerulonephritis. Therefore, all three conditions are hereditary and can result in glomerulonephritis.

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  • 26. 

    Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:

    • Epispadias

    • Hypospadias

    • Balanoposthitis

    • Paraphimosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Paraphimosis
    Explanation
    Paraphimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the glans and cannot be pulled back to its original position. This can lead to swelling and pain in the glans penis. In this case, the symptoms described are consistent with paraphimosis, making it the correct answer. Epispadias and hypospadias are structural abnormalities of the penis, while balanoposthitis refers to inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin.

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  • 27. 

    Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?

    • Unilaterally

    • Bilaterally

    Correct Answer
    A. Unilaterally
    Explanation
    Cryptorchidism refers to the condition where the testes do not descend properly into the scrotum. The given answer "unilaterally" suggests that cryptorchidism typically occurs on one side of the body. This means that only one testicle fails to descend, while the other one may have descended normally. Bilateral cryptorchidism, on the other hand, would mean that both testes have failed to descend.

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  • 28. 

    Pulmonary sequestration is:

    • A hamartomatous lesion of the lung

    • Presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system

    • Abnormal detachment of primitive foregut and most often located in the hilum or middle mediastinum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system
    Explanation
    Pulmonary sequestration refers to the presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue that is not connected to the normal airway system. This means that the mass of lung tissue is not receiving oxygen or participating in the normal respiratory function of the lungs. It is a separate entity that can be supplied by abnormal blood vessels, leading to potential complications. This condition is different from a hamartomatous lesion of the lung, which is a benign tumor-like growth composed of normal lung tissue. Pulmonary sequestration is most commonly found in the hilum or middle mediastinum.

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  • 29. 

    The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.

    • True; false

    • False; true

    Correct Answer
    A. False; true
    Explanation
    The statement "false; true" means that the first part of the statement is false, which is "The ____ cord has glands," and the second part is true, which is "while the ____ has muscle." This suggests that there is a cord in question, but it does not have glands. On the other hand, there is another entity mentioned that does have muscle.

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  • 30. 

    Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?

    • Erythroplasia of queyrat

    • Bowenoid papulosis

    • Condyloma acuminatum

    • Bowen disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Condyloma acuminatum
    Explanation
    Condyloma acuminatum is a correct answer because it is a benign epithelial proliferation caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It is a sexually transmitted infection that commonly affects the anogenital region. Condyloma acuminatum presents as raised, cauliflower-like lesions and is typically asymptomatic. It can be diagnosed through visual inspection and confirmed with histopathological examination. Treatment options include topical medications, cryotherapy, or surgical excision.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are cerebrovascular dz except.

    • Ischemia, hypoxia and infarction

    • Intracranial hemorrhage

    • Hypertensive cerebrovascular dz

    • Werdnig-Hoffmann dz

    Correct Answer
    A. Werdnig-Hoffmann dz
    Explanation
    Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, also known as spinal muscular atrophy type 1, is a genetic disorder that affects the motor neurons in the spinal cord. It is not a cerebrovascular disease, which refers to conditions affecting the blood vessels in the brain. Cerebrovascular diseases include ischemia, hypoxia, infarction, intracranial hemorrhage, and hypertensive cerebrovascular disease.

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  • 32. 

    Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?

    • Pseudomonas

    • Streptococcus

    • Klebsiella

    • Staphylococcus

    • Haemopholis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pseudomonas
    Explanation
    Pseudomonas is the correct answer because it is a common bacteria that can cause infections in various parts of the body, including the skin and wounds. It is known to produce a green-blue pus or exudate, which is a sign of infection. Streptococcus, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus, and Haemophilus are also bacteria that can cause infections, but they are not typically associated with a green-blue purulent exudate.

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  • 33. 

    Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):

    • Epispadias

    • Hypospadias

    • Phimosis

    • Paraphimosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Phimosis
    Explanation
    Phimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis is too tight and cannot be fully retracted over the glans. This can be caused by inflammation, scarring, or congenital factors. The abnormally small orifice in the prepuce is a characteristic feature of phimosis. Epispadias is a condition where the urethral opening is on the upper surface of the penis, hypospadias is a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis, and paraphimosis is a condition where the retracted foreskin cannot be returned to its normal position.

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  • 34. 

    Adnexal skin tumors include the following except?

    • Cylindroma

    • Leukoplakia

    • Syringoma

    • Eccrine poroma

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukoplakia
    Explanation
    Leukoplakia is not an adnexal skin tumor. Adnexal skin tumors refer to tumors that arise from the structures associated with the skin, such as hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands. Cylindroma, syringoma, and eccrine poroma are all examples of adnexal skin tumors. Leukoplakia, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by white patches on the mucous membranes of the mouth, tongue, or other areas of the body. It is not a tumor but rather a precancerous condition that can potentially develop into oral cancer.

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  • 35. 

    Nodular gummas are associated with?

    • TB

    • Gonorrhea

    • Syphilis

    • Mumps

    Correct Answer
    A. Syphilis
    Explanation
    Nodular gummas are a characteristic manifestation of syphilis. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Gummas are soft, tumor-like growths that can develop in various organs and tissues, including the skin and mucous membranes. They typically occur in the late stages of syphilis and are a result of the body's immune response to the infection. Therefore, syphilis is the correct answer as it is directly associated with the development of nodular gummas.

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  • 36. 

    What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?

    • Centrilobular

    • Panacinar

    • Distal acinar

    Correct Answer
    A. Panacinar
    Explanation
    Panacinar emphysema is characterized by uniform enlargement of the acini from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli. This means that the entire acinus is affected, resulting in destruction of the alveolar walls and loss of lung elasticity. It is commonly associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic disorder that leads to a deficiency of the enzyme needed to protect the lungs from damage. Panacinar emphysema is typically seen in the lower lobes of the lungs and can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath and coughing.

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  • 37. 

    T/F. In infants an children in whom fusion of the cranial bones has not yet occurred, hydrocephalus produces hypoplasia of the head.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to an increase in intracranial pressure. In infants and children, where the fusion of cranial bones has not yet occurred, the skull is still flexible and can expand to accommodate the increased fluid. Therefore, hydrocephalus does not result in hypoplasia or underdevelopment of the head in this population. Hence, the correct answer is False.

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  • 38. 

    The blood brain barrier breaks down in which of the following?

    • Kernicterus

    • Intracerebral hemorrhage

    • Brain abscesses

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The blood brain barrier is a protective barrier that prevents harmful substances from entering the brain. However, in certain conditions, such as kernicterus, intracerebral hemorrhage, and brain abscesses, the blood brain barrier can break down. This breakdown allows substances and cells to pass through the barrier and enter the brain, potentially causing damage and inflammation. Therefore, all of the above conditions can lead to the breakdown of the blood brain barrier.

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  • 39. 

    What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?

    • Agenesis

    • Pulmonary Sequestration

    • Pulmonary Hypoplasia

    • Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)

    • Atresia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary Hypoplasia
    Explanation
    Pulmonary hypoplasia is the correct answer because it refers to the defective development of both lungs, leading to decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age. This condition is characterized by underdeveloped lungs, which can result in respiratory difficulties and other complications.

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  • 40. 

    What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?

    • Psuedostratified columnar

    • Stratified squamous

    Correct Answer
    A. Psuedostratified columnar
    Explanation
    The ventricles of the glottis have pseudostratified columnar epithelium. This type of epithelium is characterized by cells that appear layered or stratified, but all cells are in contact with the basement membrane. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is commonly found in the respiratory system, where it helps to trap and move mucus and particles out of the airways. In the ventricles of the glottis, this type of epithelium is important for maintaining the structure and function of the vocal cords.

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  • 41. 

    Panacinar emphysema is associated with?

    • Smoking

    • Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

    • Scarring due to inflammation or infection

    • Trauma

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
    Explanation
    Panacinar emphysema is a type of emphysema characterized by the destruction of the alveoli throughout the entire respiratory zone. It is most commonly associated with alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic disorder that leads to a deficiency of the enzyme alpha 1 antitrypsin. This enzyme normally protects the lungs from damage caused by neutrophil elastase, an enzyme involved in the breakdown of connective tissue in the lungs. Without sufficient alpha 1 antitrypsin, neutrophil elastase is unchecked and causes destruction of the alveoli, leading to panacinar emphysema. Smoking, scarring due to inflammation or infection, and trauma are not typically associated with panacinar emphysema.

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  • 42. 

    Picks disease and alzheimer's dz can always be distinguished by neurological exam?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    False. Pick's disease and Alzheimer's disease cannot always be distinguished by a neurological exam. While both conditions are types of dementia that can have similar symptoms, they have different underlying causes and patterns of brain damage. A definitive diagnosis often requires a combination of clinical evaluation, imaging tests, and sometimes even post-mortem examination of the brain tissue. Therefore, a neurological exam alone may not be sufficient to differentiate between Pick's disease and Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 43. 

    What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?

    • Right Sided CHF

    • Left Sided CHF

    • Cor Bovinum

    • Pulmonary valve insufficiency

    • Tricuspid valve stenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Left Sided CHF
    Explanation
    Left sided congestive heart failure (CHF) is the most common cause of hemodynamic (cardiogenic) pulmonary edema. In left sided CHF, the left ventricle of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body, causing fluid to back up into the lungs. This leads to an increase in pressure in the pulmonary vasculature, resulting in fluid leaking into the alveoli and causing pulmonary edema. Symptoms of left sided CHF include shortness of breath, coughing, and fluid retention. Treatment typically involves managing the underlying cause of the CHF and addressing fluid overload through diuretics and other medications.

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  • 44. 

    What are the hallmarks of glomerular dz?

    • Hypercellularity

    • BM thickening

    • Hyalinization and sclerosis

    • All of the above

    • A and C only

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The hallmarks of glomerular disease include hypercellularity, basement membrane thickening, and hyalinization and sclerosis. Hypercellularity refers to an increase in the number of cells in the glomerulus, which can be seen in conditions such as glomerulonephritis. Basement membrane thickening is a characteristic feature of diseases like diabetic nephropathy and membranous nephropathy. Hyalinization and sclerosis refer to the deposition of hyaline material and the formation of scar tissue in the glomerulus, often seen in conditions like focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Therefore, all of the above options are correct hallmarks of glomerular disease.

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  • 45. 

    70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the:

    • Medial

    • Peripheral

    • Anterior

    • Mid

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral
    Explanation
    70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the peripheral zone of the prostate. The peripheral zone is the outermost part of the prostate gland and is where the majority of prostate cancers originate. This zone is located towards the back of the prostate and surrounds the central zone and transitional zone. Understanding the location of prostate carcinomas is important for diagnosis, treatment, and management of prostate cancer.

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  • 46. 

    Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?

    • Astrocytoma

    • Chordoma

    • Meningioma

    • Craniopharyngioma

    • Glioblastoma Multiforme

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningioma
    Explanation
    Psammoma bodies are concentrically laminated calcifications that are commonly seen in meningiomas. Meningiomas are slow-growing tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. Psammoma bodies are a characteristic histological feature of meningiomas and can be identified under a microscope. These bodies are formed by the deposition of calcium salts around cellular debris or collagenous material. Therefore, the correct answer is meningioma.

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  • 47. 

    What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?

    • Ruptured blebs

    • Trauma

    • Infection

    • Smoking

    Correct Answer
    A. Trauma
    Explanation
    Trauma is the most common cause of pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs when air accumulates in the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. Trauma, such as a car accident or a fall, can cause a rib fracture or a puncture in the lung, leading to pneumothorax. Other causes, such as ruptured blebs (small air-filled sacs on the lung), infection, or smoking, can also contribute to pneumothorax, but trauma is the most common cause.

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  • 48. 

    Stevens-Jonson syndrome is a form of what in children?

    • Erythema Multiforme

    • Lichen planus

    • Photosensitive dermatitis

    • Mastocytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythema Multiforme
    Explanation
    Erythema Multiforme is a form of Stevens-Johnson syndrome in children. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that causes the skin to blister and peel. Erythema Multiforme is characterized by the appearance of target-like lesions on the skin, which can be triggered by infections, medications, or other factors. It is important to note that Stevens-Johnson syndrome can also occur in adults, but in this question, the focus is on its occurrence in children.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder?

    • Melasma

    • Lentigo

    • Dysplastic Nevi

    • Syringioma

    Correct Answer
    A. Syringioma
    Explanation
    Syringioma is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder because it is a benign tumor that originates from the sweat ducts, not from melanocytes or pigmentation cells. Melasma, lentigo, and dysplastic nevi are all examples of pigmentation and melanocyte disorders.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 20, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Ajsellner
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