Pathology Exam 1 Review.

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1. Cerebral infarcts due to focal obstruction of blood flow may arise from either thrombotic or embolic arterial occlusion

Explanation

This statement is true because cerebral infarcts, which are areas of dead brain tissue due to lack of blood flow, can occur as a result of either thrombotic or embolic arterial occlusion. Thrombotic occlusion refers to the formation of a blood clot within a blood vessel, leading to blockage of blood flow. Embolic occlusion, on the other hand, occurs when a clot or other material travels from another part of the body and gets lodged in a blood vessel in the brain, causing blockage. Both of these mechanisms can result in cerebral infarcts.

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About This Quiz
Pathology Exam 1 Review. - Quiz

Most questions taken from Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th ed.

2. When subaracchnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, the circle of willis should be carefully examined for a berry aneurysm.

Explanation

When a subarachnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, it is important to carefully examine the circle of Willis for a berry aneurysm. This is because a berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage, and it is important to identify and understand the presence of this condition in order to determine the cause of the hemorrhage. Therefore, it is true that the circle of Willis should be carefully examined in such cases.

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3. What is the 11th cranial nerve?

Explanation

The 11th cranial nerve is called the Accessory nerve. This nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of the neck and shoulders. It helps in movements such as turning the head, shrugging the shoulders, and tilting the head to the side. The Accessory nerve also plays a role in swallowing and speaking.

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4. Tinea pedis is also known as?

Explanation

Tinea pedis is the medical term for a common fungal infection of the feet, commonly known as athlete's foot. It is characterized by itching, redness, and peeling of the skin on the feet, particularly between the toes. The term "athlete's foot" is widely used to describe this condition because it is commonly seen in athletes who frequently wear tight-fitting shoes and engage in activities that cause their feet to become sweaty. The other options, such as athlete's jumper knee, frostbite on toes, and tophus, are unrelated conditions and not alternate names for tinea pedis.

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5. Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?

Explanation

The right primary bronchus is more prone to aspiration because it is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left primary bronchus. This anatomical difference makes it easier for foreign objects or substances to enter and get lodged in the right bronchus, leading to aspiration.

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6. What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?

Explanation

Neurons are the most sensitive cells to hypoxia because they have a high demand for oxygen and are extremely sensitive to oxygen deprivation. Unlike other cells, neurons cannot store energy in the form of glycogen, making them reliant on a continuous supply of oxygen for energy production. Without sufficient oxygen, neurons are unable to generate ATP, leading to cellular dysfunction and ultimately cell death.

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7. Multiple small brain infarcts often associated with hypertension may cause dementia.

Explanation

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can lead to the development of small brain infarcts, which are areas of dead tissue in the brain caused by a lack of blood supply. When these infarcts occur frequently, they can contribute to the development of dementia. Dementia is a broad term that refers to a decline in cognitive function, memory, and thinking skills. Therefore, it is true that multiple small brain infarcts associated with hypertension can cause dementia.

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8. Embryonal carcinoma is _____ aggressive than seminomas.

Explanation

Embryonal carcinoma is more aggressive than seminomas. This means that embryonal carcinoma has a higher tendency to grow and spread rapidly compared to seminomas. It is a type of testicular cancer that is characterized by aggressive behavior and a higher risk of metastasis. Seminomas, on the other hand, are typically less aggressive and have a better prognosis.

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9. T/F, Strawberry hemangiomas normally metastisize.

Explanation

Strawberry hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that occur in infants. They typically appear as bright red or strawberry-colored raised patches on the skin. These tumors are known to grow rapidly during the first year of life and then gradually shrink and disappear without any treatment. It is important to note that strawberry hemangiomas are not cancerous and do not metastasize or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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10. Schwannoma's have antoni A and B growth patterns

Explanation

Schwannomas are tumors that arise from Schwann cells, which are responsible for the formation of the myelin sheath around nerve fibers. These tumors typically exhibit two distinct growth patterns known as Antoni A and Antoni B. Antoni A areas are characterized by densely packed Schwann cells forming a palisading pattern, while Antoni B areas have a looser arrangement of cells with a myxoid background. Therefore, the statement that schwannomas have Antoni A and B growth patterns is true.

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11. Nasal polyps are?

Explanation

Nasal polyps are growths that occur in the lining of the nasal passages and sinuses. They are not neoplastic, meaning they are not cancerous or tumors. Instead, they are typically caused by chronic inflammation of the nasal passages, which can be a result of allergies. This inflammatory response to allergies can cause the lining of the nasal passages to become swollen and form polyps. Therefore, the correct answer is "Inflammatory response to allergy."

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12. Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis

Explanation

Hypospadias is a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis instead of at the tip. This malformation of the urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis is the characteristic feature of hypospadias. In this condition, the urethra does not extend to the tip of the penis, causing difficulties in urination and sexual function. Surgical correction is often required to reposition the urethral opening to the tip of the penis.

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13. T/f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage occur most often with rupture of a berry aneurysm.

Explanation

Subarachnoid hemorrhage refers to bleeding in the space between the brain and the thin tissues that cover it. It is most commonly caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm, which is a small, sac-like bulge that forms in a weak area of a blood vessel in the brain. When the aneurysm ruptures, it leads to bleeding into the subarachnoid space, resulting in a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Therefore, it is correct to say that subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs most often with the rupture of a berry aneurysm.

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14. If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?

Explanation

If a skull is fractured, the artery that is potentially severed is the Middle Meningeal artery. Fractures to the skull can cause damage to the blood vessels running through it, including the Middle Meningeal artery. This artery is located between the dura mater and the skull, and a fracture can result in the artery being severed or damaged, leading to bleeding and potentially serious complications.

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15. What is the commonest infection?

Explanation

The commonest infection refers to the most frequently occurring or widespread infection. In this case, the correct answer is "Cold" because the common cold is a highly prevalent viral infection that affects a large number of people worldwide. It is characterized by symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sore throat, cough, and sneezing. UTI (urinary tract infection) is also a common infection, but it is not as widespread or prevalent as the common cold.

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16. A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:

Explanation

Balanoposthitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and infection of the glans penis and prepuce. It can be caused by poor hygiene, irritation, or certain infections. Symptoms may include redness, swelling, discharge, and discomfort in the affected area. Treatment typically involves proper hygiene, topical medications, and in some cases, oral antibiotics. Cryptorchidism refers to undescended testicles, epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis, and chylocele is an accumulation of lymphatic fluid in the scrotum.

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17. Venous drainage system of brain courses through dural sinuses, but there is no lymphatic drainage?

Explanation

The statement is true because the venous drainage system of the brain does indeed course through dural sinuses. However, there is no lymphatic drainage system in the brain. This is due to the presence of the blood-brain barrier, which prevents the entry of large molecules, including lymphatic vessels. Therefore, waste products and excess fluid from the brain are cleared through the venous system rather than the lymphatic system.

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18. Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?

Explanation

The watershed area between the anterior and middle cerebral arteries is most sensitive to infarction. This is because this region is located at the boundary between two major arteries, making it more susceptible to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply. Infarction refers to the death of tissue due to lack of blood flow, and the watershed area is particularly vulnerable to this because it receives blood supply from two different sources, making it more prone to ischemia when blood flow is compromised.

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19. T/F.  In a subfalcine herniation, cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx, which may compromise the anterior cerebral artery.

Explanation

In a subfalcine herniation, the cingulate gyrus, which is a part of the brain, herniates or moves under the falx, a fold of dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres. This herniation can potentially compress or compromise the anterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for supplying blood to the front part of the brain. Therefore, the statement is true.

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20. What autosomal dominant, bilateral kidney disease (that accounts for 10% of chronic renal failure) causes cysts?

Explanation

Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic disorder characterized by the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys. It is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that an affected individual has a 50% chance of passing the disease on to each of their children. Polycystic kidney disease is bilateral, meaning that it affects both kidneys, and it is a common cause of chronic renal failure, accounting for about 10% of cases. The other options listed are not associated with the same characteristics or prevalence as polycystic kidney disease.

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21. RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic.

Explanation

RPGN stands for rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which is a type of kidney disease. It is characterized by inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, the small blood vessels in the kidneys. RPGN is considered autoimmune because it occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the kidneys, leading to their dysfunction. Additionally, it is considered idiopathic because the exact cause of RPGN is unknown. Therefore, the statement that RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic is true.

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22. Both leydig and sertoli cell tumors produce androgens or estrogens, but which one is more likely to produce them in levels high enough to show clinical manifestations (i.e. gynecomastia)

Explanation

Leydig cell tumors are more likely to produce androgens or estrogens in levels high enough to show clinical manifestations such as gynecomastia. Gynecomastia is the development of breast tissue in males, which can be caused by an imbalance of hormones. Leydig cells are responsible for producing testosterone, which is an androgen hormone. Therefore, if there is an abnormal growth or tumor in the Leydig cells, it can lead to excessive production of androgens, resulting in gynecomastia. Sertoli cell tumors, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with infertility rather than hormone imbalances.

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23. Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"

Explanation

Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as "a persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause." This means that for a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis, the individual must have a cough with sputum production for a minimum of 3 months in a row, and this must occur for at least 2 years. The other options provided do not meet this criteria, therefore the correct answer is 3;2.

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24. Which of the following is not a pattern of glomerular dz?

Explanation

Fusiform is not a pattern of glomerular disease. Glomerular disease refers to conditions that affect the glomeruli, which are tiny blood vessels in the kidneys. Focal, segmental, and diffuse are all patterns of glomerular disease, but fusiform is not. Fusiform usually refers to a spindle-shaped enlargement or dilation of a blood vessel, which is not directly related to glomerular disease.

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25. Alport syndrome, thin membrane dz and Fabry dz are secondary, hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis?

Explanation

Alport syndrome, thin membrane disease, and Fabry disease are indeed secondary hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis. Alport syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the glomerular basement membrane, leading to progressive kidney damage. Thin membrane disease is characterized by a thinning of the glomerular basement membrane, also resulting in glomerulonephritis. Fabry disease is caused by a mutation in the GLA gene, leading to the accumulation of a fatty substance in the kidneys and other organs, causing glomerulonephritis. Therefore, all three conditions are hereditary and can result in glomerulonephritis.

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26. Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:

Explanation

Paraphimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the glans and cannot be pulled back to its original position. This can lead to swelling and pain in the glans penis. In this case, the symptoms described are consistent with paraphimosis, making it the correct answer. Epispadias and hypospadias are structural abnormalities of the penis, while balanoposthitis refers to inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin.

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27. Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?

Explanation

Cryptorchidism refers to the condition where the testes do not descend properly into the scrotum. The given answer "unilaterally" suggests that cryptorchidism typically occurs on one side of the body. This means that only one testicle fails to descend, while the other one may have descended normally. Bilateral cryptorchidism, on the other hand, would mean that both testes have failed to descend.

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28. Pulmonary sequestration is:

Explanation

Pulmonary sequestration refers to the presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue that is not connected to the normal airway system. This means that the mass of lung tissue is not receiving oxygen or participating in the normal respiratory function of the lungs. It is a separate entity that can be supplied by abnormal blood vessels, leading to potential complications. This condition is different from a hamartomatous lesion of the lung, which is a benign tumor-like growth composed of normal lung tissue. Pulmonary sequestration is most commonly found in the hilum or middle mediastinum.

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29. The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.

Explanation

The statement "false; true" means that the first part of the statement is false, which is "The ____ cord has glands," and the second part is true, which is "while the ____ has muscle." This suggests that there is a cord in question, but it does not have glands. On the other hand, there is another entity mentioned that does have muscle.

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30. Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?

Explanation

Condyloma acuminatum is a correct answer because it is a benign epithelial proliferation caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It is a sexually transmitted infection that commonly affects the anogenital region. Condyloma acuminatum presents as raised, cauliflower-like lesions and is typically asymptomatic. It can be diagnosed through visual inspection and confirmed with histopathological examination. Treatment options include topical medications, cryotherapy, or surgical excision.

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31. All of the following are cerebrovascular dz except.

Explanation

Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, also known as spinal muscular atrophy type 1, is a genetic disorder that affects the motor neurons in the spinal cord. It is not a cerebrovascular disease, which refers to conditions affecting the blood vessels in the brain. Cerebrovascular diseases include ischemia, hypoxia, infarction, intracranial hemorrhage, and hypertensive cerebrovascular disease.

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32. Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?

Explanation

Pseudomonas is the correct answer because it is a common bacteria that can cause infections in various parts of the body, including the skin and wounds. It is known to produce a green-blue pus or exudate, which is a sign of infection. Streptococcus, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus, and Haemophilus are also bacteria that can cause infections, but they are not typically associated with a green-blue purulent exudate.

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33. Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):

Explanation

Phimosis refers to the condition where the foreskin of the penis is too tight and cannot be fully retracted over the glans. This can be caused by inflammation, scarring, or congenital factors. The abnormally small orifice in the prepuce is a characteristic feature of phimosis. Epispadias is a condition where the urethral opening is on the upper surface of the penis, hypospadias is a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis, and paraphimosis is a condition where the retracted foreskin cannot be returned to its normal position.

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34. Adnexal skin tumors include the following except?

Explanation

Leukoplakia is not an adnexal skin tumor. Adnexal skin tumors refer to tumors that arise from the structures associated with the skin, such as hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands. Cylindroma, syringoma, and eccrine poroma are all examples of adnexal skin tumors. Leukoplakia, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by white patches on the mucous membranes of the mouth, tongue, or other areas of the body. It is not a tumor but rather a precancerous condition that can potentially develop into oral cancer.

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35. Nodular gummas are associated with?

Explanation

Nodular gummas are a characteristic manifestation of syphilis. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Gummas are soft, tumor-like growths that can develop in various organs and tissues, including the skin and mucous membranes. They typically occur in the late stages of syphilis and are a result of the body's immune response to the infection. Therefore, syphilis is the correct answer as it is directly associated with the development of nodular gummas.

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36. What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?

Explanation

Panacinar emphysema is characterized by uniform enlargement of the acini from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli. This means that the entire acinus is affected, resulting in destruction of the alveolar walls and loss of lung elasticity. It is commonly associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic disorder that leads to a deficiency of the enzyme needed to protect the lungs from damage. Panacinar emphysema is typically seen in the lower lobes of the lungs and can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath and coughing.

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37. T/F. In infants an children in whom fusion of the cranial bones has not yet occurred, hydrocephalus produces hypoplasia of the head.

Explanation

Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to an increase in intracranial pressure. In infants and children, where the fusion of cranial bones has not yet occurred, the skull is still flexible and can expand to accommodate the increased fluid. Therefore, hydrocephalus does not result in hypoplasia or underdevelopment of the head in this population. Hence, the correct answer is False.

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38. The blood brain barrier breaks down in which of the following?

Explanation

The blood brain barrier is a protective barrier that prevents harmful substances from entering the brain. However, in certain conditions, such as kernicterus, intracerebral hemorrhage, and brain abscesses, the blood brain barrier can break down. This breakdown allows substances and cells to pass through the barrier and enter the brain, potentially causing damage and inflammation. Therefore, all of the above conditions can lead to the breakdown of the blood brain barrier.

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39. What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?

Explanation

Pulmonary hypoplasia is the correct answer because it refers to the defective development of both lungs, leading to decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age. This condition is characterized by underdeveloped lungs, which can result in respiratory difficulties and other complications.

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40. What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?

Explanation

The ventricles of the glottis have pseudostratified columnar epithelium. This type of epithelium is characterized by cells that appear layered or stratified, but all cells are in contact with the basement membrane. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is commonly found in the respiratory system, where it helps to trap and move mucus and particles out of the airways. In the ventricles of the glottis, this type of epithelium is important for maintaining the structure and function of the vocal cords.

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41. Panacinar emphysema is associated with?

Explanation

Panacinar emphysema is a type of emphysema characterized by the destruction of the alveoli throughout the entire respiratory zone. It is most commonly associated with alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic disorder that leads to a deficiency of the enzyme alpha 1 antitrypsin. This enzyme normally protects the lungs from damage caused by neutrophil elastase, an enzyme involved in the breakdown of connective tissue in the lungs. Without sufficient alpha 1 antitrypsin, neutrophil elastase is unchecked and causes destruction of the alveoli, leading to panacinar emphysema. Smoking, scarring due to inflammation or infection, and trauma are not typically associated with panacinar emphysema.

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42. Picks disease and alzheimer's dz can always be distinguished by neurological exam?

Explanation

False. Pick's disease and Alzheimer's disease cannot always be distinguished by a neurological exam. While both conditions are types of dementia that can have similar symptoms, they have different underlying causes and patterns of brain damage. A definitive diagnosis often requires a combination of clinical evaluation, imaging tests, and sometimes even post-mortem examination of the brain tissue. Therefore, a neurological exam alone may not be sufficient to differentiate between Pick's disease and Alzheimer's disease.

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43. What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?

Explanation

Left sided congestive heart failure (CHF) is the most common cause of hemodynamic (cardiogenic) pulmonary edema. In left sided CHF, the left ventricle of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body, causing fluid to back up into the lungs. This leads to an increase in pressure in the pulmonary vasculature, resulting in fluid leaking into the alveoli and causing pulmonary edema. Symptoms of left sided CHF include shortness of breath, coughing, and fluid retention. Treatment typically involves managing the underlying cause of the CHF and addressing fluid overload through diuretics and other medications.

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44. What are the hallmarks of glomerular dz?

Explanation

The hallmarks of glomerular disease include hypercellularity, basement membrane thickening, and hyalinization and sclerosis. Hypercellularity refers to an increase in the number of cells in the glomerulus, which can be seen in conditions such as glomerulonephritis. Basement membrane thickening is a characteristic feature of diseases like diabetic nephropathy and membranous nephropathy. Hyalinization and sclerosis refer to the deposition of hyaline material and the formation of scar tissue in the glomerulus, often seen in conditions like focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Therefore, all of the above options are correct hallmarks of glomerular disease.

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45. 70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the:

Explanation

70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the peripheral zone of the prostate. The peripheral zone is the outermost part of the prostate gland and is where the majority of prostate cancers originate. This zone is located towards the back of the prostate and surrounds the central zone and transitional zone. Understanding the location of prostate carcinomas is important for diagnosis, treatment, and management of prostate cancer.

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46. Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?

Explanation

Psammoma bodies are concentrically laminated calcifications that are commonly seen in meningiomas. Meningiomas are slow-growing tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. Psammoma bodies are a characteristic histological feature of meningiomas and can be identified under a microscope. These bodies are formed by the deposition of calcium salts around cellular debris or collagenous material. Therefore, the correct answer is meningioma.

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47. What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?

Explanation

Trauma is the most common cause of pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs when air accumulates in the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. Trauma, such as a car accident or a fall, can cause a rib fracture or a puncture in the lung, leading to pneumothorax. Other causes, such as ruptured blebs (small air-filled sacs on the lung), infection, or smoking, can also contribute to pneumothorax, but trauma is the most common cause.

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48. Stevens-Jonson syndrome is a form of what in children?

Explanation

Erythema Multiforme is a form of Stevens-Johnson syndrome in children. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that causes the skin to blister and peel. Erythema Multiforme is characterized by the appearance of target-like lesions on the skin, which can be triggered by infections, medications, or other factors. It is important to note that Stevens-Johnson syndrome can also occur in adults, but in this question, the focus is on its occurrence in children.

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49. Which is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder?

Explanation

Syringioma is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder because it is a benign tumor that originates from the sweat ducts, not from melanocytes or pigmentation cells. Melasma, lentigo, and dysplastic nevi are all examples of pigmentation and melanocyte disorders.

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50. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage and vascular malformation are all considered nontraumatic intracranial hemorrhages

Explanation

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and vascular malformation are all types of intracranial hemorrhages that occur within the brain without any external trauma. These conditions can result in bleeding within the brain tissue or in the space between the brain and the skull. Therefore, it is correct to say that they are nontraumatic intracranial hemorrhages.

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51. What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma? 

Explanation

A subdural hematoma is usually caused by the rupture of bridging veins. These veins connect the surface of the brain to the dural sinuses, which are blood vessels located between the layers of the meninges. When these bridging veins tear or rupture, blood accumulates in the potential space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, resulting in a subdural hematoma. This condition can be caused by trauma or sometimes occur spontaneously in elderly individuals due to age-related brain atrophy. Berry aneurysms and the superior sagittal sinus are not typically associated with subdural hematomas.

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52. Nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis are often associated with:

Explanation

Nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis are often associated with UTI (Urinary Tract Infection). UTIs can cause inflammation and infection in the epididymis and testicles, leading to symptoms such as pain, swelling, and discomfort. Bacteria from the urinary tract can travel to the reproductive system, causing these complications. Prompt treatment of the UTI is necessary to prevent further complications and alleviate symptoms.

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53. Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum?

Explanation

An elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum are all indicative of asthma. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cells that are typically elevated in asthma due to inflammation. Curschmann spirals are twisted mucus plugs that can be found in the sputum of individuals with asthma. Charcot-Leyden crystals are formed from the breakdown of eosinophils and are often present in the sputum of asthmatic patients. Therefore, the presence of these findings suggests a diagnosis of asthma.

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54. Cystic renal dysplasia is sporadic and non-familial from metanephric differentiation?

Explanation

Cystic renal dysplasia is a sporadic and non-familial condition that arises from metanephric differentiation. This means that it occurs randomly and is not inherited from family members. The condition is characterized by the formation of cysts in the kidneys during the development of the metanephric tissue. This explanation aligns with the statement that the answer is true.

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55. If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture, what kind of hematoma will occur?

Explanation

p. 1359

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56. Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.

Explanation

Viral infections typically cause interstitial pneumonia. Interstitial pneumonia is a type of lung infection that primarily affects the areas between the alveoli, the tiny air sacs in the lungs. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling in the interstitial spaces, which can lead to difficulty in breathing and a dry cough. Unlike lobar pneumonia, which affects one or more lobes of the lungs, interstitial pneumonia is more diffuse and affects a larger area of the lungs. Viral infections such as influenza, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and COVID-19 are commonly associated with interstitial pneumonia.

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57. Panniculitis is inflammation of?

Explanation

Panniculitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue, which is the layer of fat and connective tissue located beneath the skin. This inflammation can cause painful nodules or lumps to form in the affected area. It is important to note that panniculitis can have various causes, including infection, trauma, autoimmune disorders, and certain medications. Therefore, the correct answer is subcutaneous tissue as it accurately identifies the location of inflammation in panniculitis.

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58. Where is an ectopic kidney normally found?

Explanation

An ectopic kidney is a condition where the kidney is not located in its usual position in the abdomen. Instead, it is found in an abnormal location, which is typically the pelvic region. This abnormal positioning of the kidney can occur due to developmental abnormalities during fetal development. The pelvic region provides more space for the ectopic kidney to be accommodated, making it a common location for this condition. The uterus and upper pole are not typically associated with the location of an ectopic kidney.

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59. What medullary kidney dz causes multiple cystic dilations in collecting ducts of medulla?

Explanation

Medullary sponge kidney is a medullary kidney disease that causes multiple cystic dilations in the collecting ducts of the medulla. This condition is characterized by the formation of cysts in the renal tubules, leading to the dilation and enlargement of these structures. It is a congenital disorder that is typically asymptomatic but can cause symptoms such as recurrent urinary tract infections and kidney stones. Polycystic kidney disease and acquired cystic disease are different conditions that do not specifically involve cystic dilations in the collecting ducts of the medulla.

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60. What is the most common pleural tumor?

Explanation

The most common pleural tumor is metastatic from lung, breast, or ovary. This means that tumors originating from these organs can spread to the pleura, the thin membrane that lines the lungs and chest cavity. Metastatic tumors occur when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and travel through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to other parts of the body. In this case, the primary tumor is located in the lung, breast, or ovary, and it has spread to the pleura. Mesothelioma and squamous cell CA are also types of pleural tumors, but they are not as common as metastatic tumors from lung, breast, or ovary.

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61. Alveolar macrophages are also known as?

Explanation

Alveolar macrophages are commonly referred to as "dust cells" because they are responsible for engulfing and removing inhaled particles, including dust, from the lungs. These cells play a crucial role in maintaining respiratory health by preventing the buildup of harmful substances in the alveoli. The term "dust cells" accurately describes their function and location within the alveolar spaces.

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62. Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:

Explanation

Epispadias is a condition characterized by the malformation of the urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis. This means that the urethral opening is located on the upper side of the penis, rather than at the tip. This condition can cause difficulties with urination and may require surgical intervention to correct. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis. Phimosis refers to a condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted from the head of the penis, while paraphimosis is a condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the head of the penis.

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63. The Birbeck granule is associated with what dz?

Explanation

The Birbeck granule is a characteristic feature of Langerhans cells, which are involved in the pathogenesis of histiocytosis X. Histiocytosis X is a group of rare disorders characterized by the accumulation of abnormal histiocytes in various tissues. These disorders can affect multiple organs and can present with a wide range of symptoms depending on the organs involved. Therefore, histiocytosis X is the most appropriate association with the Birbeck granule.

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64. Erythema nodosum is a form of panniculitis or inflammation that principally affects what?

Explanation

Erythema nodosum is a type of inflammation that primarily affects the connective tissue septa. The connective tissue septa are thin membranes that separate and support the fat lobules in the body. When the connective tissue septa become inflamed, it can result in the characteristic nodules seen in erythema nodosum. Acrochordon refers to a skin tag, and WEN is not a term related to erythema nodosum.

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65. What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?

Explanation

The false cord, also known as the ventricular fold, is a structure in the larynx that helps produce sound. In adults, it is lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium. This type of epithelium is well-suited for protecting underlying tissues from mechanical stress and abrasion. It consists of multiple layers of cells, with the superficial layer being squamous in shape and non-keratinized, meaning it does not contain a tough layer of keratin. This type of epithelium is also found in other areas of the body that require protection, such as the oral cavity and esophagus.

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66. The most common primary lung cancer is?

Explanation

Adenocarcinoma is the most common primary lung cancer because it originates in the cells that line the glands in the lungs. These glands produce mucus, and adenocarcinoma typically develops in areas where mucus is produced, such as the outer parts of the lungs. It is more common in non-smokers and women, and it tends to grow slower than other types of lung cancer. Adenocarcinoma can also spread to other parts of the body, making it important to detect and treat it early.

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67. Xanthomas over the achilles tendon and finger extensor tendons are?

Explanation

Xanthomas are fatty deposits that can develop on tendons. Xanthomas over the Achilles tendon and finger extensor tendons suggest a condition called tendinous xanthoma. This condition is characterized by the formation of yellowish nodules or plaques on the tendons, typically due to high levels of cholesterol or triglycerides in the blood. Treatment usually involves managing the underlying lipid disorder and may include lifestyle changes, medication, or surgical removal of the xanthomas.

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68. Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:

Explanation

The correct answer is Streptococcus pn. and Haemopholis inf. This is because lobar pneumonia is commonly caused by bacterial infections, and Streptococcus pneumoniae (also known as pneumococcus) and Haemophilus influenzae are two of the most common bacterial pathogens associated with this type of pneumonia. These bacteria can infect the lobes (sections) of the lungs, leading to inflammation and consolidation of the affected lung tissue. Other pathogens listed in the options, such as Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Escherichia coli, can also cause pneumonia but are less commonly associated with lobar pneumonia.

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69. In the CNS, which cell is responsible for structural support, contribution to the Blood brain barrier and acts as the metabolic buffers/detoxifiers

Explanation

Astrocytes are a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system (CNS). They are responsible for providing structural support to neurons and maintaining the integrity of the blood-brain barrier, which controls the movement of substances between the blood and the brain. Astrocytes also play a crucial role in regulating the chemical environment of the CNS by acting as metabolic buffers and detoxifiers. They help maintain the balance of ions and neurotransmitters, remove waste products, and provide nutrients to neurons. Therefore, astrocytes are responsible for multiple functions in the CNS, including structural support, contribution to the blood-brain barrier, and metabolic buffering and detoxification.

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70. Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are all lesions of the:

Explanation

Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are all conditions or abnormalities that can occur in the tunica vaginalis. The tunica vaginalis is a double-layered membrane that surrounds the testis and helps to protect and support it. These conditions involve the accumulation of fluid (hydrocele), blood (hematocele), lymphatic fluid (chylocele), sperm (spermatocele), or the enlargement of veins (varicocele) within the tunica vaginalis. Therefore, the correct answer is tunica vaginalis.

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71. All of the following are histologically identical tumors found in different locations except?

Explanation

The answer is "all of the above are histologically identical." This means that dysgerminoma, seminoma, and germinomas are all histologically identical tumors found in different locations. In other words, these tumors have the same microscopic appearance under a microscope, despite being found in different parts of the body.

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72. Which type of Atelectasis is irreversible?

Explanation

p. 714

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73. Acquired cystic dz is often iatrogenic, what is it commonly associated with?

Explanation

Acquired cystic disease (ACD) is a condition characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys of individuals undergoing long-term dialysis treatment. This is commonly associated with dialysis because the process of dialysis can lead to changes in the structure and function of the kidneys, causing the formation of cysts. Other factors such as obesity and certain medications can also contribute to the development of ACD, but dialysis is the most commonly associated factor.

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74. Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant?  Is also often seen in ARDS.

Explanation

Patchy atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant, which is a substance that helps to reduce surface tension in the alveoli of the lungs. Without sufficient surfactant, the alveoli collapse and result in atelectasis. Patchy atelectasis is often seen in Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a condition characterized by severe inflammation and fluid accumulation in the lungs. In ARDS, the loss of surfactant leads to widespread collapse of alveoli, causing patchy areas of atelectasis throughout the lungs.

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75. Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ

Explanation

Condyloma acuminatum is not carcinoma in situ because it is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It is a benign condition characterized by the presence of warts on the genital area. Carcinoma in situ, on the other hand, refers to the early stage of cancer where abnormal cells are present but have not invaded surrounding tissues. Bown disease, Bowen disease, and Bowenoid papulosis are all examples of carcinoma in situ.

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76. (skin) What stage does the initial papillary invasion fall under?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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77. A blockage anywhere along the ventricular system, most often the aqueduct or the foramina of Monro is a _____ hydrocephalus.

Explanation

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus refers to a condition where there is a blockage in the ventricular system, specifically in the aqueduct or the foramina of Monro. This blockage prevents the normal flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from one ventricle to another, leading to an accumulation of CSF and an increase in intracranial pressure. Unlike communicating hydrocephalus, where the flow of CSF is disrupted outside the ventricular system, noncommunicating hydrocephalus occurs within the ventricular system itself.

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78. Multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in souther latitudes.

Explanation

The statement that multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in southern latitudes is false. Multiple sclerosis is actually more common in higher latitudes, particularly in northern regions. This has been observed in various studies and is believed to be linked to factors such as reduced sunlight exposure, vitamin D deficiency, and genetic predisposition. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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79. Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?

Explanation

ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) is a condition characterized by the rapid onset of severe respiratory failure. In radiographic imaging, ARDS presents as "white-out" due to the extensive infiltration of fluid in the lungs, leading to a loss of air space. This is caused by inflammation and damage to the alveoli, leading to impaired oxygen exchange. The "white-out" appearance is due to the increased density of the lungs on the X-ray image, indicating the presence of fluid rather than air.

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80. At what level do Clara Cells first appear?

Explanation

Clara cells first appear at the level of bronchioles. Clara cells are specialized cells found in the lining of the bronchioles in the respiratory system. They secrete a substance called Clara cell secretory protein, which helps protect and maintain the airways. These cells are important in the defense against respiratory infections and play a role in the regulation of lung inflammation.

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81. In Clark and Breslow staging, which depth of invasion corresponds to a 1b stage?

Explanation

In Clark and Breslow staging, a depth of invasion of 1.5mm corresponds to a 1b stage. This means that if the depth of invasion of a tumor is measured to be 1.5mm, it would be classified as stage 1b according to Clark and Breslow staging system.

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82. The herniation that may result in compression of the medulla and may compromise cardiorespiratory centers is the:

Explanation

Tonsillar herniation is the correct answer because it refers to the downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum, which can lead to compression of the medulla. This compression can compromise the function of the cardiorespiratory centers located in the medulla, potentially leading to life-threatening consequences. Transtentorial herniation and subfalcine herniation, although they involve displacement of brain structures, do not specifically involve compression of the medulla and its cardiorespiratory centers.

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83. What medullary kidney dz causes small cysts associated with cortical tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis?

Explanation

Nephronophthisis is a medullary kidney disease that causes small cysts associated with cortical tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis. This condition is characterized by the progressive loss of renal function, leading to end-stage renal disease in childhood or adolescence. It is often inherited in an autosomal recessive manner and can be associated with other genetic disorders, such as Usher syndrome. Polycystic kidney disease, on the other hand, is characterized by the presence of multiple cysts in the kidneys and is not associated with cortical tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis. Acquired cystic disease refers to the development of cysts in the kidneys due to long-term kidney disease or dialysis. Therefore, the correct answer is nephronophthisis (UCMD).

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84. Where are simple renal cysts found and are they multiple or single?

Explanation

Simple renal cysts are fluid-filled sacs that form in the kidneys. They can be found in both the cortex and medulla of the kidneys. These cysts can be either multiple, meaning there are several cysts present, or single, meaning there is only one cyst. Therefore, the correct answer is "cortex, multiple and single."

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85. Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red, sometimes velvety plaque on the glans and prepuce.

Explanation

Erythroplasia of Queyrat is a type of carcinoma in situ that commonly affects the glans and prepuce. It is characterized by the presence of single or multiple red plaques, which may have a velvety appearance. This condition is considered a precancerous lesion and has the potential to progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. Bowen's disease, bowenoid papulosis, and condyloma acuminatum are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, but erythroplasia of Queyrat specifically refers to carcinoma in situ on the glans and prepuce.

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86. What blistering disease occurs in the elderly?

Explanation

Bullous pemphigoid is a blistering disease that commonly occurs in the elderly. It is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the skin, leading to the formation of large, fluid-filled blisters. This condition is more prevalent in older individuals, typically above the age of 60. The blisters are usually itchy and can occur on different parts of the body, including the arms, legs, and abdomen. Bullous pemphigoid can be chronic and may require long-term treatment to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

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87. Which is not a result of cerebral edema?

Explanation

Cerebral edema is the swelling of the brain due to an increase in fluid accumulation. Astrocytosis is a reactive process in which astrocytes, a type of brain cell, proliferate in response to injury or inflammation, and it can be a result of cerebral edema. Uncal herniation and tonsillar herniation are both types of brain herniation, which occur when there is increased pressure within the skull, leading to displacement of brain tissue. These herniations can be caused by cerebral edema. However, a subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the brain and the dura mater, the outermost layer of the meninges. It is not directly caused by cerebral edema, but rather by trauma or injury to the head.

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88. Impetigo is usally resulting from a staph or strep infxn and usually occurs in the Stratum ____?

Explanation

Impetigo is a contagious skin infection that is usually caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria. It affects the outermost layer of the skin, known as the Stratum corneum. This layer consists of dead skin cells that provide a protective barrier for the underlying layers. Impetigo typically appears as red sores or blisters that can break open and form a yellowish crust. Therefore, the correct answer is corneum.

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89. In the CNS the common pathophysiologic complications are:

Explanation

The correct answer is herniations, cerebral edema, and hydrocephalus. In the central nervous system (CNS), these are common pathophysiologic complications. Herniations refer to the displacement of brain tissue through openings within the skull, which can cause compression and damage. Cerebral edema is the accumulation of fluid in the brain, leading to increased pressure and potential tissue injury. Hydrocephalus is the abnormal buildup of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, causing enlargement of the ventricles and increased intracranial pressure. These complications can have serious consequences and require medical intervention.

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90. 50% of cases show a primitive glomeruli (endodermal sinuses)

Explanation

Yolk sac tumors are a type of germ cell tumor that commonly occur in children and young adults. They are characterized by the presence of primitive glomeruli, also known as endodermal sinuses, in 50% of cases. These primitive glomeruli are a unique histological feature of yolk sac tumors and help differentiate them from other types of germ cell tumors such as choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, and teratoma. Therefore, the presence of primitive glomeruli is a key characteristic of yolk sac tumors.

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91. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), however, it is most commonly sporadic in __?

Explanation

Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is most commonly sporadic in 20-40 year old females. This means that the condition often occurs without any known cause or family history, and it is more prevalent in females within the age range of 20 to 40 years. While there can be an association between idiopathic pulmonary hypertension and a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), this is only occasionally seen.

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92. Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over the shaft of the penis:

Explanation

Bowen disease is a type of carcinoma in situ, which means that the abnormal cells are present only in the outermost layer of the skin and have not invaded deeper tissues. It typically presents as a thickened, gray-white plaque on the skin. In this case, the plaque is located on the shaft of the penis. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is a similar condition but typically presents as a red plaque. Bowenoid papulosis is characterized by multiple reddish-brown papules. Condyloma acuminatum refers to genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). None of these conditions match the description given in the question, making Bowen disease the correct answer.

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93. Eosinophilic Reinke crystalloids are found in what tumors?

Explanation

Eosinophilic Reinke crystalloids are typically found in Leydig cell tumors. These tumors are rare and usually benign, originating from the Leydig cells in the testicles. Eosinophilic Reinke crystalloids are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are commonly observed in Leydig cell tumors under microscopic examination. They are considered a characteristic feature of these tumors and can aid in their diagnosis.

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94. What is the most common testicular neoplasm in patients over 60?

Explanation

Testicular lymphoma is the most common testicular neoplasm in patients over 60. Lymphomas are cancers that originate in the lymphatic system, and in this case, it affects the testicles. While seminoma and embryonal neoplasms are more common in younger patients, testicular lymphoma is more prevalent in older individuals. This information suggests that testicular lymphoma is the correct answer for the given question.

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95. The routes of entry of organisms/infections into the nervous system is most commonly through?

Explanation

Organisms or infections can enter the nervous system through various routes. Hematogenous spread refers to the spread of organisms through the bloodstream, which can reach the nervous system through infected blood vessels. Direct implantation occurs when organisms are introduced into the nervous system through trauma or injury, such as a penetrating wound. Local extension and axonal transport involve the spread of infections from nearby structures or through nerve fibers. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as organisms can enter the nervous system through hematogenous spread, direct implantation, or local extension and axonal transport.

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96. Which one does not work to fill in the blanks:   _______ pneumonia is caused by ______.

Explanation

community acquired is mostly from strep pneumonia. according to leo.

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97. What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?

Explanation

IPF = idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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98. Local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic cord:

Explanation

A varicocele, also known as a venous varix, is a local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic cord. It occurs when the valves in the veins that normally prevent blood from flowing backward become weak or damaged, causing blood to pool and the vein to become enlarged. This condition is most commonly found in the scrotum and can cause discomfort, swelling, and infertility. Treatment options include medication to relieve symptoms or surgery to repair the affected veins.

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99. What is the most common form of Nephronophthisis?

Explanation

The most common form of Nephronophthisis is Familial Juvenile recessive. This form is characterized by the onset of symptoms in childhood or adolescence, a progressive decline in kidney function, and the presence of cysts in the kidneys. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, meaning that both copies of the gene must be mutated for the disease to occur. Familial Juvenile sporadic and Familial Juvenile retinal are not the most common forms of Nephronophthisis, and adult onset medullary cystic is a different condition altogether.

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100. The lesion that occur mainly on the face, scalp, and upper trunk (bullous dz) are the?

Explanation

Pemphigus foliaceous is the correct answer because it is a type of bullous disease that primarily affects the face, scalp, and upper trunk. It is characterized by the formation of superficial blisters and erosions on the skin. Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that typically presents with red, scaly patches on various parts of the body, while mastocytosis refers to a group of disorders involving an excessive number of mast cells in the skin and other organs. Pemphigus vulgaris is another type of bullous disease, but it typically affects the mucous membranes rather than the areas mentioned in the question.

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101. What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

Explanation

Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. This condition is characterized by inflammation and thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, leading to increased permeability and loss of proteins in the urine. It is often idiopathic, but can also be secondary to other conditions such as autoimmune disorders, infections, or certain medications. Membranous glomerulonephritis typically presents with symptoms such as edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. Treatment may involve immunosuppressive medications and management of underlying conditions.

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102. Mature teratomas are more common in:

Explanation

Mature teratomas are more common in infants and children. This is because teratomas are typically congenital tumors that arise from germ cells, which are the cells that give rise to eggs and sperm. These tumors are often detected in infancy or childhood, although they can occur in adults as well. The occurrence of mature teratomas in both infants and children supports the answer choice of B and C.

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103. What is the most common form of prostatits

Explanation

Chronic abacterial prostatitis is the most common form of prostatitis. It is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland without evidence of bacterial infection. This condition is often caused by non-infectious factors such as pelvic muscle tension, nerve damage, or autoimmune disorders. Symptoms may include pelvic pain, urinary difficulties, and sexual dysfunction. Unlike acute bacterial prostatitis and chronic bacterial prostatitis, chronic abacterial prostatitis does not involve a bacterial infection. Nodular neoplasm is not a form of prostatitis, but rather a term used to describe a tumor or abnormal growth in the prostate gland.

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104. Which cerebral edema is commonly seen with CVAs, trauma, tumors and infections (with preferential involvement of white matter)

Explanation

Vasogenic edema is commonly seen with CVAs (cerebrovascular accidents), trauma, tumors, and infections, with a preference for involvement of the white matter. This type of edema occurs due to the disruption of the blood-brain barrier, leading to an increased permeability of the blood vessels in the brain. As a result, fluid and proteins leak into the surrounding brain tissue, causing swelling. This edema is characterized by the accumulation of extracellular fluid and is often associated with increased intracranial pressure.

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105. What regions are examined for herniation when there is an increased cranial pressure? (select all that apply)

Explanation

When there is increased cranial pressure, the regions that are examined for herniation include the cingulate gyrus, uncus, and cerebellar tonsils. These regions are particularly vulnerable to herniation due to their location and proximity to other structures in the brain. Herniation can occur when there is a buildup of pressure in the skull, causing these brain regions to shift or compress. Examining these regions is important in diagnosing and managing conditions that can lead to increased cranial pressure.

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106. Golden pneumonia occurs due to?

Explanation

Golden pneumonia occurs due to obstruction. This suggests that the condition is caused by a blockage in the respiratory system, such as in the airways or lungs. This obstruction can lead to the accumulation of fluid and pus in the affected area, resulting in the characteristic golden color seen in the pneumonia. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of the obstruction in order to effectively treat and manage the condition.

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107. Epidermalysis bullosa is associated with?

Explanation

Epidermalysis bullosa, also known as epidermolysis bullosa (EB), is a genetic disorder characterized by extremely fragile skin that blisters and tears easily. It is caused by mutations in genes that are responsible for the production of proteins that help hold the layers of the skin together. Birthing trauma refers to injuries that occur during the process of childbirth, which can include damage to the skin. In rare cases, the trauma of childbirth can trigger the development of epidermolysis bullosa in infants who have a genetic predisposition to the condition. Therefore, birthing trauma is associated with epidermolysis bullosa.

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108. Which of the following is not a common route in which bacteria reach the prostate in acute bacterial prostatitis?

Explanation

Sexual intercourse is not a common route in which bacteria reach the prostate in acute bacterial prostatitis. Acute bacterial prostatitis is usually caused by bacteria that enter the prostate gland through other means such as catheterization, hematogenous seeding (spread of bacteria through the bloodstream), or lymphatics (spread through the lymphatic system). Sexual intercourse can contribute to the development of prostatitis, but it is not a direct route for bacteria to reach the prostate in this condition.

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109. Lymphatic metasteses of germ cell neoplasms is most common in the:

Explanation

Lymphatic metastases of germ cell neoplasms are most commonly found in the retroperitoneal region. This is because the retroperitoneum contains a large number of lymph nodes, which makes it a favorable site for the spread of cancer cells through the lymphatic system. Germ cell neoplasms, which originate from the cells that give rise to sperm or eggs, often spread to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes before spreading to other areas of the body. Therefore, retroperitoneal lymphatic metastases are the most common in germ cell neoplasms.

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110. Testicular atrophy is secondary to all of the following except

Explanation

Testicular atrophy refers to the shrinking or shrinking of the testicles. It can occur due to various factors, including hormonal imbalances and certain medical conditions. Hypopituitarism, malnutrition, and vascular disease are known to be associated with testicular atrophy. However, Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, does not directly cause testicular atrophy. Instead, it leads to underdevelopment of the testicles, resulting in smaller size but not necessarily atrophy.

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111. Which infection causes non-post streptococcal acute proliferative glomerulonephritis?

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above." Non-post streptococcal acute proliferative glomerulonephritis can be caused by infections such as meningitis, staph, and pneumonia. This condition is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the glomeruli in the kidneys, which can lead to kidney damage.

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112. Which cells/areas are most sensitive to hypoxia? (select all that apply)

Explanation

p. 1362 morphology box.

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113. What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?

Explanation

Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the irreversible dilation of the bronchi, which can lead to recurrent infections and chronic inflammation. The most common cause of bronchiectasis is necrotizing pneumonia. This occurs when there is tissue death in the lung due to a severe infection, leading to the destruction of the bronchial walls and subsequent dilation. Other causes such as obstruction (tumor, foreign bodies, mucous plugs), congenital factors (cystic fibrosis), and idiopathic reasons can also contribute to the development of bronchiectasis, but necrotizing pneumonia is the most frequently observed cause.

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114. What is a rare blistering disease that presents as a verrucous plaque in flexural areas?

Explanation

Pemphigus vegetans is a rare blistering disease that manifests as a verrucous plaque in flexural areas. It is characterized by the formation of large, moist, and vegetating lesions, typically in the groin, axilla, and perineal regions. This condition is a variant of pemphigus vulgaris, which is also a blistering disease but presents with flaccid blisters on the skin and mucous membranes. Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disease, but it typically presents with tense blisters and is more common in elderly individuals. "Bullous disease" is a generic term that encompasses various blistering diseases and is not specific to the given presentation.

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115. Select all that apply.  The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:

Explanation

The correct answer is glandular hypertrophy, goblet cell hyperplasia, mucous production, and muscular hypertrophy. These lesions are commonly associated with bronchitis. Glandular hypertrophy refers to the enlargement of the glands in the bronchial walls. Goblet cell hyperplasia is the increase in the number of goblet cells, which produce mucus. Mucous production is increased in bronchitis, leading to excessive mucus secretion. Muscular hypertrophy refers to the thickening of the smooth muscle in the bronchial walls. These changes contribute to the characteristic symptoms of bronchitis, such as cough and mucus production.

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116. Ureaplama urealyticum and chlamydia trachomatis are thought to cause?

Explanation

Ureaplasma urealyticum and Chlamydia trachomatis are commonly associated with chronic abacterial prostatitis. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland without the presence of bacteria in the urine or prostatic fluid. These microorganisms are believed to contribute to the development of chronic abacterial prostatitis through their ability to cause chronic inflammation and irritation in the prostate tissue.

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117. Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?

Explanation

Goblet cells, which are responsible for producing mucus, are present in the respiratory tract to help trap and remove foreign particles. However, as we move deeper into the respiratory system, specifically at the level of the terminal bronchioles and alveoli, goblet cells are no longer present. This is because these structures are involved in gas exchange and do not require the production of mucus.

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Cerebral infarcts due to focal obstruction of blood flow may arise...
When subaracchnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, the circle of...
What is the 11th cranial nerve?
Tinea pedis is also known as?
Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?
What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?
Multiple small brain infarcts often associated with hypertension may...
Embryonal carcinoma is _____ aggressive than seminomas.
T/F, Strawberry hemangiomas normally metastisize.
Schwannoma's have antoni A and B growth patterns
Nasal polyps are?
Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis
T/f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage occur most often with rupture of a berry...
If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?
What is the commonest infection?
A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:
Venous drainage system of brain courses through dural sinuses, but...
Which watershed area is most sensitive to infarction?
T/F.  In a subfalcine herniation, cingulate gyrus herniates under the...
What autosomal dominant, bilateral kidney disease (that accounts for...
RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic.
Both leydig and sertoli cell tumors produce androgens or estrogens,...
Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with...
Which of the following is not a pattern of glomerular dz?
Alport syndrome, thin membrane dz and Fabry dz are secondary,...
Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful...
Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?
Pulmonary sequestration is:
The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.
Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?
All of the following are cerebrovascular dz except.
Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?
Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to...
Adnexal skin tumors include the following except?
Nodular gummas are associated with?
What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the...
T/F. In infants an children in whom fusion of the cranial bones has...
The blood brain barrier breaks down in which of the following?
What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs...
What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?
Panacinar emphysema is associated with?
Picks disease and alzheimer's dz can always be distinguished by...
What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic)...
What are the hallmarks of glomerular dz?
70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the:
Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?
What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?
Stevens-Jonson syndrome is a form of what in children?
Which is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder?
Intraparenchymal hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage and vascular...
What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma? 
Nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis are often associated with:
Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated...
Cystic renal dysplasia is ...
If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture,...
Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.
Panniculitis is inflammation of?
Where is an ectopic kidney normally found?
What medullary kidney dz causes multiple cystic dilations in...
What is the most common pleural tumor?
Alveolar macrophages are also known as?
Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:
The Birbeck granule is associated with what dz?
Erythema nodosum is a form of panniculitis or inflammation that...
What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?
The most common primary lung cancer is?
Xanthomas over the achilles tendon and finger extensor tendons are?
Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:
In the CNS, which cell is responsible for structural support,...
Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are all...
All of the following are histologically identical tumors found in...
Which type of Atelectasis is irreversible?
Acquired cystic dz is often iatrogenic, what is it commonly associated...
Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant?...
Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ
(skin) What stage does the initial papillary invasion fall under?
A blockage anywhere along the ventricular system, most often the...
Multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in souther latitudes.
Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?
At what level do Clara Cells first appear?
In Clark and Breslow staging, which depth of invasion corresponds to a...
The herniation that may result in compression of the medulla and may...
What medullary kidney dz causes small cysts associated with cortical...
Where are simple renal cysts found and are they multiple or single?
Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red,...
What blistering disease occurs in the elderly?
Which is not a result of cerebral edema?
Impetigo is usally resulting from a staph or strep infxn and usually...
In the CNS the common pathophysiologic complications are:
50% of cases show a primitive glomeruli (endodermal sinuses)
Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a...
Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over...
Eosinophilic Reinke crystalloids are found in what tumors?
What is the most common testicular neoplasm in patients over 60?
The routes of entry of organisms/infections into the nervous system is...
Which one does not work to fill in the blanks:   _______ pneumonia is...
What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?
Local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic...
What is the most common form of Nephronophthisis?
The lesion that occur mainly on the face, scalp, and upper trunk...
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Mature teratomas are more common in:
What is the most common form of prostatits
Which cerebral edema is commonly seen with CVAs, trauma, tumors and...
What regions are examined for herniation when there is an increased...
Golden pneumonia occurs due to?
Epidermalysis bullosa is associated with?
Which of the following is not a common route in which bacteria reach...
Lymphatic metasteses of germ cell neoplasms is most common in the:
Testicular atrophy is secondary to all of the following except
Which infection causes non-post streptococcal acute proliferative...
Which cells/areas are most sensitive to hypoxia? (select all that...
What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
What is a rare blistering disease that presents as a verrucous plaque...
Select all that apply.  The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:
Ureaplama urealyticum and chlamydia trachomatis are thought to cause?
Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?
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