Pathology Exam 1 Review.
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Most questions taken from Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th ed.
- 1.
- A.
Between Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries
- B.
Between Middle and Posterior cerebral arteries
- C.
Between left and right Anterior cerebral arteries
- D.
Between Medial and Lateral cerebreal arteries
- 2.What is the 11th cranial nerve?
- 3.What cells are most sensitive to hypoxia?
- A.
Astrocytes
- B.
Neurons
- C.
Ependymal
- D.
Oligodendroglial
- 4.
- A.
Sommer's sector of Hippocampus
- B.
Purkinje cells of cerebellum
- C.
Pyramidal neurons in the neocortex
- D.
Basal ganglia neurons of the claustrum
- 5.What regions are examined for herniation when there is an increased cranial pressure? (select all that apply)
- A.
Cingulate gyrus
- B.
Uncus
- C.
Cerebellar Tonsils
- D.
Pons
- E.
Medulla
- 6.Psammoma Bodies are seen in which neoplasm?
- A.
Astrocytoma
- B.
Chordoma
- C.
Meningioma
- D.
Craniopharyngioma
- E.
Glioblastoma Multiforme
- 7.If a skull is fractured, what artery is potentially severed?
- A.
External Carotid
- B.
Lingual
- C.
Facial
- D.
Occipital
- E.
Middle Meningeal
- 8.If the Middle Meningeal Artery is lacerated with a skull fracture, what kind of hematoma will occur?
- A.
Epidural
- B.
Subdural
- C.
Subarachnoid
- 9.What is the usual source for a Subdural Hematoma?
- A.
Bridging veins
- B.
Berry Aneurysms
- C.
Superior Sagittal sinus
- 10.What congenital anomaly is: The defective development of both lungs resulting in decreased weight, volume, and acini compared to the body and gestational age?
- A.
Agenesis
- B.
Pulmonary Sequestration
- C.
Pulmonary Hypoplasia
- D.
Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)
- E.
Atresia
- 11.Pulmonary sequestration is:
- A.
A hamartomatous lesion of the lung
- B.
Presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system
- C.
Abnormal detachment of primitive foregut and most often located in the hilum or middle mediastinum.
- 12.What is the most common pleural tumor?
- A.
Metastatic from lung, breast, or ovary
- B.
Mesothelioma
- C.
Squamous Cell CA
- 13.Which type of Atelectasis is irreversible?
- A.
Resorption(aka obstruction)
- B.
Compression
- C.
Contraction
- 14.What is the most common cause of hemodynamic (aka cardiogenic) pulmonary edema?
- A.
Right Sided CHF
- B.
Left Sided CHF
- C.
Cor Bovinum
- D.
Pulmonary valve insufficiency
- E.
Tricuspid valve stenosis
- 15.What is the most common cause of pneumothorax?
- A.
Ruptured blebs
- B.
Trauma
- C.
Infection
- D.
Smoking
- 16.Viral infection typically causes _____ pneumonia.
- A.
Golden
- B.
Hemorrhagic
- C.
Abscess
- D.
Interstitial
- E.
Lobar
- 17.Golden pneumonia occurs due to?
- A.
Lipofuschin inclusions
- B.
Staphylococcus
- C.
Obstruction
- D.
Viral
- 18.Which one does not work to fill in the blanks: _______ pneumonia is caused by ______.
- A.
Golden; Obstruction
- B.
Abscess; Staph
- C.
Hemorrhagic; pseudomonas
- D.
Community acquired; viral
- E.
Broncho; Staph
- 19.Which disease presents radiographically as "White-out"?
- A.
TB
- B.
Lobar Pneumonia
- C.
ARDS
- D.
Pancoast tumors
- E.
Pleuritis
- 20.What is the commonest infection?
- A.
Cold
- B.
UTI
- 21.Nasal polyps are?
- A.
Neoplastic
- B.
Inflammatory response to allergy
- 22.What type of epithelium does the false cord have in adults?
- A.
Pseudostratified columnar
- B.
Simple squamous
- C.
Stratified squamous non-keratinized
- D.
Stratified squamous keratinized
- 23.What type of epithelium do the ventricles (of glottis) have?
- A.
Psuedostratified columnar
- B.
Stratified squamous
- 24.Histologically, at what level glands (goblet cells) no longer present?
- A.
Trachea
- B.
Bronchi
- C.
Large Bronchioles
- D.
Terminal Bronchioles
- E.
Alveoli
- 25.At what level do Clara Cells first appear?
- A.
Trachea
- B.
Bronchi
- C.
Bronchioles
- D.
Alveoli
- 26.The ____ cord has glands, while the ____ has muscle.
- A.
True; false
- B.
False; true
- 27.Alveolar macrophages are also known as?
- A.
Langerhan's cells
- B.
Kultchitsky cells
- C.
Dust cells
- D.
Kupfer cells
- 28.The most common primary lung cancer is?
- A.
Adenocarcinoma
- B.
Squamous cell carcinoma
- C.
Small cell undifferentiated
- D.
Large cell undifferentiated
- E.
Metastatic, usually from GI
- 29.What causes restrictive pulmonary disease?
- A.
Bronchiectasis
- B.
Chronic Bronchitis
- C.
Emphysema
- D.
Asthma
- E.
IPF
- 30.Which primary bronchus is most prone to aspiration?
- A.
Right
- B.
Left
- 31.Which type of atelectasis is characterized by a loss of surfactant? Is also often seen in ARDS.
- A.
Obstructive
- B.
Compression
- C.
Patchy
- 32.What type of Emphysema is: The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal alveoli?
- A.
Centrilobular
- B.
Panacinar
- C.
Distal acinar
- 33.Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined as " a persistant cough with sputum production for at least _____ months in at least ___ consecutive years, in the absence of any other identifiable cause"
- A.
2;2
- B.
2;3
- C.
3;2
- D.
3;3
- E.
1;2
- 34.Which diagnosis is aided by the demonstration of an elevated eosinophil count in the blood, Curschmann spirals, and Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum?
- A.
Bacterial Pneumonia
- B.
Tuberculosis
- C.
Asthma
- D.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
- 35.Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension is occasionally associated with a mutation of the bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2), however, it is most commonly sporadic in __?
- A.
Children
- B.
Prebubescent females
- C.
Post-menopausal females
- D.
20-40 yr old females
- 36.Panacinar emphysema is associated with?
- A.
Smoking
- B.
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
- C.
Scarring due to inflammation or infection
- D.
Trauma
- 37.Select all that apply. The lesion(s) associated with bronchitis are:
- A.
Glandular hypertrophy
- B.
Goblet cell hyperplasia
- C.
Mucous production
- D.
Muscular hypertrophy
- E.
Fibrosis
- 38.What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
- A.
Necrotizing (via pneumonia)
- B.
Obstruction (tumor, foreign bodies, mucous plugs)
- C.
Congenital (cystic fibrosis)
- D.
Idiopathic
- 39.Which bacteria causes a green-blue purulent exudate?
- A.
Pseudomonas
- B.
Streptococcus
- C.
Klebsiella
- D.
Staphylococcus
- E.
Haemopholis
- 40.Almost 60% of Lobar pneumonias are caused by:
- A.
Streptococcus pn. and Haemopholis inf.
- B.
Strep and Staph
- C.
Pneumococcus and Pseudomonas
- D.
Klebsiella and E. coli
- 41._______ is a pediatric emergency that causes life-threatening acute lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.
- A.
- 42.Malformation of urethral groove on the dorsal aspect of the penis is:
- A.
Epispadias
- B.
Hypospadias
- C.
Phimosis
- D.
Paraphimosis
- 43.Which of the following is not carcinoma in Situ
- A.
Bown disease
- B.
Bowen disease
- C.
Bowenoid papulosis
- D.
Condyloma acuminatum
- 44.A nonspecific infection on the glans penis and prepuce:
- A.
Cryptorchidism
- B.
Balanoposthitis
- C.
Epispadias
- D.
Chylocele
- 45.Benign epithelial porliferation caused by HPV?
- A.
Erythroplasia of queyrat
- B.
Bowenoid papulosis
- C.
Condyloma acuminatum
- D.
Bowen disease
- 46.Carcinoma in Situ presented as a single or multiple, shity red, sometimes velvety plaque on the glans and prepuce.
- A.
Bowen disease
- B.
Erythroplasia of queyrat
- C.
Bowenoid papulosis
- D.
Condyloma acuminatum
- 47.Malformation of urethral groove on the ventral aspect of the penis
- A.
Epispadias
- B.
Hypospadias
- C.
Phimosis
- D.
Paraphimosis
- 48.Abnormally small orifice in the prupuce (frequently secondary to inflammation):
- A.
Epispadias
- B.
Hypospadias
- C.
Phimosis
- D.
Paraphimosis
- 49.Carcinoma in Situ presenting as a thickened, gray white plaque over the shaft of the penis:
- A.
Bowen disease
- B.
Erythroplasia of queyrat
- C.
Bowenoid papulosis
- D.
Condyloma acuminatum
- 50.Abnormal, painful swelling of the glans penis after forceful retraction of a phimotic prepuce:
- A.
Epispadias
- B.
Hypospadias
- C.
Balanoposthitis
- D.
Paraphimosis
- 51.Cryptorchidism, failure of testes descent, usually occurs_____?
- A.
Unilaterally
- B.
Bilaterally
- 52.Testicular atrophy is secondary to all of the following except
- A.
Hypopituitarism
- B.
Klinefelter syndrome
- C.
Malnutrition
- D.
Vascular disease
- 53.Nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis are often associated with:
- A.
UTI
- B.
Getting kicked in the balls
- C.
Tumor
- D.
Genetic defect.
- 54.What is a rare blistering disease that presents as a verrucous plaque in flexural areas?
- A.
Pemphigus Vulgaris
- B.
Bullous Pemphigoid
- C.
Pemphigus Vegitans
- D.
Bullous disease
- 55.Tinea pedis is also known as?
- A.
Athlete's foot
- B.
Athlete's jumper knee
- C.
Frostbite on toes
- D.
Tophus
- 56.Impetigo is usally resulting from a staph or strep infxn and usually occurs in the Stratum ____?
- A.
Spinosum
- B.
Granulosum
- C.
Corneum
- D.
Germinativum
- 57.Panniculitis is inflammation of?
- A.
Capillaries
- B.
Epidermis
- C.
Subcutaneous tissue
- D.
All cells
- 58.Epidermalysis bullosa is associated with?
- A.
Metabolic disorders
- B.
Birthing trauma
- C.
Acne
- D.
Urticarial type blistering disease
- 59.What blistering disease occurs in the elderly?
- A.
Porphyria
- B.
Dermatitis herpetiformis
- C.
Bullous pemphigoid
- D.
Lichen planus
- 60.The Birbeck granule is associated with what dz?
- A.
Mastocytosis
- B.
Histiocytosis X
- C.
Mycosis fungoides (CTCL)
- D.
Lupus
- 61.Stevens-Jonson syndrome is a form of what in children?
- A.
Erythema Multiforme
- B.
Lichen planus
- C.
Photosensitive dermatitis
- D.
Mastocytosis
- 62.T/F, Strawberry hemangiomas normally metastisize.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 63.Which is not a pigmentation and melanocyte disorder?
- A.
Melasma
- B.
Lentigo
- C.
Dysplastic Nevi
- D.
Syringioma
- 64.In Clark and Breslow staging, which depth of invasion corresponds to a 1b stage?
- A.
1.5mm
- B.
0.76mm
- C.
4.0mm
- D.
5.5mm
- 65.Adnexal skin tumors include the following except?
- A.
Cylindroma
- B.
Leukoplakia
- C.
Syringoma
- D.
Eccrine poroma
- 66.Erythema nodosum is a form of panniculitis or inflammation that principally affects what?
- A.
Connective tissue septa
- B.
Fat lobules
- C.
Acrochordon
- D.
WEN
- 67.The lesion that occur mainly on the face, scalp, and upper trunk (bullous dz) are the?
- A.
Pemphigus vulgaris
- B.
Psoriasis
- C.
Mastocytosis
- D.
Pemphigus foliaceous
- 68.Xanthomas over the achilles tendon and finger extensor tendons are?
- A.
Eruptive Xanthoma
- B.
Tendinous X
- C.
Plane xanthoma
- D.
Tuberous x
- 69.(skin) What stage does the initial papillary invasion fall under?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 70.In the CNS, which cell is responsible for structural support, contribution to the Blood brain barrier and acts as the metabolic buffers/detoxifiers
- A.
Glia
- B.
Astrocytes
- C.
Microglia
- D.
Ependyma
- 71.What is the pathologic change that is defined as: An intense eosinophilia of the perinuclear cytoplasm and pyknosis of the nucleus that follows acute anoxia or ischemia.
- A.
- 72.In the CNS the common pathophysiologic complications are:
- A.
Herniations, cerebral edema, and hydrocephalus
- B.
Spinal cord injury and cerbrovascular dz
- C.
Demyelinating disease and degenerative dz
- D.
Tumors, traumas, and infections
- 73.T/F. In a subfalcine herniation, cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx, which may compromise the anterior cerebral artery.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 74.The herniation that may result in compression of the medulla and may compromise cardiorespiratory centers is the:
- A.
Transtentorial herniation
- B.
Tonsillar herniation
- C.
Subfalcine herniation
- D.
All of the above
- 75.Which cerebral edema is commonly seen with CVAs, trauma, tumors and infections (with preferential involvement of white matter)
- A.
Vasogenic edema
- B.
Interstitial edema
- C.
Spongiform encephalopathies
- D.
Cytotoxic edema
- 76.T/F. In infants an children in whom fusion of the cranial bones has not yet occurred, hydrocephalus produces hypoplasia of the head.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 77.A blockage anywhere along the ventricular system, most often the aqueduct or the foramina of Monro is a _____ hydrocephalus.
- A.
Communicating
- B.
Ischemic
- C.
Noncommunicating
- D.
Metastatic
- 78.T/f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage occur most often with rupture of a berry aneurysm.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 79.The routes of entry of organisms/infections into the nervous system is most commonly through?
- A.
Hematogenous spread
- B.
Direct implantation (trauma)
- C.
Local extension and axonal transport
- D.
All of the above
- 80.The blood brain barrier breaks down in which of the following?
- A.
Kernicterus
- B.
Intracerebral hemorrhage
- C.
Brain abscesses
- D.
All of the above
- 81.Which is not a result of cerebral edema?
- A.
Astrocytosis
- B.
Subdural hematoma
- C.
Uncal herniation
- D.
Tonsillar herniation
- 82.Multiple small brain infarcts often associated with hypertension may cause dementia.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 83.Venous drainage system of brain courses through dural sinuses, but there is no lymphatic drainage?
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 84.Picks disease and alzheimer's dz can always be distinguished by neurological exam?
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 85.When subaracchnoid hemorrhage is detected at autopsy, the circle of willis should be carefully examined for a berry aneurysm.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 86.Multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in souther latitudes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 87.Cystic renal dysplasia is sporadic and non-familial from metanephric differentiation?
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 88.Where is an ectopic kidney normally found?
- A.
Abdomen
- B.
Pelvic region
- C.
Uterus
- D.
Upper pole
- 89.What autosomal dominant, bilateral kidney disease (that accounts for 10% of chronic renal failure) causes cysts?
- A.
Polycystic kidney dz
- B.
Medullary sponge kidney
- C.
Adult onset medullary cystic dz
- D.
Acquired cystic dz.
- 90.What medullary kidney dz causes multiple cystic dilations in collecting ducts of medulla?
- A.
Medullary sponge kidney
- B.
Polycycstic kidney dz
- C.
Acquired cystic dz
- D.
None of the above.
- 91.What medullary kidney dz causes small cysts associated with cortical tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis?
- A.
Nephronophthisis (UCMD)
- B.
Polycystic kidney dz
- C.
Acquired cystic dz
- D.
None of above
- 92.Where are simple renal cysts found and are they multiple or single?
- A.
Medulla, single
- B.
Cortex, multiple and single
- C.
Cortex, single
- D.
Medulla, multiple
- 93.What are the hallmarks of glomerular dz?
- A.
Hypercellularity
- B.
BM thickening
- C.
Hyalinization and sclerosis
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and C only
- 94.What is the most common form of Nephronophthisis?
- A.
Familial Juvenile recessive
- B.
Familial Juvenile sporadic
- C.
Familial Juvenile retinal
- D.
Adult onset medullary cystic
- 95.Acquired cystic dz is often iatrogenic, what is it commonly associated with?
- A.
Drugs
- B.
Dialysis
- C.
Obesity
- D.
A and C
- 96.Which of the following is not a pattern of glomerular dz?
- A.
Focal
- B.
Segmental
- C.
Diffuse
- D.
Fusiform
- 97.Alport syndrome, thin membrane dz and Fabry dz are secondary, hereditary forms of glomerulonephritis?
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 98.Which infection causes non-post streptococcal acute proliferative glomerulonephritis?
- A.
Meningitis
- B.
Staph
- C.
Pneumonia
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None above
- 99.RPGN is autoimmune and idiopathic.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 100.What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
- A.
Membranous glomerulonephritis
- B.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
- C.
Lipoid nephrosis
- D.
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- 101.Which of the following is not a common route in which bacteria reach the prostate in acute bacterial prostatitis?
- A.
Catheterization
- B.
Sexual intercourse
- C.
Hematogenous seeding
- D.
Lymphatics
- 102.What is the most common form of prostatits
- A.
Chronic abacterial prostatitis
- B.
Acute bacterial prostatitis
- C.
Chronic bacterial prostatitis
- D.
Nodular neoplasm
- 103.Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are all lesions of the:
- A.
Tunica vaginalis
- B.
Tunica albicans
- C.
Glans penis
- D.
Testis
- 104.Local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic cord:
- A.
Hematocele
- B.
Hydrocele
- C.
Chylocele
- D.
Vericocele (venous varix)
- 105.All of the following are histologically identical tumors found in different locations except?
- A.
Dysgerminoma
- B.
Seminoma
- C.
Germinoms
- D.
All of the above are histologically identical
- 106.Lymphatic metasteses of germ cell neoplasms is most common in the:
- A.
Retroperitoneal
- B.
Medistianal
- C.
Supraclavicular
- D.
Inguinal
- 107.Eosinophilic Reinke crystalloids are found in what tumors?
- A.
Sertoli
- B.
Yolk sac
- C.
Leydig
- D.
Testicular lymphomas
- 108.Nodular gummas are associated with?
- A.
TB
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
Syphilis
- D.
Mumps
- 109.Embryonal carcinoma is _____ aggressive than seminomas.
- A.
More
- B.
Less
- C.
Same
- 110.50% of cases show a primitive glomeruli (endodermal sinuses)
- A.
Choriocarcinoma
- B.
Yolk sac tumor
- C.
Embryonal carcinoma
- D.
Teratoma
- 111.Mature teratomas are more common in:
- A.
Adults
- B.
Infants
- C.
Children
- D.
B and C
- 112.Both leydig and sertoli cell tumors produce androgens or estrogens, but which one is more likely to produce them in levels high enough to show clinical manifestations (i.e. gynecomastia)
- A.
Leydig
- B.
Sertoli
- 113.What is the most common testicular neoplasm in patients over 60?
- A.
Mixed
- B.
Seminoma
- C.
Embryonal
- D.
Testicular lymphoma
- 114.Ureaplama urealyticum and chlamydia trachomatis are thought to cause?
- A.
Acute bacterial prostatitis
- B.
Chronic bacterial prostatitis
- C.
Chronic abacterial prostatitis
- D.
Acute abacterial prostatits
- 115.70% of prostate carcinomas arise in the:
- A.
Medial
- B.
Peripheral
- C.
Anterior
- D.
Mid
- 116.All of the following are cerebrovascular dz except.
- A.
Ischemia, hypoxia and infarction
- B.
Intracranial hemorrhage
- C.
Hypertensive cerebrovascular dz
- D.
Werdnig-Hoffmann dz
- 117.Cerebral infarcts due to focal obstruction of blood flow may arise from either thrombotic or embolic arterial occlusion
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 118.Intraparenchymal hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage and vascular malformation are all considered nontraumatic intracranial hemorrhages
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 119.Schwannoma's have antoni A and B growth patterns
- A.
True
- B.
False
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