Security Forces Vol 2

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to

    • A.

      Enhance our role and understanding of the model

    • B.

      Create a better visual effect of the model

    • C.

      Support force awareness

    • D.

      Minimize mistakes

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhance our role and understanding of the model
    Explanation
    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to enhance our role and understanding of the model. By incorporating color into the model, it provides visual cues and distinctions that help us better comprehend and interpret the different levels of force and their corresponding actions. This enhanced understanding allows for more effective implementation of the model and ensures that individuals involved in the use of force are able to make informed decisions based on the color-coded indicators.

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  • 2. 

    You attempt to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met you verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take you weapon shouting, “I’ll kill you.” What subject action level in the UFM is used?

    • A.

      Complaint

    • B.

      Resistant (passive)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm)

    Correct Answer
    D. Assaultive (serious bodily harm)
    Explanation
    The subject action level in the UFM that is used in this scenario is "Assaultive (serious bodily harm)". This is because the solicitor not only verbally threatened to harm the person, but also physically attempted to take their weapon, indicating a serious intent to cause bodily harm.

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  • 3. 

    What are the mechanical, physical or mental resources you have to promote or gain compliance called?

    • A.

      Tools

    • B.

      Tactics

    • C.

      Timing

    • D.

      Techniques

    Correct Answer
    A. Tools
    Explanation
    The mechanical, physical or mental resources used to promote or gain compliance are called tools. These tools can include various strategies, methods, or instruments that are employed to influence or persuade others to comply with certain actions or behaviors. By utilizing these tools effectively, individuals or organizations can increase their chances of achieving desired outcomes or objectives.

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  • 4. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • A.

      Recovery of nuclear weapons

    • B.

      Keep someone from breaking into a house

    • C.

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    • D.

      Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    B. Keep someone from breaking into a house
    Explanation
    Using deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house is not authorized because it does not involve protecting oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm. Deadly force should only be used when there is an immediate threat to life or severe bodily harm. While it is important to protect property, it does not justify the use of lethal force in this situation.

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  • 5. 

    You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at “port arms,” a round in the chamber, selector weapon on

    • A.

      “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • B.

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • C.

      “SAFE,” and the finger in the trigger guard

    • D.

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    A. “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "SAFE," and the finger not in the trigger guard. This is because when encountering an armed adversary, it is important to prioritize safety and maintain control over the weapon. By keeping the selector switch on "SAFE," the rifle is in a locked position, reducing the risk of accidental discharge. Additionally, by keeping the finger outside the trigger guard, the chances of unintentionally pulling the trigger are minimized, ensuring the safety of oneself and others in the vicinity.

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  • 6. 

    You should respond to an actual incident with your M9 pistol where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M9 in its holder. With the flap open

    • A.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated backward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked and finger in the trigger guard

    • B.

      Sentry lock engaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard

    • C.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer cocked, and finger in the trigger guard

    • D.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    D. Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not in the trigger guard
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not in the trigger guard." This is the safest and most appropriate response when encountering an armed adversary with the M9 pistol in its holder. The sentry lock being disengaged allows for quick and easy access to the weapon, while rotating the hood forward provides an added level of security. Placing the shooting hand on the pistol grip ensures a firm and ready grip, while keeping the hammer not in the trigger guard minimizes the risk of accidental discharge.

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  • 7. 

      What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?

    • A.

      Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise

    • B.

      Leave headlights on, step out of the vehicle, and assume the prone position

    • C.

      Turn off headlights, set parking brake, and turn on dome light

    • D.

      Leave engine running, and place hands on dash board palms up

    Correct Answer
    A. Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise. This command is given to ensure the safety and control of the occupants during a vehicle challenge. By placing their hands on the headliner, the occupants are less likely to interfere with the driver's control of the vehicle and are in a position that allows for quick response if needed. Additionally, keeping their hands on the headliner helps to prevent any sudden movements or actions that could potentially endanger themselves or others.

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  • 8. 

    You prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs by

    • A.

      Locking both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect

    • B.

      Applying the handcuffs very tightly to restrict movement

    • C.

      Looping the cuffs through the front of the belt below the small of the back

    • D.

      Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back

    Correct Answer
    D. Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back
    Explanation
    Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back prevents a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs because it creates a physical barrier that restricts their movement. By securing the handcuffs to the belt, it prevents the suspect from being able to lift their hands over their head or manipulate the handcuffs in a way that would allow them to escape. This technique adds an extra layer of security and ensures that the suspect remains restrained and unable to free themselves.

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  • 9. 

    For quickness, when conducting a search of an individual it should be

    • A.

      Complete and simple

    • B.

      Systematic and simple

    • C.

      Complete and thorough

    • D.

      Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    D. Systematic and thorough
    Explanation
    When conducting a search of an individual, it is important for the process to be systematic and thorough. This means that the search should follow a specific method or procedure, ensuring that all necessary steps are taken and no important information is missed. Additionally, the search should be thorough, meaning that it covers all relevant aspects and leaves no stone unturned. This approach ensures that the search is comprehensive and accurate, allowing for a more reliable and complete understanding of the individual in question.

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  • 10. 

    What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?

    • A.

      Wall

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Standing

    • D.

      Kneeling

    Correct Answer
    B. Prone
    Explanation
    Prone search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions because it provides the searcher with a lower profile, making it harder for the suspect to detect them. In a high-risk situation, where the suspect may be armed or dangerous, a prone search allows the searcher to move stealthily and avoid being easily seen or targeted. Additionally, in situations where there are multiple suspects or apprehensions needed, a prone search allows for efficient and effective coverage of the area, as the searcher can quickly move from one target to another while remaining hidden.

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  • 11. 

    In which portion of the UFM phase can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART)?

    • A.

      Resistant (passive)

    • B.

      Resistant (active)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (seriously bodily harm)

    Correct Answer
    B. Resistant (active)
    Explanation
    In the Resistant (active) portion of the UFM phase, Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART) can be expected to be used. This means that when a person is actively resisting, but not causing bodily harm, PART techniques may be employed to safely apprehend and restrain them.

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  • 12. 

    To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly trap the suspect’s hand by grabbing the suspect’s arm

    • A.

      Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • B.

      Above the elbow, your pals down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • C.

      Below the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • D.

      Above the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    Correct Answer
    A. Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest
    Explanation
    To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, the correct way is to trap the suspect's hand by grabbing their arm below the elbow. The palms should be facing down, thumbs down, and the suspect's hand should be trapped on your chest. This position provides better control and leverage over the suspect's arm, making it more difficult for them to escape or continue their attack.

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  • 13. 

    The second step in overcoming a rear grab hold is to immediately make a fist, flex your arms

    • A.

      Out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s groin area

    • B.

      Out slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s groin area

    • C.

      Out slightly. Crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet

    • D.

      In slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s feet

    Correct Answer
    C. Out slightly. Crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to "Out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect's feet." This is the second step in overcoming a rear grab hold. By moving your arms out slightly, you create space between yourself and the suspect, making it harder for them to maintain their grip. Crouching down lowers your center of gravity, making it easier for you to regain control. Looking at the suspect's feet can help you anticipate any potential movements or attempts to escape, allowing you to react quickly and effectively.

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  • 14. 

    What are two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?

    • A.

      Suspect’s position and attitude

    • B.

      Your position and your attitude

    • C.

      Assisting members’ over watch position

    • D.

      Your position ad available cover and concealment

    Correct Answer
    B. Your position and your attitude
    Explanation
    When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, two important factors to remember are your position and your attitude. Your position refers to your physical location and proximity to the suspect, ensuring that you have a strategic advantage and can maintain control of the situation. Your attitude refers to your demeanor and approach towards the suspect, remaining calm, assertive, and focused on the task at hand. By considering both your position and attitude, you can increase the likelihood of a successful apprehension while minimizing potential risks and conflicts.

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  • 15. 

    Where should the assisting Security Forces member stand to help from a position of advantage?

    • A.

      To one side

    • B.

      At a 90-degree angle

    • C.

      Directly behind the suspect

    • D.

      Next to the apprehending officer

    Correct Answer
    A. To one side
    Explanation
    The assisting Security Forces member should stand to one side of the situation in order to provide help from a position of advantage. This allows the member to have a clear view of the suspect and the apprehending officer, while also maintaining a safe distance and minimizing the risk of being caught in the middle of any potential altercation. Standing to one side also allows for better communication and coordination between the assisting member and the apprehending officer.

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  • 16. 

    What must you evaluate before apprehending a suspect?

    • A.

      Your ability to make the apprehension alone

    • B.

      Attitude and physical condition of suspect

    • C.

      Whether to be domineering or belligerent

    • D.

      Your position and member’s attitude

    Correct Answer
    B. Attitude and physical condition of suspect
    Explanation
    Before apprehending a suspect, it is important to evaluate their attitude and physical condition. This is crucial because it can provide insight into their potential behavior and level of resistance during the apprehension process. By assessing their attitude, law enforcement officers can determine if the suspect is cooperative or confrontational, which can affect the approach taken during the apprehension. Additionally, evaluating the physical condition of the suspect can help determine if they pose any immediate threat to the officer or others, and if any additional precautions need to be taken.

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  • 17. 

    What is the first thing you would do to apply the IKKYO grip properly?

    • A.

      Grab the back of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm up (or the suspect’s right with your left)

    • B.

      Grab the front of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect’s right with your left hand)

    • C.

      Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left)

    • D.

      Grab the side of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your right)

    Correct Answer
    C. Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left)
  • 18. 

    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect’s

    • A.

      Elbow extended out toward the ground

    • B.

      Arm straight and toward the ground

    • C.

      Elbow parallel to the ground

    • D.

      Arm parallel to the ground

    Correct Answer
    D. Arm parallel to the ground
    Explanation
    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This position helps to maintain control and stability during the takedown, reducing the risk of injury to both the suspect and the person performing the takedown. Keeping the arm parallel to the ground also ensures that the force applied is distributed evenly, minimizing the chances of hyperextension or other forms of injury to the suspect's arm.

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  • 19. 

    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an

    • A.

      Emotionless and physical deterrent to aggression

    • B.

      Emotional and physiological deterrent to aggression

    • C.

      Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression

    • D.

      Emotional and psychological deterrent to aggression

    Correct Answer
    C. Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression
    Explanation
    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it serves as both an emotional and physical deterrent to aggression. The presence of the baton can evoke fear or concern in potential aggressors, deterring them from engaging in violent behavior. Additionally, the baton can be used as a physical tool to subdue or incapacitate individuals who pose a threat, further preventing aggression. This combination of emotional and physical deterrents makes the expandable baton an effective tool for law enforcement.

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  • 20. 

    During which portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use the baton?

    • A.

      Resistant (passive)

    • B.

      Resistant (active)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    C. Assaultive (bodily harm)
    Explanation
    The baton is typically used during the portion of the Use of Force Model when the subject becomes assaultive and poses a threat of bodily harm. At this stage, the use of the baton is justified as a means to protect oneself or others from potential harm.

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  • 21. 

    The three principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms,

    • A.

      Head, and knees

    • B.

      Legs, and knees

    • C.

      Knees, and ankles

    • D.

      Head, and legs

    Correct Answer
    B. Legs, and knees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Legs, and knees". When using a baton on a suspect, the principle target areas are the legs and knees. This is because striking these areas can help to immobilize the suspect and prevent them from fleeing or causing harm. By targeting the legs and knees, law enforcement officers can effectively subdue a suspect without causing severe injury or harm.

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  • 22. 

    What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?

    • A.

      Non-physical

    • B.

      Psychological

    • C.

      Impact

    • D.

      Lethal

    Correct Answer
    C. Impact
    Explanation
    A baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, cylindrical object typically made of metal or wood, and it is designed to deliver strikes and blows to an opponent. The impact from a baton can cause pain, injury, and incapacitation, making it an effective tool for self-defense and law enforcement purposes.

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  • 23. 

    Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered

    • A.

      Lethal

    • B.

      Non-lethal

    • C.

      Deadly force

    • D.

      Resistant (passive)

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-lethal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Non-lethal" because Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual by causing severe irritation to the eyes, nose, and throat, but it is not intended to cause permanent harm or death. While it can be extremely painful and debilitating, it is generally considered a less-lethal alternative to firearms or other deadly force options.

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  • 24. 

    What portion, of the Use of Force Model that a subject’s actions are located within, can you expect to use approved electronic control devices?

    • A.

      Resistant (active)

    • B.

      Resistant (passive)

    • C.

      Compliant (active)

    • D.

      Compliant (resistant)

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistant (active)
    Explanation
    In the given question, the correct answer is "Resistant (active)". This means that approved electronic control devices can be expected to be used when a subject's actions fall within the portion of the Use of Force Model categorized as "Resistant (active)". This implies that the subject is actively resisting and poses a threat that requires the use of electronic control devices for control and compliance.

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  • 25. 

    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into

    • A.

      Fifths

    • B.

      Tenths

    • C.

      Fifteenths

    • D.

      Twentieths

    Correct Answer
    B. Tenths
    Explanation
    Grid coordinates are identified by dividing the grid square into smaller sections. In this case, the grid square is divided into tenths, meaning that each side of the square is divided into 10 equal parts. This allows for more precise location identification within the grid square.

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  • 26. 

    After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?

    • A.

      Nearest military installation

    • B.

      Disaster control group team

    • C.

      Nuclear accident recovery team

    • D.

      Home installation of the resource

    Correct Answer
    A. Nearest military installation
    Explanation
    After a nuclear accident, the nearest military installation has the initial response base responsibility. This is because military installations are equipped with resources and personnel trained to handle emergency situations, including nuclear accidents. They have the necessary expertise and equipment to assess the situation, provide immediate assistance, and initiate a response plan to mitigate the effects of the accident and protect the surrounding areas. Their proximity allows for a quicker response time, ensuring that the initial response is prompt and effective.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident?

    • A.

      On-scene fire chief

    • B.

      On-scene commander

    • C.

      Disaster control group

    • D.

      Initial base response force

    Correct Answer
    A. On-scene fire chief
    Explanation
    The on-scene fire chief is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident. This role is crucial as the fire chief has the expertise and experience in handling emergency situations, including fires and hazardous materials. They are trained to assess the situation, coordinate resources, and make critical decisions to mitigate the accident's impact. Their authority and responsibility extend to managing the incident and ensuring the safety of personnel and the surrounding area.

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  • 28. 

    What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?

    • A.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind

    • B.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind

    • C.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    • D.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    Correct Answer
    B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind
    Explanation
    The cordon size of an accident involving biological agents is 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. This means that a perimeter of 2000 feet should be established in all directions from the accident site to prevent unauthorized access and protect people from potential exposure to the biological agents. This larger cordon size is necessary due to the potential for the agents to disperse in the air and pose a risk to a larger area. Additionally, the cordon should also extend one and one-half miles downwind to account for the potential spread of the agents through air currents.

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  • 29. 

    What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?

    • A.

      Do not answer and then detain them

    • B.

      Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel

    • C.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the public affairs personnel

    • D.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the installation commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel
    Explanation
    If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer their questions and instead refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and official information about the accident. By referring the media to the appropriate personnel, you ensure that the correct information is shared and avoid any potential miscommunication or misinformation.

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  • 30. 

    What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?

    • A.

      Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film

    • B.

      Use physical force to retrieve the film

    • C.

      Physically detain the photographer

    • D.

      Seize the film

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film
    Explanation
    If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action would be to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This is the most reasonable and legal approach to handle the situation, as law enforcement officers have the authority to handle such matters and ensure the proper handling of classified material. Using physical force, physically detaining the photographer, or seizing the film could potentially escalate the situation and may not be within the individual's jurisdiction or legal rights.

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  • 31. 

    One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to

    • A.

      Let other federal agencies take charge of the situation

    • B.

      Prevent or minimize loss of life and property

    • C.

      Neutralize perpetrators using deadly force

    • D.

      Not yield to civilian authorities

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent or minimize loss of life and property
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize the loss of life and property. This means that their focus is on protecting and preserving the lives of individuals involved and ensuring that any damage to property is minimized as much as possible. This goal reflects the Air Force's commitment to the safety and well-being of both military personnel and civilians.

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  • 32. 

    What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations?

    • A.

      Trained negotiators

    • B.

      Swat teams

    • C.

      Special operations

    • D.

      Assault weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. Trained negotiators
    Explanation
    Trained negotiators are used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations. Negotiators are skilled in communication and conflict resolution techniques, allowing them to engage with individuals involved in high-risk situations and de-escalate tensions. Their primary goal is to find peaceful resolutions and avoid the use of force. Swat teams, special operations, and assault weapons may be utilized in certain situations, but they are not the principle method for resolving high-risk situations peacefully.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      Security forces personnel

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces personnel
    Explanation
    Security forces personnel are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. As part of their role, they are trained and equipped to handle various types of incidents and emergencies. They are typically the first on the scene and are responsible for assessing the situation, taking appropriate actions to mitigate the incident, and coordinating with other relevant authorities if necessary. Their prompt response and effective handling of incidents are crucial in ensuring the safety and security of the installation or unit.

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  • 34. 

    Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene?

    • A.

      Medical emergency services personnel

    • B.

      Base fire department personnel

    • C.

      Negotiation teams

    • D.

      Base chaplain

    Correct Answer
    C. Negotiation teams
    Explanation
    Negotiation teams are allowed inside the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene. This is because negotiation teams are specially trained to communicate and negotiate with individuals in crisis or hostage situations. They play a crucial role in resolving such incidents peacefully and minimizing potential harm to both the individuals involved and the surrounding community. Therefore, they are granted access to the inner perimeter to carry out their duties effectively.

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  • 35. 

    A base entry point check is

    • A.

      An examination

    • B.

      A warrant search

    • C.

      A consent search

    • D.

      A probable cause search

    Correct Answer
    A. An examination
  • 36. 

    At least how many security forces member should be present when conducting entry point checks?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    When conducting entry point checks, it is necessary to have at least two security forces members present. This is because having two individuals allows for better coverage and coordination during the inspection process. One person can focus on interacting with the individuals entering, while the other can observe and assess the surroundings for any potential threats or suspicious activities. Additionally, having two security forces members provides a level of safety and support for each other in case of any unforeseen circumstances or confrontations.

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  • 37. 

    What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?  

    • A.

      Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual

    • B.

      Seize the contraband and refuse entry to the installation

    • C.

      Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband

    • D.

      Impound the vehicle immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual
    Explanation
    If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to prevent any further illegal activity or harm from occurring. Seizing the contraband and refusing entry to the installation may be done after apprehending the individual. Continuing to search the vehicle for more contraband or impounding the vehicle immediately may not be the most appropriate actions to take in this situation.

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  • 38. 

    What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?

    • A.

      Operator’s attitude

    • B.

      Patrolman’s attitude

    • C.

      Object size

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    C. Object size
    Explanation
    The manner in which a vehicle is searched during an entry point check is determined by the object size. The size of the object being searched affects the approach and techniques used to conduct the search. Larger objects may require more time and resources to search thoroughly, while smaller objects may be easier to search quickly and efficiently. The size of the object also determines the level of detail and thoroughness needed in the search process.

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  • 39. 

    How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?

    • A.

      Completely and simply

    • B.

      Systematically and simply

    • C.

      Thoroughly and completely

    • D.

      Thoroughly and systematically

    Correct Answer
    D. Thoroughly and systematically
    Explanation
    To conduct a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do it thoroughly and systematically. This means that one should carefully and comprehensively examine every area of the vehicle, following a structured approach. By conducting a thorough and systematic search, one can ensure that no potential evidence or items of interest are missed. This approach helps to ensure a complete and accurate search, increasing the chances of finding any relevant information or objects that may be important for investigative purposes.

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  • 40. 

    Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?

    • A.

      Concentric circle

    • B.

      Item-to-item

    • C.

      Zone or sector

    • D.

      Strip and grid

    Correct Answer
    D. Strip and grid
    Explanation
    Strip and grid is the search method that is normally used for large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the search area into strips and then systematically searching each strip in a grid pattern. This allows for a thorough and organized search of the entire area, ensuring that no part is missed. It is an effective method for covering large outdoor areas efficiently and maximizing the chances of finding what is being searched for.

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  • 41. 

    While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?

    • A.

      Enter to prevent injury or damage

    • B.

      Enter only to identify suspects

    • C.

      Do not enter until the flight chief arrives

    • D.

      Do not enter until you witness an assault

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter to prevent injury or damage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. When on patrol and hearing cries for help, it is crucial to take immediate action to ensure the safety of individuals inside. By entering the building, you can assess the situation, provide assistance, and prevent any potential harm or damage that may be occurring. This action prioritizes the well-being of others and demonstrates a proactive approach to maintaining safety and security.

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  • 42. 

    When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to

    • A.

      Treat all injured persons

    • B.

      Make sure you take appropriate notes

    • C.

      Collect and mark visible items of evidence

    • D.

      Keep the scene in its original state

    Correct Answer
    D. Keep the scene in its original state
    Explanation
    Keeping the crime scene in its original state is crucial because any alterations or tampering with the scene can potentially compromise the integrity of the evidence. By preserving the scene as it was found, investigators can ensure that any evidence collected is reliable and admissible in court. Additionally, maintaining the scene's original state allows for a more accurate reconstruction of the crime and increases the chances of identifying and apprehending the perpetrator(s).

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  • 43. 

    When should you begin taking crime scene notes?

    • A.

      As soon as dispatched

    • B.

      When a checklist item has been completed

    • C.

      You have completed collecting all evidence

    • D.

      An investigator relieves you from the scene

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as dispatched
    Explanation
    When should you begin taking crime scene notes? The correct answer is "As soon as dispatched." This means that as soon as you are notified and sent to the crime scene, you should start taking notes. This is important because it allows you to document any observations, details, or evidence that may be crucial to the investigation. By starting to take notes as soon as dispatched, you ensure that no important information is missed or forgotten.

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  • 44. 

    What should you do if you move evidence prematurely form its original position when securing the scene?

    • A.

      Disregard it completely

    • B.

      Just wipe you prints off

    • C.

      Inform the shift supervisor

    • D.

      Record its original position in your notes

    Correct Answer
    D. Record its original position in your notes
    Explanation
    If you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, it is important to record its original position in your notes. This is crucial because the original position of the evidence can provide valuable information and context for the investigation. By documenting its original position, investigators can later analyze and interpret the evidence accurately, ensuring its integrity is maintained throughout the investigation.

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  • 45. 

    What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?

    • A.

      Time is not important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence

    • B.

      Do not try to keep extraneous articles out of the photographs

    • C.

      Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched

    • D.

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence

    Correct Answer
    C. Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched
    Explanation
    When audio-visual personnel are not available to document a crime scene, the basic rule is to photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This ensures that the original state of the scene and the position of the evidence are captured accurately. By doing so, important details and potential clues can be preserved and documented for further investigation.

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  • 46. 

    What type of evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?

    • A.

      Real

    • B.

      Direct

    • C.

      Documentary

    • D.

      Circumstantial

    Correct Answer
    D. Circumstantial
    Explanation
    Circumstantial evidence is a type of evidence that indirectly implicates a person in an offense. It is based on inference and suggests the likelihood of a person's involvement in a crime based on circumstances and facts surrounding the case. Unlike direct evidence, which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on logical deductions and can be used to build a case against a suspect. This type of evidence includes things like motive, opportunity, behavior, and other indirect factors that can point to a person's guilt.

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  • 47. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence?

    • A.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • B.

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      Military law

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive document that establishes the rules of evidence in the military justice system. It provides guidance and instructions on how evidence should be collected, presented, and evaluated during court-martial proceedings. The MCM ensures that the rules of evidence are followed consistently and fairly, promoting justice and due process within the military legal system.

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  • 48. 

    What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements?

    • A.

      Posse Comitatus Act of 1878

    • B.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      Jencks Act

    Correct Answer
    D. Jencks Act
    Explanation
    The Jencks Act is a federal law that requires the government to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements made by witnesses in criminal cases. This law is important for ensuring that defendants have access to any potentially exculpatory evidence and for maintaining the integrity of the criminal justice system. It is designed to promote transparency and fairness in the legal process by preserving evidence that may be relevant to the defense.

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  • 49. 

    An item of evidence is considered fragile if

    • A.

      The item contains bodily fluids

    • B.

      You drop the item of evidence it would break

    • C.

      You have small trace evidence on an item of evidence

    • D.

      Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value

    Correct Answer
    D. Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value
    Explanation
    An item of evidence is considered fragile if conditions exist that could destroy its evidential value. This means that the item is susceptible to damage or deterioration that could compromise its usefulness as evidence in a legal investigation or trial. It could be due to factors such as exposure to extreme temperatures, moisture, or other environmental conditions that could alter or destroy the integrity of the evidence. Therefore, it is crucial to handle and preserve fragile evidence with utmost care to ensure its evidential value is not compromised.

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  • 50. 

    How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?

    • A.

      Physical injury only

    • B.

      Emotional disturbance

    • C.

      Psychological battery

    • D.

      Physical injury or emotional disturbance

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical injury or emotional disturbance
    Explanation
    Abuse, as it relates to family violence, is defined as causing physical injury or emotional disturbance. This means that abuse can manifest in different forms, including causing physical harm to a family member or causing emotional distress through various means such as manipulation, intimidation, or verbal attacks. Both physical injury and emotional disturbance are considered forms of abuse in the context of family violence.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 08, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Giln195
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