NCLEX Practice Test 3

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1. 3. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms? 

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of confusion and shakiness are consistent with hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Since the patient has a history of diabetes mellitus, it is possible that her blood sugar levels have dropped too low, leading to these symptoms. Anesthesia reaction is less likely as the symptoms are more specific to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis would present with different symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and high blood sugar levels. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms.

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About This Quiz
NCLEX Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

NCLEX Practice Test 3 assesses key nursing competencies with a focus on medical conditions and treatments. It includes questions on hyperparathyroidism, Addison's disease, diabetes management post-surgery, complications post-colonoscopy, liver biopsy preparations, and hepatitis A transmission.

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2. 16. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern? 

Explanation

Repeated vomiting after a head trauma in a child is a cause for concern as it can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. Increased intracranial pressure can occur due to bleeding or swelling in the brain, and can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the child for this symptom and report it to the healthcare provider. The other options, such as bulging anterior fontanel, signs of sleepiness at 10 PM, and inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches, may not necessarily indicate increased intracranial pressure and may have other explanations.

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3. 6. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission? 

Explanation

Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, which means that it is most commonly spread through contaminated food or water. This can occur when food or water is contaminated with the feces of an infected person. Sexual contact with an infected partner, blood transfusion, and illegal drug use are not typical routes of transmission for hepatitis A.

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4. 7. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this? 

Explanation

A history of hepatitis C five years previously would prevent the relative from donating blood for transfusion because hepatitis C is a viral infection that can be transmitted through blood transfusion. Even if the relative's infection is no longer active, there is still a risk of residual virus in their blood, which could potentially infect the leukemia patient. Therefore, it is important to exclude individuals with a history of hepatitis C from donating blood to ensure the safety of the recipient.

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5. 4. A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern? 

Explanation

The symptoms of increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills after fiberoptic colonoscopy suggest a potential complication, such as bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention as it can lead to peritonitis and sepsis. Viral gastroenteritis, colon cancer, and diverticulitis may cause abdominal pain, but they are not typically associated with fever and chills immediately after a colonoscopy.

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6. 12. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient? 

Explanation

A pacemaker is a contraindication for an MRI scan because the strong magnetic fields and radio waves used in an MRI can interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker, potentially causing harm to the patient.

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7. 15. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included on the nursing care plan? 

Explanation

A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. Checking for signs of bleeding, including examining urine and stool for blood, is important in monitoring the patient's condition and detecting any potential bleeding. Monitoring for fever (option A) is not directly related to the platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (option B) is not necessary for platelet count monitoring. Transfusion of packed red blood cells (option C) is not indicated for thrombocytopenia.

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8. 13. A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed? 

Explanation

The nurse most likely observed the patient suddenly complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. This is indicative of a pulmonary embolism, as it is a common symptom. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow. This can cause chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The other options do not align with the symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.

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9. 14. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect? 

Explanation

The correct answer is C because a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is a surgical emergency. Immediate intervention is required to prevent rupture and potentially fatal complications. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit for further evaluation and a resection procedure will be scheduled to repair or remove the aneurysm. Observation and medication (option A) or sclerotherapy (option B) are not appropriate management options for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Discharging the patient home (option D) would be unsafe and could lead to a life-threatening situation.

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10. 9. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate? 

Explanation

The correct answer is D. The patient should limit fatty foods. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, and fatty foods can trigger symptoms such as pain and discomfort in patients with this condition. Limiting fatty foods can help reduce the workload on the gallbladder and alleviate symptoms.

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11. 1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings? 

Explanation

In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is an overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands. PTH increases the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream and enhances the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. As a result, there is an elevated level of serum calcium in the blood. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

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12. 11. A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure? 

Explanation

A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes is most likely to have an implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Ventricular tachycardia is a potentially life-threatening arrhythmia that can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Syncopal episodes indicate that the patient has experienced loss of consciousness, which could be due to the arrhythmia. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is a device that can detect and treat dangerous arrhythmias by delivering an electric shock to restore normal heart rhythm. Therefore, this patient would benefit the most from this procedure to prevent future cardiac events.

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13. 2. A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is NOT recommended? 

Explanation

A patient with Addison's disease has a deficiency in adrenal hormones, specifically cortisol and aldosterone. Cortisol helps regulate blood pressure and sodium levels, while aldosterone helps regulate sodium and potassium levels. Therefore, a restricted sodium diet is not recommended because it can further lower sodium levels in the body, potentially leading to low blood pressure and electrolyte imbalances.

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14. 19. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose? 

Explanation

The correct pediatric dose for Diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. In this case, the child weighs 30 kg, so the correct dose would be 150 mg/day (30 kg x 5 mg/kg/day). However, the prescribed dose is only 25 mg 3 times a day, which amounts to only 75 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose is too low and should be increased to reach the correct dosage.

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15. 20. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate? 

Explanation

Normally, the testes descend into the scrotum by one year of age. It is not uncommon for one or both testes to be undescended at birth, but they usually descend on their own within the first year. Surgical intervention is not typically necessary unless the testes have not descended by one year of age. The presence of only one testis in the scrotal sac is not necessarily indicative of a problem, as it is possible for one testis to be undescended while the other has descended normally.

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16. 8. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient? 

Explanation

Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) would be contraindicated for a patient diagnosed with acute gastritis because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach lining and worsen the inflammation and symptoms of gastritis. NSAIDs can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and ulcers, which is why they should be avoided in patients with gastritis. Calcium carbonate, clarithromycin, and furosemide do not have the same irritating effects on the stomach and would not be contraindicated for this patient.

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17. 18. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct? 

Explanation

Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. It is characterized by symptoms such as a red and swollen pharynx, a characteristic sign known as "strawberry tongue," and the presence of petechiae, which are small red or purple spots, on the skin. However, petechiae do not occur on the soft palate, making option C incorrect.

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18. 10. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? 

Explanation

A patient with severe pulmonary edema is likely to exhibit symptoms of air hunger. This is because pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to difficulty breathing and a sensation of not getting enough air. Slow, deep respirations (option A) are not typically seen in pulmonary edema, as the patient may be struggling to breathe. Stridor (option B) is a high-pitched sound that occurs with upper airway obstruction, not pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (option C) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not directly related to pulmonary edema.

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19. 17. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)? 

Explanation

The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa is a characteristic sign of rubeola (measles). This is known as Koplik spots and is a specific feature of measles. The rash of measles typically starts on the face and spreads downward to the trunk and extremities. Low-grade fever is also commonly associated with measles. However, the "tear drop on a rose petal" appearance of lesions is not a characteristic finding of measles.

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20. 5. A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? 

Explanation

A,B, and C are correct

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3. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second...
16. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old...
6. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis...
7. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for...
4. A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient...
12. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan...
15. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to...
13. A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has...
14. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain....
9. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with...
1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary...
11. A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told...
2. A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and...
19. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching...
20. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic...
8. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient....
18. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever....
10. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction...
17. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash....
5. A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver...
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