NCIDQ - Multiple Choice Review

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NCIDQ - Multiple Choice Review - Quiz

These are just more sample multiple choice questions for use in preparing for the NCIDQ.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Programming is an aspect of helping to define project goals and realizing solutions.  Which of the following activities is a part of programming?

    • A.

      Uncovering concepts and choosing project associates

    • B.

      Stating problems and choosing furnishings

    • C.

      Establishing goals and stating problems

    • D.

      Conducting research and blocking out furniture arrangements

    Correct Answer
    C. Establishing goals and stating problems
    Explanation
    Programming involves establishing goals and stating problems as part of the process of defining project goals and realizing solutions. This activity helps to identify the objectives that need to be achieved and the issues that need to be addressed in order to develop a successful program. It is an essential step in the programming process as it sets the direction for the development and implementation of the project.

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  • 2. 

    Research is an important aspect of programming.  Research involves:

    • A.

      Surveys, questionnaires, observation, furniture placement

    • B.

      Observation, interviews, comparison shopping, material selection

    • C.

      Interviews, surveys, questionnaires, background reading, observation

    • D.

      Background reading, room mock-ups, surveys, observation, focus groups

    Correct Answer
    C. Interviews, surveys, questionnaires, background reading, observation
    Explanation
    Research is an important aspect of programming because it helps programmers gather information and gain insights that can inform their decision-making and problem-solving processes. This involves conducting interviews to gather first-hand information from experts or users, surveys and questionnaires to collect data from a larger sample size, background reading to understand existing knowledge and best practices, and observation to directly observe and analyze real-world scenarios. By combining these research methods, programmers can gather a comprehensive set of data and information to inform their programming decisions.

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  • 3. 

    Universal design is defined as "design for all people".  The underlying principles of universal design include:

    • A.

      Safety, aesthetics, supportive.

    • B.

      Supportive, adaptable, accessible

    • C.

      Accessibility, aesthetics, affordability

    • D.

      Accessibility, cost effectiveness, adaptability

    Correct Answer
    B. Supportive, adaptable, accessible
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "supportive, adaptable, accessible". Universal design aims to create products, environments, and systems that are supportive of all individuals, regardless of their abilities or disabilities. It also emphasizes adaptability, meaning that designs should be able to accommodate different users' needs and preferences. Lastly, universal design promotes accessibility, ensuring that everyone can easily and independently access and use the design. These principles work together to create inclusive and user-friendly designs that benefit a wide range of people.

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  • 4. 

    Including all of the following, EXCEPT ___, can facilitate a healthy and safe working environment:

    • A.

      An environment that meets existing health and safety standards

    • B.

      An environment where seating is chosen for individual comfort and use

    • C.

      An environment that allows individual climate, acoustic, light and air controls

    • D.

      An environment where the furnishings layout provides ease of use

    Correct Answer
    B. An environment where seating is chosen for individual comfort and use
    Explanation
    The given answer states that an environment where seating is chosen for individual comfort and use does not facilitate a healthy and safe working environment. This means that the choice of seating does not play a role in creating a healthy and safe working environment. However, the other options mentioned in the question, such as meeting health and safety standards, providing individual climate and air controls, and having a layout that promotes ease of use, all contribute to a healthy and safe working environment.

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  • 5. 

    There are a number of considerations that are important in designing a safe and accessible residential bathroom.  Which of the following is NOT a consideration?

    • A.

      There should be at least 21" of clear walkway in front of a lavatory

    • B.

      Ground fault circuit interrupters must be specified on all receptacles

    • C.

      A mechanical ventilation system must be provided

    • D.

      The minimum clearance from the center of the toilet to any obstruction is 20"

    Correct Answer
    D. The minimum clearance from the center of the toilet to any obstruction is 20"
    Explanation
    The minimum clearance from the center of the toilet to any obstruction is 20" is not a consideration in designing a safe and accessible residential bathroom.

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  • 6. 

    What combination of combustible and non-combustible trim and decoations are permissible in occupancies A, E, I, R-1, and R-2?

    • A.

      Noncombustible 10%, combustible 5%

    • B.

      Noncombustible 10%, combustible 15%

    • C.

      Noncombustible 20%, combustible 20%

    • D.

      Noncombustible 10%, combustible 30%

    Correct Answer
    A. Noncombustible 10%, combustible 5%
  • 7. 

    Which of the following wall and partition assemblies is INCORRECT with respect to the indicated fire rating?

    • A.

      Wood 2x4 studs, 1/2" gypsum plaster on 3/8" Type X gypsum lath each side, 5-1/4" face-to-face thickness = 1-hour fire resistance rating

    • B.

      Noncombustible metal studs, two layers of 1/2" Type X gypsum lath each side, 3 5/8" face-to-face thickness = 2 hour fire resistance

    • C.

      Noncombustible metal studs, 5/8" gypsum plaster on metal lath each side, 4-3/4" face-to-face thickness = 2 hour fire resistance rating

    • D.

      Wood 2x4 studs, 5/8" Type X gypsum wallboard each side, 4-3/4" face-to-face thickness = 1 hour fire resistance rating

    Correct Answer
    C. Noncombustible metal studs, 5/8" gypsum plaster on metal lath each side, 4-3/4" face-to-face thickness = 2 hour fire resistance rating
    Explanation
    The given answer is incorrect because the assembly described does not meet the indicated fire resistance rating of 2 hours. The use of noncombustible metal studs and 5/8" gypsum plaster on metal lath each side is correct, but the face-to-face thickness of 4-3/4" does not meet the requirement for a 2-hour fire resistance rating.

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  • 8. 

    Safety glass is required in which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Glazing in swinging doors, storm doors, or when the bottom edge of the pane is less than 18" above the floor

    • B.

      Glazing in showers and bathtubs or when the pane is greater than 8 sf

    • C.

      Glazing adjacent to a pool that is less than 48" from the pool

    • D.

      Glazing in unframed swinging doors or when the pane is greater than 6 sf

    Correct Answer
    A. Glazing in swinging doors, storm doors, or when the bottom edge of the pane is less than 18" above the floor
    Explanation
    Safety glass is required in glazing in swinging doors, storm doors, or when the bottom edge of the pane is less than 18" above the floor because these conditions pose a higher risk of breakage and potential injury. The swinging doors and storm doors are more prone to impact, and having safety glass reduces the chances of shattering and causing harm. Similarly, when the bottom edge of the pane is low, it increases the risk of someone accidentally walking into the glass and getting injured. Therefore, safety glass is necessary in these situations to ensure the safety of individuals.

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  • 9. 

    During the design development phase of a project, the design firm will:

    • A.

      Inventory existing furniture to clarify furniture needs.

    • B.

      Develop preliminary furniture plans

    • C.

      Meet with executives to determine personal preferences

    • D.

      Prepare written bid specifications.

    Correct Answer
    B. Develop preliminary furniture plans
    Explanation
    During the design development phase of a project, the design firm will develop preliminary furniture plans. This involves creating initial layouts and arrangements for the furniture in the project space. By doing so, the design firm can visualize how the furniture will fit and function within the overall design concept. This step helps to ensure that the furniture meets the project's requirements and aligns with the design goals. It also provides a foundation for further discussions and adjustments before finalizing the furniture plans.

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  • 10. 

    Design Development includes:

    • A.

      Schematics, construction drawings and final cost estimates.

    • B.

      List of contractors, sub-contractors and suppliers

    • C.

      Drawings, color boards, samples, and furniture selection

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. List of contractors, sub-contractors and suppliers
    Explanation
    Design Development includes the list of contractors, sub-contractors, and suppliers. This phase of the design process involves finalizing the design concept and preparing detailed documentation for construction. The list of contractors, sub-contractors, and suppliers is an essential part of this phase as it helps in identifying and selecting the appropriate professionals and vendors for the project. This information is crucial for estimating costs, coordinating construction activities, and ensuring the successful execution of the design.

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  • 11. 

    During the Design Development phase of a project, the designer will

    • A.

      Measure the job site to obtain necessary dimensions of the site

    • B.

      Ascertain potential building codes that might affect the project.

    • C.

      Finalize a budget of expected costs for all construction and furnishings.

    • D.

      Make preliminary space plans of project spaces.

    Correct Answer
    D. Make preliminary space plans of project spaces.
    Explanation
    During the Design Development phase of a project, the designer will make preliminary space plans of project spaces. This involves creating initial layouts and arrangements for the different areas within the project, considering factors such as functionality, aesthetics, and user needs. These preliminary space plans serve as a starting point for further refinement and collaboration with the client and other stakeholders. They help visualize the spatial organization and flow of the project, allowing for adjustments and improvements before moving on to the next phase of the design process.

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  • 12. 

    In the following drawing, what are the dimensions required for A and B?

    • A.

      A=60", B=48"

    • B.

      A=60", B=42"

    • C.

      A=54", B=48"

    • D.

      A=48", B=60"

    Correct Answer
    A. A=60", B=48"
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A=60", B=48". This means that the dimension A is 60 inches and the dimension B is 48 inches.

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  • 13. 

    In the drawing shown, what are the dimensions of A and B?

    • A.

      A=60", B=18"

    • B.

      A=42", B=18"

    • C.

      A=60", B=24"

    • D.

      A=42", B=24"

    Correct Answer
    D. A=42", B=24"
    Explanation
    The dimensions of A and B are A=42" and B=24".

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  • 14. 

    What are the required dimensions for lavatory clearance that are indicated as A,B,C?

    • A.

      A=9", B=8", C=30"

    • B.

      A=8", B=8", C=27"

    • C.

      A=8", B=9", C=28"

    • D.

      A=6", B=12", C=27"

    Correct Answer
    C. A=8", B=9", C=28"
    Explanation
    The dimensions for lavatory clearance are standardized to ensure adequate space and accessibility.
    A represents the distance from the centerline of the lavatory to any side wall or other obstruction. This allows enough space for comfortable use and prevents interference with adjacent fixtures or walls.
    B represents the minimum clearance in front of the lavatory to allow for proper access and usability.
    C represents the overall depth or projection of the lavatory from the wall, ensuring that there is sufficient space for users to stand or maneuver comfortably in front of the fixture.
    These dimensions ensure that the lavatory meets safety and accessibility standards while providing a functional and comfortable user experience.

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  • 15. 

    What are the requried dimensions in the diagonal and side transfer approach toilet stalls?

    • A.

      A=18-30", B=18", C=36", D=18"

    • B.

      A=36", B=18", C=42", D=18"

    • C.

      A=18-30", B=18", C=48", D=18"

    • D.

      A=18-30", B=18", C=42", D=18"

    Correct Answer
    D. A=18-30", B=18", C=42", D=18"
  • 16. 

    Which of the following groups of woods is classified as a hard, closed pore wood?

    • A.

      Basswood, maple, birch, cherry

    • B.

      Ash, cottonwood, alder, oak

    • C.

      Teak, alder, walnut, elm

    • D.

      Chestnut, beech, birch, mahogany

    Correct Answer
    A. Basswood, maple, birch, cherry
    Explanation
    The group of woods consisting of basswood, maple, birch, and cherry is classified as a hard, closed pore wood. These woods are known for their dense structure and lack of open pores, which makes them harder and less porous compared to other types of wood.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following brick patterns is called a Flemish bond?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    A Flemish bond is a brick pattern where each row consists of alternating stretchers (bricks laid lengthwise) and headers (bricks laid widthwise). This creates a strong and visually appealing pattern with a consistent pattern of headers and stretchers on each row. Option B is the correct answer because it shows a pattern that matches the description of a Flemish bond.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following door/drawer sections is termed, "reveal overlay"?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    D. D
    Explanation
    Door/drawer section D is termed "reveal overlay" because in this type of overlay, the door or drawer front covers the entire face frame of the cabinet, leaving only a small reveal or gap between the doors/drawers. This creates a seamless and flush appearance with minimal visible frame.

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  • 19. 

    This guideline for restaurant counters or bars is written to benefit individuals with disabilities.  What should the height of the 60" long counter be?5.2  Counters and Bars.  Where food or drink is served at counters exceeding 34 in.  (865 mm) in height for consumption by customers seated on stools or standing at the counter, a portion of the main counter which is 60 in. (1525 mm) in length minimum shall be provided in compliance with 4.32 or service shall be available at accessible tables within the same area.

    • A.

      28"-32"

    • B.

      26"-34"

    • C.

      28"-34"

    • D.

      30"-34"

    Correct Answer
    C. 28"-34"
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 28"-34". According to the given guideline, the height of the counter should not exceed 34 inches (865 mm) for customers seated on stools or standing at the counter. Additionally, a portion of the main counter that is at least 60 inches (1525 mm) in length should be provided in compliance with accessibility standards. Therefore, the height of the 60" long counter should be within the range of 28"-34".

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  • 20. 

    Interior designers are relieved of design programming responsibilities when:

    • A.

      In-house facilities management staff perform these functions prior to the start of the design project.

    • B.

      The client indicates that, in their opinion, programming is an unnecessary aspect of interior design services.

    • C.

      The client's computer staff has programmed the project.

    • D.

      The general contractor agrees to take on that portion of the work.

    Correct Answer
    A. In-house facilities management staff perform these functions prior to the start of the design project.
    Explanation
    When in-house facilities management staff perform design programming responsibilities before the start of the design project, interior designers are relieved of these responsibilities. This means that the facilities management staff has already completed the necessary programming tasks, such as gathering requirements and determining the project scope, allowing the interior designers to focus solely on the design aspect of the project.

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  • 21. 

    Programming can be a relatively simple and easy task for the interior designer when:

    • A.

      The client believes that the programming phase is unnecessary.

    • B.

      The client's in-house facilities management staff has performed a thorough data gathering and spatial analysis study.

    • C.

      The client employs a computer programmer to perform the design programming.

    • D.

      The client's budget indicates that most of the programming process must be eliminated.

    Correct Answer
    B. The client's in-house facilities management staff has performed a thorough data gathering and spatial analysis study.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when the client's in-house facilities management staff has performed a thorough data gathering and spatial analysis study. This suggests that the interior designer can rely on the information and analysis provided by the client's staff, making the programming phase simpler and easier. The client's staff would have already collected and analyzed relevant data, allowing the designer to proceed with the design process without the need for extensive programming work.

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  • 22. 

    Design programming can be made difficult when:

    • A.

      The client's computer system malfunctions during the programming process.

    • B.

      The general contractor creates delays in the project's time schedule.

    • C.

      The client group has unresolved internal conflicts that impede the data gathering process.

    • D.

      Detailed equipment information is not forthcoming from the manufacturer.

    Correct Answer
    C. The client group has unresolved internal conflicts that impede the data gathering process.
    Explanation
    Design programming can be made difficult when the client group has unresolved internal conflicts that impede the data gathering process. This is because internal conflicts within the client group can lead to communication breakdowns, lack of cooperation, and disagreement on important design requirements. As a result, the data gathering process becomes hindered, making it challenging for the design team to gather the necessary information to proceed with the programming phase effectively.

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  • 23. 

    "Design Programming" is synonymous with:

    • A.

      Space planning

    • B.

      Critical path method

    • C.

      Computer programming

    • D.

      Planning methodology

    Correct Answer
    D. Planning methodology
    Explanation
    "Design Programming" refers to a planning methodology that involves gathering and analyzing information to establish the requirements and objectives for a design project. It includes activities such as conducting research, defining goals, and creating a roadmap for the design process. Therefore, "Design Programming" is synonymous with planning methodology.

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  • 24. 

    A critical step in the design programming process is: 

    • A.

      On-site observation

    • B.

      Organizing contract documents

    • C.

      Creating design sketches

    • D.

      Establishing AutoCad layering

    Correct Answer
    A. On-site observation
    Explanation
    On-site observation is a critical step in the design programming process because it allows designers to gather important information about the site, such as its physical characteristics, environmental conditions, and any existing structures or features. By observing the site firsthand, designers can better understand its context and constraints, which in turn helps them make informed decisions during the design process. This step also allows designers to identify potential opportunities and challenges that may impact the design, ensuring that the final design solution is tailored to the specific site conditions.

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  • 25. 

    A designer will develop a budget during which phase of the project?

    • A.

      Design Development phase

    • B.

      Contract Documents phase

    • C.

      Contract Administration phase

    • D.

      Programming phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Design Development phase
    Explanation
    During the Design Development phase of a project, a designer will develop a budget. This phase occurs after the Programming phase, where the project requirements and goals are established. In the Design Development phase, the designer will further refine the project's design and develop detailed drawings and specifications. As part of this process, the designer will also assess the cost implications of various design decisions and develop a budget that aligns with the project's goals and constraints. This budget will serve as a guide for the subsequent phases of the project, such as the Contract Documents phase and Contract Administration phase.

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  • 26. 

    When calculating floor area of a building for egress considerations, which is included in the net floor area of the building?

    • A.

      Kitchens

    • B.

      Corridors

    • C.

      Toilet rooms

    • D.

      Stairways

    Correct Answer
    A. Kitchens
    Explanation
    When calculating the floor area of a building for egress considerations, kitchens are included in the net floor area of the building. This is because kitchens are an essential part of a building's layout and are often used for food preparation and cooking. Including kitchens in the net floor area ensures that there is adequate space for occupants to move safely and efficiently during an emergency evacuation.

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  • 27. 

    Which is not considered part of the main egress system?

    • A.

      Exit discharge

    • B.

      Exit

    • C.

      Exit enclosure

    • D.

      Exit access

    Correct Answer
    C. Exit enclosure
    Explanation
    An exit enclosure is not considered part of the main egress system because it refers to the enclosed stairway or hallway that provides a protected route for occupants to exit a building. While exit enclosures are important components of a building's egress system, they are not typically considered part of the main egress system, which usually includes the exit access, exit, and exit discharge. The exit access refers to the path that leads from occupied areas to an exit, the exit is the actual door or opening that allows occupants to leave the building, and the exit discharge is the portion of the exit route that leads directly outside or to a public way.

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  • 28. 

    Openings in a fire barrier wall shall be limited to a maximum aggregate width of what percent?

    • A.

      15%

    • B.

      30%

    • C.

      20%

    • D.

      25%

    Correct Answer
    D. 25%
    Explanation
    Openings in a fire barrier wall should be limited to a maximum aggregate width of 25%. This means that the total width of all openings in the wall should not exceed 25% of the total width of the wall. This restriction is in place to ensure that the fire barrier wall can effectively prevent the spread of fire and smoke between compartments or areas, providing adequate protection to occupants and property.

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  • 29. 

    ASC, BRK, and FPL are abbreviations found on which drawings?

    • A.

      Working drawings

    • B.

      Electrical drawings

    • C.

      Lighting plans

    • D.

      Cabinetry or millwork drawings

    Correct Answer
    A. Working drawings
    Explanation
    ASC, BRK, and FPL are abbreviations commonly found on working drawings. Working drawings are detailed and technical drawings that provide information about the construction or assembly of a project. These drawings typically include dimensions, materials, and specifications. The abbreviations ASC, BRK, and FPL likely refer to specific components or features within the working drawings, providing further details and instructions for the construction process.

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  • 30. 

    What is one of the most commonly used flammability tests for building construction, such as wall and ceiling assemblies?

    • A.

      UL

    • B.

      NFPA 358

    • C.

      ASTM E119

    • D.

      ASTM E84

    Correct Answer
    C. ASTM E119
    Explanation
    ASTM E119 is one of the most commonly used flammability tests for building construction, specifically for wall and ceiling assemblies. This test evaluates the fire resistance of these assemblies by subjecting them to controlled fire conditions for a specified period of time. It measures factors such as flame spread, smoke production, and structural integrity to determine the assembly's ability to withstand fire. This test is widely recognized and used in the industry to assess the fire safety of building materials and assemblies.

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  • 31. 

    When discussing building limitations in the building code, the issue of "protected" and "unprotected" is often a source of confusion.  "Protected" means

    • A.

      The structural elements of the building have been treated to increase their fire resistance

    • B.

      The building uses an automatic sprinkler system

    • C.

      Mill construction or heavy timbers are used

    • D.

      A fire wall or party wall has been used

    Correct Answer
    A. The structural elements of the building have been treated to increase their fire resistance
    Explanation
    The term "protected" in the context of building limitations refers to the structural elements of the building being treated to enhance their ability to resist fire. This could involve the application of fire-resistant materials or coatings to these elements. By increasing their fire resistance, the building is better equipped to withstand the spread of fire and minimize damage.

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  • 32. 

    When completing an interior design furniture plan, it is important to give consideration to any furnishings that could come close to the sprinkler heads of the building.  The codes require that any panel or furnishing be at least ___ away from the sprinkler head deflectors.

    • A.

      18"

    • B.

      15"

    • C.

      12"

    • D.

      9"

    Correct Answer
    A. 18"
    Explanation
    When completing an interior design furniture plan, it is important to consider the proximity of furnishings to sprinkler heads. The codes require that any panel or furnishing be at least 18" away from the sprinkler head deflectors. This distance is necessary to ensure that the sprinkler heads are not obstructed and can effectively distribute water in case of a fire.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the fire suppression system?

    • A.

      Fire extinguishers

    • B.

      Sprinklers

    • C.

      Standpipes

    • D.

      Smoke detectors

    Correct Answer
    D. Smoke detectors
    Explanation
    Smoke detectors are not part of the fire suppression system because their main function is to detect the presence of smoke and alert individuals to the potential fire. Fire suppression systems, on the other hand, are designed to actively suppress or extinguish fires, such as fire extinguishers, sprinklers, and standpipes. While smoke detectors play a crucial role in fire safety by providing early warning, they do not directly suppress or extinguish fires.

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  • 34. 

    One of the most innovative and restrictive tests for furnishings uses a whole piece of furniture.  Originally it was used for furniture in public spaces with 10 or more seats with the aim of eliminating flashover.  What is the name of this test?

    • A.

      CAL 117

    • B.

      CAL 116

    • C.

      CAL 160

    • D.

      CAL 133

    Correct Answer
    D. CAL 133
    Explanation
    CAL 133 is the correct answer. CAL 133 is a test for furnishings that involves using a whole piece of furniture. It was originally designed for furniture in public spaces with 10 or more seats, with the goal of eliminating flashover.

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  • 35. 

    Fire separation walls, which include demising walls, typically require a ___-hour rating?

    • A.

      2-hour

    • B.

      1-hour

    • C.

      3/4-hour

    • D.

      1/2-hour

    Correct Answer
    B. 1-hour
    Explanation
    Fire separation walls, such as demising walls, are designed to provide a certain level of fire resistance. This means that they can withstand fire for a specific period of time before it spreads to the adjacent areas. The correct answer, 1-hour, indicates that these walls are required to have a fire-resistance rating of one hour. This means that they should be able to withstand fire for at least one hour, providing enough time for occupants to evacuate and for firefighters to control the fire.

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  • 36. 

    A senior citizen center is helping children with after-school tutoring.  To research the differences in the two groups' sitting, reaching and bending abilities, you could explore

    • A.

      Ergonomics

    • B.

      Anthropometrics

    • C.

      Ekisticks

    • D.

      Proxemics

    Correct Answer
    B. Anthropometrics
    Explanation
    ergonomics - comfort
    anthropometrics - movement
    proxemics - dimension

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  • 37. 

    At least two egress doorways are required when the occupancy load is more than ____ and the travel distance to the egress exceeds ____.

    • A.

      100 occupants and 250 feet

    • B.

      20 occupants and 50 feet

    • C.

      75 occupants and 150 feet

    • D.

      50 occupants and 75 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 occupants and 50 feet
    Explanation
    When the occupancy load is more than 20 occupants and the travel distance to the egress exceeds 50 feet, at least two egress doorways are required. This means that if there are more than 20 people in a space and the distance they need to travel to reach an exit is more than 50 feet, there must be at least two doorways available for them to exit the area. This is to ensure that in case of an emergency, there are multiple exit options for the occupants to safely evacuate the premises.

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  • 38. 

    The initial budget for the project should be provided to the client in which of the following phases?

    • A.

      Final design

    • B.

      Preliminary design

    • C.

      Initial interview

    • D.

      Programming

    Correct Answer
    B. Preliminary design
    Explanation
    The initial budget for the project should be provided to the client in the preliminary design phase. This phase involves gathering requirements, analyzing the project scope, and developing initial design concepts. Providing the client with the budget at this stage allows them to assess the feasibility of the project and make informed decisions regarding its implementation.

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  • Mar 11, 2024
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    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 18, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Lt17

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