NCCT Practice Test 2

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  • 1/75 Questions

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

    • Date it
    • Store it
    • Freeze it
    • Color it
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NCCT Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This is the NCCT practice test i bought on their website


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  • 2. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows respect and empathy towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. It also allows for a comprehensive understanding of the issue, which can aid in finding a suitable resolution. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger level are inappropriate responses that can escalate the situation and hinder effective communication and problem-solving.

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  • 3. 

    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

    • Non-verbal communication

    • Verbal communication

    • Written communication

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve spoken or written words. These non-verbal cues convey messages and information through facial expressions, gestures, and physical movements. They play a significant role in conveying emotions, attitudes, and intentions, and can often be more powerful and impactful than verbal communication alone. Therefore, the correct answer is non-verbal communication.

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  • 4. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

    • NPO

    • NBM

    • NM

    • Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is important for healthcare professionals to communicate this instruction clearly to ensure that patients understand and follow the necessary precautions for their medical condition or procedure.

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  • 5. 

    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

    • Flatus

    • Diarrhea

    • Peristalsis

    • Blockage

    Correct Answer
    A. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    Diarrhea is the correct answer because it refers to the frequent passage of liquid stools. Flatus is the term used for gas or flatulence. Peristalsis is the term used to describe the wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive system. Blockage refers to the obstruction or blockage of the digestive tract.

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  • 6. 

    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.

    • Collect

    • Use

    • Wipe away

    • Wash off

    Correct Answer
    A. Wipe away
    Explanation
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. By wiping away the first drop, a more accurate blood sample can be collected for the smear.

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  • 7. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

    • Diuretic

    • Hypertensive

    • Gestational drug

    • Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that increase the production of urine, helping to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and certain kidney disorders. By promoting increased urine output, diuretics can help to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure.

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  • 8. 

    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • Arrhythmia

    • Aneurysm

    • Embolism

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrhythmia
    Explanation
    An arrhythmia refers to an abnormal heart rhythm. It means that the heart beats too fast, too slow, or irregularly. This can disrupt the normal flow of blood and oxygen to the body, leading to various symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Arrhythmias can range from harmless to life-threatening, and they can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, stress, medications, and electrolyte imbalances. Treatment options for arrhythmias include medications, lifestyle changes, and procedures such as cardioversion or ablation.

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  • 9. 

    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

    • Gunshot wound

    • Anorexia

    • Drug addiction

    • Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician does not need the patient's permission in writing to reveal information about a gunshot wound because it falls under the exception of mandatory reporting. Gunshot wounds are considered a public safety concern, and healthcare professionals are required by law to report them to the appropriate authorities. However, for conditions like anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, the physician would need the patient's written permission to disclose any confidential information.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

    • OSHA

    • CLIA

    • CMS

    • HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    A. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the security and privacy of health information, including electronic health records, and ensures that patients have control over their own health information. HIPAA also establishes penalties for non-compliance and provides individuals with rights regarding their health information, such as the right to access and amend their records.

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  • 11. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

    • Fiscal

    • Financial

    • Fiduciary

    • Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. It is different from a calendar year, as it may start and end on a date other than January 1st. The term "fiscal" is derived from the Latin word "fiscus," which means treasury or public money, highlighting its association with financial matters.

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  • 12. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • Mark through the entry with a single red line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This ensures that the cancellation is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. Erasing the entry and writing in a new appointment may cause confusion, putting "white-out" over the entry and writing on top may not be easily readable, and scribbling out the entry and indicating initials may not be professional or clear.

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  • 13. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

    • Prn

    • Ppn

    • An

    • Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered as necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule.

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  • 14. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

    • Transcriptionist

    • Stenographer

    • Decoder

    • Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    The physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist because the task involves typing up the dictated operative report. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to audio recordings and converting them into written documents, which aligns with the role of the medical assistant in this scenario.

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  • 15. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

    • Covered amount

    • Deductable

    • Explanation of benefits

    • Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    A. Deductable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deductible." A deductible is the amount that an insured patient is responsible for paying out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the costs of medical treatment. It is a predetermined annual amount that the insured individual must pay before their insurance coverage kicks in. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for a portion or all of the medical expenses, depending on the terms of the insurance policy.

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  • 16. 

    A centrifuge works by __________.

    • Freezing blood specimens

    • Heating blood specimens

    • Incubating blood at body temp

    • Separating cells and serum

    Correct Answer
    A. Separating cells and serum
    Explanation
    A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. It uses centrifugal force to spin samples at high speeds, causing the denser components such as cells to settle at the bottom of the tube, while the less dense components such as serum rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis and testing of the individual components.

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  • 17. 

    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

    • Tid

    • Bid

    • Qid

    • Qh

    Correct Answer
    A. Tid
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "tid" stands for "ter in die" in Latin, which translates to "three times a day" in English. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken. Therefore, "tid" is the correct answer to represent the abbreviation for three times a day.

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  • 18. 

    The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.

    • Selecting the correct needle gauge

    • Using 70% alcohol prep pads

    • Identifying the patient

    • Using the correct tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifying the patient
    Explanation
    Identifying the patient is the most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw because it ensures that the correct patient is receiving the procedure. This step helps prevent any potential errors or complications that may arise from performing the procedure on the wrong individual. It is essential for patient safety and accurate medical records.

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  • 19. 

    A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.

    • 1 minute

    • 2 minutes

    • Three minutes

    • Four minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 minute
    Explanation
    A tourniquet should be on the patient's arm no longer than 1 minute because prolonged use can lead to tissue damage, nerve injury, and other complications. The pressure applied by the tourniquet restricts blood flow to the area, which is necessary in certain medical procedures or to control bleeding. However, leaving the tourniquet on for too long can cause ischemia, where the tissues are deprived of oxygen and nutrients. This can result in tissue death and other serious consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to limit the use of a tourniquet to minimize the risk of complications.

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  • 20. 

    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.

    • Work in a circle from the center to the periphery

    • Wipe carefully back and forth

    • Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

    • Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Work in a circle from the center to the periphery
    Explanation
    When cleansing the typical venipuncture site, it is recommended to work in a circle from the center to the periphery. This technique ensures that the entire area is thoroughly cleansed and reduces the risk of contamination. By starting at the intended site of the draw and working in a circular motion, any bacteria or dirt present on the skin will be effectively removed. This method helps to maintain a sterile environment and minimize the chances of infection during the venipuncture procedure.

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  • 21. 

    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • Social Security number

    • Federal tax identification number

    • State tax number

    • Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a federal tax identification number. This number is issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. It is used to identify the business entity for tax reporting and filing purposes. This number is different from a Social Security number or an insurance ID number, which serve different purposes and are not specifically issued for income tax purposes.

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  • 22. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

    • Refrigerate it for further use

    • Pour it back in the bottle

    • Discard it

    • Incubate it

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, storing used reagents can lead to confusion and potential cross-contamination if mistakenly used again. Therefore, it is best practice to dispose of used reagents properly and safely.

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  • 23. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

    • 0.5 cc

    • 1.0 cc

    • 1.5 cc

    • 0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The concentration of Demerol available is 100mg/ml. The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. To determine the volume of Demerol to be injected, we divide the ordered dose (50 mg) by the concentration (100 mg/ml). This gives us 0.5 ml or 0.5 cc of Demerol to be injected.

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  • 24. 

    Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • Inventory log

    • Maintenance log

    • Quality control log

    • No answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record that helps the medical assistant track routine inspections of electrical equipment in the office. By regularly checking and documenting the condition of cords and ensuring they are not frayed or presenting hazards, the medical assistant can ensure the equipment is in good working order and minimize the risk of accidents or malfunctions. This log serves as a reference for future inspections and helps maintain the safety and functionality of the electrical equipment in the office.

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  • 25. 

    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

    • Duration of the appointment

    • Relationship to the patient

    • Social Security number of the patient

    • Insurance provider’s contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    In order to effectively schedule and manage appointments, an office appointment calendar or book needs to include the duration of each appointment. This information is crucial for determining the availability of time slots, ensuring that appointments are appropriately spaced, and allowing for proper planning and organization of the office schedule.

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  • 26. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

    • DEA

    • EPA

    • FDA

    • CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA stands for the Drug Enforcement Administration, which is responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. The DEA registration number is a unique identifier assigned to healthcare providers who are authorized to prescribe controlled substances. This number helps to ensure that prescriptions for these substances are issued by legitimate and licensed professionals, and helps to prevent misuse and abuse of controlled substances.

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  • 27. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • Open fracture

    • Spiral fracture

    • Greenstick fracture

    • Closed fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed fracture
    Explanation
    A closed fracture refers to a break in a bone without any penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site. In this type of fracture, the bone is broken but the skin remains intact. This is different from an open fracture, where the broken bone pierces through the skin. Spiral fracture refers to a type of fracture where the bone is twisted apart, while a greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture commonly seen in children where the bone bends and cracks but does not break completely.

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  • 28. 

    To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.

    • Longer

    • Smaller

    • Larger

    • Shorter

    Correct Answer
    A. Smaller
    Explanation
    The gauge number of a needle refers to the diameter of the needle bore. The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle bore. Therefore, the correct answer is "smaller".

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  • 29. 

    How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?

    • At body temperature

    • In a refrigerator

    • At room temperature

    • In a freezer

    Correct Answer
    A. In a refrigerator
    Explanation
    A 24-hour urine specimen should be stored in a refrigerator during collection. This is because refrigeration helps to preserve the integrity of the specimen by slowing down the growth of bacteria and preventing the breakdown of certain components. Storing the specimen at body temperature, in a freezer, or at room temperature may lead to changes in the composition of the urine, which can affect the accuracy of any tests that need to be performed on the specimen.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?

    • Back of the throat and tonsillar area

    • Nasopharynx and epiglottis

    • Cheeks and tongue

    • Gums and tongue

    Correct Answer
    A. Back of the throat and tonsillar area
    Explanation
    When obtaining a specimen for a throat culture, the back of the throat and tonsillar area should be swabbed. This is because these areas are more likely to harbor bacteria or viruses that may be causing an infection. Swabbing these areas allows for the collection of a sample that is more likely to accurately represent the presence of pathogens in the throat. Swabbing other areas such as the nasopharynx, epiglottis, cheeks, tongue, gums, or other parts of the mouth may not provide an accurate representation of the pathogens present in the throat.

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  • 31. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

    • Procedure review

    • Admissions review

    • Appropriateness review

    • Transfer review

    Correct Answer
    A. Admissions review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "admissions review." Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are tasked with reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient. This process is specifically referred to as "admissions review," where the Peer Review Organization evaluates whether the admission of a patient to the hospital is appropriate and necessary based on certain criteria and guidelines.

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  • 32. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • Suppressant

    • Decongestant

    • Antihistamine

    • Inebronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    A. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal congestion and improve airflow. Unlike antihistamines, which mainly target allergies, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Suppressants and bronchodilators are not specifically designed to decrease mucus in the nasal passages.

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  • 33. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

    • Miotic

    • Diuretic

    • Cytotoxin

    • Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    A. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to loosen and expel mucus from the respiratory tract, making it easier to clear the airways. This can be beneficial for individuals with excessive mucus production or a persistent cough.

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  • 34. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

    • Right justified

    • Indented 5 spaces

    • Equally spaced vertically

    • At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    A. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    In full block style, all lines of a business letter are aligned at the left hand margin. This means that the text starts at the left edge of the page and does not have any indentation. Each line of the letter is aligned with the left margin to create a clean and professional appearance. This format is commonly used in business communication to ensure consistency and readability.

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  • 35. 

    Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.

    • Defribrillation

    • Shock treatment

    • V tach

    • Scintillation

    Correct Answer
    A. Defribrillation
    Explanation
    Defibrillation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of converting an abnormal heart rhythm, known as dysrhythmia, back to a normal rhythm by delivering an electric shock to the chest. This electrical shock helps to restore the heart's normal electrical activity and allows it to beat in a regular pattern again.

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  • 36. 

    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

    • Antitussive

    • Antiemetic

    • Antiseptic

    • Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antitussive
    Explanation
    An antitussive is a drug that is used to relieve a cough. It works by suppressing the cough reflex in the brain, reducing the urge to cough. This type of medication is commonly used to treat dry, non-productive coughs that do not produce mucus. Antitussives are often used to provide temporary relief from coughing caused by conditions such as the common cold, bronchitis, or allergies. They can be available over-the-counter or as prescription medications, depending on the specific formulation and strength.

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  • 37. 

    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.

    • Uniform

    • Malignant

    • Fused

    • Bigeminy

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform
    Explanation
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heart rhythm where the ventricles contract earlier than expected. In this case, the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears. This suggests that the PVCs are originating from the same source and have a consistent pattern. Therefore, the term "uniform" accurately describes this type of PVC.

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  • 38. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

    • Cystitis

    • Urethral stricture

    • Chronic renal failure

    • Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethral stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called urethral stricture. This condition restricts the flow of urine and can cause various urinary symptoms such as difficulty urinating, frequent urination, and urinary tract infections. It can be caused by various factors including trauma, inflammation, or previous surgeries in the pelvic area. Treatment options for urethral stricture may include medication, dilation, or surgical procedures to widen or reconstruct the urethra.

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  • 39. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • Insulin syringe

    • Tuberculin syringe

    • Hypodermic syringes

    • A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    A. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection. Intradermal injections are shallow injections that are administered just below the epidermis, so a smaller syringe like a tuberculin syringe is ideal. Tuberculin syringes are designed specifically for this purpose, with a small volume capacity and a very fine needle that allows for precise and accurate delivery of the medication into the dermis. Insulin syringes are designed for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are designed for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not typically used for intradermal injections.

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  • 40. 

    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

    • Transdermal system

    • Reservoir system

    • Ointment system

    • Epidermis system

    Correct Answer
    A. Transdermal system
    Explanation
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a transdermal system because it is designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream. This method of drug delivery allows for controlled and continuous release of the medication over a prolonged period of time. The transdermal system is convenient, non-invasive, and provides a steady and consistent dosage of the medication.

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  • 41. 

    A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.

    • Appetite modifier

    • Appetite stimulant

    • Anitspasmodic

    • Appetite suppressant

    Correct Answer
    A. Appetite suppressant
    Explanation
    An appetite suppressant is a drug that helps to decrease appetite. It works by reducing feelings of hunger and increasing feelings of fullness, which can lead to a decrease in caloric intake and weight loss.

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  • 42. 

    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

    • Vasodilator

    • Vasoconstrictor

    • Bronchodilator

    • Dilatemetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilator
    Explanation
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to widen and increase blood flow. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension, angina, and heart failure, where increased blood flow can help improve oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues. Vasodilators can also be used to relieve symptoms of Raynaud's disease and erectile dysfunction.

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  • 43. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

    • Inflammation

    • Appetite

    • Swelling

    • Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing inflammation. Therefore, hydrocortisone is commonly used to treat conditions characterized by inflammation, such as allergies, asthma, and skin conditions like eczema or dermatitis. It helps to alleviate symptoms like redness, swelling, and pain associated with inflammation.

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  • 44. 

    An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the __________ required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

    • Time

    • Route

    • Muscles

    • Heart structures

    Correct Answer
    A. Time
    Explanation
    An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the time required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart. This is because the electrical activity of the heart is represented as waves on the ECG, and the time intervals between these waves provide important information about the functioning of the heart. By measuring the time it takes for the voltage to travel through different parts of the heart, abnormalities or irregularities in the heart's electrical system can be detected.

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  • 45. 

    When applying leads, apply the V1 lead __________.

    • Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • On the fourth intercostal space right sternal border

    • Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • On the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

    Correct Answer
    A. On the fourth intercostal space right sternal border
  • 46. 

    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

    • Solution

    • Emulsion

    • Elixir

    • Tincture

    Correct Answer
    A. Emulsion
    Explanation
    An emulsion is a liquid preparation that contains fine droplets of one immiscible liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (water). Emulsions are commonly used in various industries, such as cosmetics and pharmaceuticals, to create products that combine the properties of both liquids. In the context of the question, a liquid preparation that mixes fine droplets of oil in water fits the definition of an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.

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  • 47. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • Narcotic overdose

    • Inflammation

    • Angina pectoris

    • Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Angina pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort, usually caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood and oxygen to reach the heart. This helps to relieve the chest pain associated with angina pectoris.

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  • 48. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. This means that these drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk of abuse and addiction. They are classified as Schedule I to reflect their lack of accepted medical use and the potential harm they can cause to individuals who use them. These drugs are tightly regulated and often illegal to possess or distribute.

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  • 49. 

    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________.

    • R wave

    • T wave

    • Q wave

    • S wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Q wave
    Explanation
    The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence, as well as its size and shape, can provide valuable information about the health of the heart.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
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  • Jun 21, 2012
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    Liliana77
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