NCCT Practice Test 2

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  • 1/75 Questions

    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.

    • Reorder point
    • Inventory control log
    • Order quantity
    • All answers are correct
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  • 2. 

    A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

    • Inventory control tag

    • Packing slip

    • Purchase order

    • Invoice

    Correct Answer
    A. Packing slip
    Explanation
    A packing slip is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

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  • 3. 

    Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • Inventory log

    • Maintenance log

    • Quality control log

    • No answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record that helps the medical assistant track routine inspections of electrical equipment in the office. By regularly checking and documenting the condition of cords and ensuring they are not frayed or presenting hazards, the medical assistant can ensure the equipment is in good working order and minimize the risk of accidents or malfunctions. This log serves as a reference for future inspections and helps maintain the safety and functionality of the electrical equipment in the office.

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  • 4. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

    • Transcriptionist

    • Stenographer

    • Decoder

    • Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    The physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist because the task involves typing up the dictated operative report. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to audio recordings and converting them into written documents, which aligns with the role of the medical assistant in this scenario.

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  • 5. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

    • Procedure review

    • Admissions review

    • Appropriateness review

    • Transfer review

    Correct Answer
    A. Admissions review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "admissions review." Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are tasked with reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient. This process is specifically referred to as "admissions review," where the Peer Review Organization evaluates whether the admission of a patient to the hospital is appropriate and necessary based on certain criteria and guidelines.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent
    Explanation
    Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent is a decision based upon bioethics. Bioethics involves ethical considerations related to medical practices and decisions. In this scenario, the decision to provide medical treatment to a pregnant teenager without parental consent raises ethical questions regarding the autonomy and confidentiality of the patient, as well as the potential risks and benefits of the treatment. This decision requires balancing the best interests of the patient with legal and ethical obligations.

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  • 7. 

    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

    • Gunshot wound

    • Anorexia

    • Drug addiction

    • Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician does not need the patient's permission in writing to reveal information about a gunshot wound because it falls under the exception of mandatory reporting. Gunshot wounds are considered a public safety concern, and healthcare professionals are required by law to report them to the appropriate authorities. However, for conditions like anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, the physician would need the patient's written permission to disclose any confidential information.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

    • OSHA

    • CLIA

    • CMS

    • HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    A. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the security and privacy of health information, including electronic health records, and ensures that patients have control over their own health information. HIPAA also establishes penalties for non-compliance and provides individuals with rights regarding their health information, such as the right to access and amend their records.

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  • 9. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

    • Right justified

    • Indented 5 spaces

    • Equally spaced vertically

    • At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    A. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    In full block style, all lines of a business letter are aligned at the left hand margin. This means that the text starts at the left edge of the page and does not have any indentation. Each line of the letter is aligned with the left margin to create a clean and professional appearance. This format is commonly used in business communication to ensure consistency and readability.

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  • 10. 

    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

    • Comma

    • Semicolon

    • Asterisk

    • Colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Colon
    Explanation
    In business letter writing, the salutation is followed by a colon. This punctuation mark is used to indicate that the salutation is complete and that the body of the letter will follow. It is a standard convention in formal letter writing to use a colon after the salutation as it provides a clear and professional transition between the greeting and the main content of the letter.

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  • 11. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows respect and empathy towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. It also allows for a comprehensive understanding of the issue, which can aid in finding a suitable resolution. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger level are inappropriate responses that can escalate the situation and hinder effective communication and problem-solving.

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  • 12. 

    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

    • Non-verbal communication

    • Verbal communication

    • Written communication

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve spoken or written words. These non-verbal cues convey messages and information through facial expressions, gestures, and physical movements. They play a significant role in conveying emotions, attitudes, and intentions, and can often be more powerful and impactful than verbal communication alone. Therefore, the correct answer is non-verbal communication.

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  • 13. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • Mark through the entry with a single red line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This ensures that the cancellation is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. Erasing the entry and writing in a new appointment may cause confusion, putting "white-out" over the entry and writing on top may not be easily readable, and scribbling out the entry and indicating initials may not be professional or clear.

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  • 14. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

    • Covered amount

    • Deductable

    • Explanation of benefits

    • Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    A. Deductable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deductible." A deductible is the amount that an insured patient is responsible for paying out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the costs of medical treatment. It is a predetermined annual amount that the insured individual must pay before their insurance coverage kicks in. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for a portion or all of the medical expenses, depending on the terms of the insurance policy.

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  • 15. 

    Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.

    • Payment agreements

    • Assignment of benefits

    • Benefit accommodations

    • Assignment of payments

    Correct Answer
    A. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "assignment of benefits". This term refers to the instructions given by an insurance company regarding the recipient and location of payment. It typically involves assigning the benefits of an insurance policy to a healthcare provider or another party, who will then receive the payment directly from the insurance company. This is commonly done in medical billing to ensure that the healthcare provider is paid directly for their services.

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  • 16. 

    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • Social Security number

    • Federal tax identification number

    • State tax number

    • Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a federal tax identification number. This number is issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. It is used to identify the business entity for tax reporting and filing purposes. This number is different from a Social Security number or an insurance ID number, which serve different purposes and are not specifically issued for income tax purposes.

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  • 17. 

    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

    • Duration of the appointment

    • Relationship to the patient

    • Social Security number of the patient

    • Insurance provider’s contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    In order to effectively schedule and manage appointments, an office appointment calendar or book needs to include the duration of each appointment. This information is crucial for determining the availability of time slots, ensuring that appointments are appropriately spaced, and allowing for proper planning and organization of the office schedule.

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  • 18. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

    • Fiscal

    • Financial

    • Fiduciary

    • Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. It is different from a calendar year, as it may start and end on a date other than January 1st. The term "fiscal" is derived from the Latin word "fiscus," which means treasury or public money, highlighting its association with financial matters.

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  • 19. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

    • DEA

    • EPA

    • FDA

    • CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA stands for the Drug Enforcement Administration, which is responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. The DEA registration number is a unique identifier assigned to healthcare providers who are authorized to prescribe controlled substances. This number helps to ensure that prescriptions for these substances are issued by legitimate and licensed professionals, and helps to prevent misuse and abuse of controlled substances.

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  • 20. 

    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.

    • Pre-certification

    • Pre-authorization

    • Pre-determination

    • Pre-existing

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-certification
    Explanation
    Pre-certification is the process of verifying whether a specific medical treatment will be covered by a patient's insurance policy contract. It involves obtaining approval from the insurance company before the treatment is performed. This ensures that the patient is aware of any potential coverage limitations or requirements, and helps prevent unexpected expenses. Pre-certification is typically required for surgeries, tests, and other high-cost procedures to ensure that the insurance company will provide the necessary coverage.

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  • 21. 

    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

    • Be facing the file cabinets

    • Be able to be viewed by patients

    • Be turned on

    • Be viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Be viewed by medical personnel
    Explanation
    The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice must never be viewed by medical personnel because it contains sensitive patient information. Medical personnel have access to patient records and other confidential information, so allowing them to view the computer screen in the reception area would risk breaching patient privacy. To ensure patient confidentiality, the screen should be positioned in a way that it cannot be seen by medical personnel.

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  • 22. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

    • Lymphatic temperature

    • Axillary temperature

    • Deltoid temperature

    • Delta temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphatic temperature
  • 23. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • Open fracture

    • Spiral fracture

    • Greenstick fracture

    • Closed fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed fracture
    Explanation
    A closed fracture refers to a break in a bone without any penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site. In this type of fracture, the bone is broken but the skin remains intact. This is different from an open fracture, where the broken bone pierces through the skin. Spiral fracture refers to a type of fracture where the bone is twisted apart, while a greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture commonly seen in children where the bone bends and cracks but does not break completely.

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  • 24. 

    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

    • Tid

    • Bid

    • Qid

    • Qh

    Correct Answer
    A. Tid
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "tid" stands for "ter in die" in Latin, which translates to "three times a day" in English. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken. Therefore, "tid" is the correct answer to represent the abbreviation for three times a day.

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  • 25. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

    • Prn

    • Ppn

    • An

    • Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered as necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule.

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  • 26. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

    • NPO

    • NBM

    • NM

    • Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is important for healthcare professionals to communicate this instruction clearly to ensure that patients understand and follow the necessary precautions for their medical condition or procedure.

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  • 27. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • Insulin syringe

    • Tuberculin syringe

    • Hypodermic syringes

    • A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    A. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection. Intradermal injections are shallow injections that are administered just below the epidermis, so a smaller syringe like a tuberculin syringe is ideal. Tuberculin syringes are designed specifically for this purpose, with a small volume capacity and a very fine needle that allows for precise and accurate delivery of the medication into the dermis. Insulin syringes are designed for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are designed for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not typically used for intradermal injections.

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  • 28. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

    • Refrigerate it for further use

    • Pour it back in the bottle

    • Discard it

    • Incubate it

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, storing used reagents can lead to confusion and potential cross-contamination if mistakenly used again. Therefore, it is best practice to dispose of used reagents properly and safely.

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  • 29. 

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

    • Date it

    • Store it

    • Freeze it

    • Color it

    Correct Answer
    A. Date it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "date it". When making a solution, it is important to label it with the date. This helps in tracking the age and freshness of the solution, ensuring that it is used within its expiration date. Labeling the solution with the date also helps in organizing and identifying solutions in a systematic manner.

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  • 30. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

    • 0.5 cc

    • 1.0 cc

    • 1.5 cc

    • 0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The concentration of Demerol available is 100mg/ml. The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. To determine the volume of Demerol to be injected, we divide the ordered dose (50 mg) by the concentration (100 mg/ml). This gives us 0.5 ml or 0.5 cc of Demerol to be injected.

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  • 31. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

    • Diuretic

    • Hypertensive

    • Gestational drug

    • Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that increase the production of urine, helping to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and certain kidney disorders. By promoting increased urine output, diuretics can help to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure.

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  • 32. 

    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

    • Antitussive

    • Antiemetic

    • Antiseptic

    • Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antitussive
    Explanation
    An antitussive is a drug that is used to relieve a cough. It works by suppressing the cough reflex in the brain, reducing the urge to cough. This type of medication is commonly used to treat dry, non-productive coughs that do not produce mucus. Antitussives are often used to provide temporary relief from coughing caused by conditions such as the common cold, bronchitis, or allergies. They can be available over-the-counter or as prescription medications, depending on the specific formulation and strength.

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  • 33. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

    • Antipyretic

    • Antidote

    • Antiemetic

    • Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Analgesic
    Explanation
    An analgesic is a drug that is used to control pain, not temperature. Therefore, the given correct answer is incorrect.

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  • 34. 

    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

    • Vasodilator

    • Vasoconstrictor

    • Bronchodilator

    • Dilatemetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilator
    Explanation
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to widen and increase blood flow. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension, angina, and heart failure, where increased blood flow can help improve oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues. Vasodilators can also be used to relieve symptoms of Raynaud's disease and erectile dysfunction.

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  • 35. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • Suppressant

    • Decongestant

    • Antihistamine

    • Inebronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    A. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal congestion and improve airflow. Unlike antihistamines, which mainly target allergies, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Suppressants and bronchodilators are not specifically designed to decrease mucus in the nasal passages.

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  • 36. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

    • Miotic

    • Diuretic

    • Cytotoxin

    • Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    A. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to loosen and expel mucus from the respiratory tract, making it easier to clear the airways. This can be beneficial for individuals with excessive mucus production or a persistent cough.

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  • 37. 

    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

    • Solution

    • Emulsion

    • Elixir

    • Tincture

    Correct Answer
    A. Emulsion
    Explanation
    An emulsion is a liquid preparation that contains fine droplets of one immiscible liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (water). Emulsions are commonly used in various industries, such as cosmetics and pharmaceuticals, to create products that combine the properties of both liquids. In the context of the question, a liquid preparation that mixes fine droplets of oil in water fits the definition of an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.

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  • 38. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • Narcotic overdose

    • Inflammation

    • Angina pectoris

    • Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Angina pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort, usually caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood and oxygen to reach the heart. This helps to relieve the chest pain associated with angina pectoris.

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  • 39. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

    • Inflammation

    • Appetite

    • Swelling

    • Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing inflammation. Therefore, hydrocortisone is commonly used to treat conditions characterized by inflammation, such as allergies, asthma, and skin conditions like eczema or dermatitis. It helps to alleviate symptoms like redness, swelling, and pain associated with inflammation.

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  • 40. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. This means that these drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk of abuse and addiction. They are classified as Schedule I to reflect their lack of accepted medical use and the potential harm they can cause to individuals who use them. These drugs are tightly regulated and often illegal to possess or distribute.

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  • 41. 

    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

    • Transdermal system

    • Reservoir system

    • Ointment system

    • Epidermis system

    Correct Answer
    A. Transdermal system
    Explanation
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a transdermal system because it is designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream. This method of drug delivery allows for controlled and continuous release of the medication over a prolonged period of time. The transdermal system is convenient, non-invasive, and provides a steady and consistent dosage of the medication.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 17.

    • Superior Vena Cava

    • Aorta

    • Right atrium

    • Pulmonary vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It is located in the illustration as number 17. The other options listed are not the correct answer as they represent different parts of the cardiovascular system.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 18.

    • Inferior vena cava

    • Superior vena cava

    • Right atrium

    • Right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior vena cava
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, the correct answer can be identified by referring to illustration #5. In this illustration, number 18 represents the Superior vena cava.

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  • 44. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

    • Cystitis

    • Urethral stricture

    • Chronic renal failure

    • Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethral stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called urethral stricture. This condition restricts the flow of urine and can cause various urinary symptoms such as difficulty urinating, frequent urination, and urinary tract infections. It can be caused by various factors including trauma, inflammation, or previous surgeries in the pelvic area. Treatment options for urethral stricture may include medication, dilation, or surgical procedures to widen or reconstruct the urethra.

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  • 45. 

    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.

    • High blood pressure

    • Type 1 diabetes

    • Pancreatitis

    • Type 2 diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 1 diabetes
    Explanation
    Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease where the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin. Insulin is necessary for regulating blood sugar levels, so the lack of insulin leads to high blood sugar levels. Unlike type 2 diabetes, which is often caused by lifestyle factors, type 1 diabetes is typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence and is an autoimmune condition where the body mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Treatment for type 1 diabetes involves daily insulin injections or the use of an insulin pump to manage blood sugar levels.

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  • 46. 

    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.

    • Enema

    • Colostomy

    • Constipation

    • Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis is the correct answer because it refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines that propel food and waste through the digestive system. This process allows for the efficient movement of materials through the digestive tract and is essential for proper digestion and elimination.

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  • 47. 

    The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.

    • Peristalsis

    • Anal incontinence

    • Fecal impaction

    • Feces

    Correct Answer
    A. Fecal impaction
    Explanation
    Fecal impaction refers to the prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum. This condition occurs when stool becomes hard and dry, making it difficult to pass. It can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Treatment usually involves the use of laxatives or manual removal of the impacted stool.

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  • 48. 

    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

    • Flatus

    • Diarrhea

    • Peristalsis

    • Blockage

    Correct Answer
    A. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    Diarrhea is the correct answer because it refers to the frequent passage of liquid stools. Flatus is the term used for gas or flatulence. Peristalsis is the term used to describe the wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive system. Blockage refers to the obstruction or blockage of the digestive tract.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 69.

    • Nasal

    • Zygomatic

    • Temporal

    • Radius

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporal

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jun 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Liliana77

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