NCCT Practice Test 2

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1. When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "date it". When making a solution, it is important to label it with the date. This helps in tracking the age and freshness of the solution, ensuring that it is used within its expiration date. Labeling the solution with the date also helps in organizing and identifying solutions in a systematic manner.

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2. When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

Explanation

When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows respect and empathy towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. It also allows for a comprehensive understanding of the issue, which can aid in finding a suitable resolution. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger level are inappropriate responses that can escalate the situation and hinder effective communication and problem-solving.

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3. Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.

Explanation

Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve spoken or written words. These non-verbal cues convey messages and information through facial expressions, gestures, and physical movements. They play a significant role in conveying emotions, attitudes, and intentions, and can often be more powerful and impactful than verbal communication alone. Therefore, the correct answer is non-verbal communication.

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4. The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.

Explanation

The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. It is important for healthcare professionals to communicate this instruction clearly to ensure that patients understand and follow the necessary precautions for their medical condition or procedure.

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5. The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.

Explanation

Diarrhea is the correct answer because it refers to the frequent passage of liquid stools. Flatus is the term used for gas or flatulence. Peristalsis is the term used to describe the wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive system. Blockage refers to the obstruction or blockage of the digestive tract.

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6. When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.

Explanation

When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. By wiping away the first drop, a more accurate blood sample can be collected for the smear.

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7. A drug that causes urination is called a __________.

Explanation

A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that increase the production of urine, helping to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and certain kidney disorders. By promoting increased urine output, diuretics can help to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure.

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8. When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.

Explanation

An arrhythmia refers to an abnormal heart rhythm. It means that the heart beats too fast, too slow, or irregularly. This can disrupt the normal flow of blood and oxygen to the body, leading to various symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Arrhythmias can range from harmless to life-threatening, and they can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, stress, medications, and electrolyte imbalances. Treatment options for arrhythmias include medications, lifestyle changes, and procedures such as cardioversion or ablation.

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9. A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?

Explanation

A physician does not need the patient's permission in writing to reveal information about a gunshot wound because it falls under the exception of mandatory reporting. Gunshot wounds are considered a public safety concern, and healthcare professionals are required by law to report them to the appropriate authorities. However, for conditions like anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, the physician would need the patient's written permission to disclose any confidential information.

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10. Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?

Explanation

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the security and privacy of health information, including electronic health records, and ensures that patients have control over their own health information. HIPAA also establishes penalties for non-compliance and provides individuals with rights regarding their health information, such as the right to access and amend their records.

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11. A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.

Explanation

A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. It is different from a calendar year, as it may start and end on a date other than January 1st. The term "fiscal" is derived from the Latin word "fiscus," which means treasury or public money, highlighting its association with financial matters.

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12. What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

Explanation

The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This ensures that the cancellation is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. Erasing the entry and writing in a new appointment may cause confusion, putting "white-out" over the entry and writing on top may not be easily readable, and scribbling out the entry and indicating initials may not be professional or clear.

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13. The abbreviation for as needed is __________.

Explanation

The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered as necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule.

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14. When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.

Explanation

The physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist because the task involves typing up the dictated operative report. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to audio recordings and converting them into written documents, which aligns with the role of the medical assistant in this scenario.

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15. The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "deductible." A deductible is the amount that an insured patient is responsible for paying out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the costs of medical treatment. It is a predetermined annual amount that the insured individual must pay before their insurance coverage kicks in. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for a portion or all of the medical expenses, depending on the terms of the insurance policy.

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16. A centrifuge works by __________.

Explanation

A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. It uses centrifugal force to spin samples at high speeds, causing the denser components such as cells to settle at the bottom of the tube, while the less dense components such as serum rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis and testing of the individual components.

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17. The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.

Explanation

The abbreviation "tid" stands for "ter in die" in Latin, which translates to "three times a day" in English. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate the frequency at which a medication should be taken. Therefore, "tid" is the correct answer to represent the abbreviation for three times a day.

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18. The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.

Explanation

Identifying the patient is the most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw because it ensures that the correct patient is receiving the procedure. This step helps prevent any potential errors or complications that may arise from performing the procedure on the wrong individual. It is essential for patient safety and accurate medical records.

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19. A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.

Explanation

A tourniquet should be on the patient's arm no longer than 1 minute because prolonged use can lead to tissue damage, nerve injury, and other complications. The pressure applied by the tourniquet restricts blood flow to the area, which is necessary in certain medical procedures or to control bleeding. However, leaving the tourniquet on for too long can cause ischemia, where the tissues are deprived of oxygen and nutrients. This can result in tissue death and other serious consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to limit the use of a tourniquet to minimize the risk of complications.

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20. To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.

Explanation

When cleansing the typical venipuncture site, it is recommended to work in a circle from the center to the periphery. This technique ensures that the entire area is thoroughly cleansed and reduces the risk of contamination. By starting at the intended site of the draw and working in a circular motion, any bacteria or dirt present on the skin will be effectively removed. This method helps to maintain a sterile environment and minimize the chances of infection during the venipuncture procedure.

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21. The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

Explanation

The correct answer is a federal tax identification number. This number is issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. It is used to identify the business entity for tax reporting and filing purposes. This number is different from a Social Security number or an insurance ID number, which serve different purposes and are not specifically issued for income tax purposes.

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22. When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.

Explanation

When you have finished using a reagent, you should discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, storing used reagents can lead to confusion and potential cross-contamination if mistakenly used again. Therefore, it is best practice to dispose of used reagents properly and safely.

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23. The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?

Explanation

The concentration of Demerol available is 100mg/ml. The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. To determine the volume of Demerol to be injected, we divide the ordered dose (50 mg) by the concentration (100 mg/ml). This gives us 0.5 ml or 0.5 cc of Demerol to be injected.

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24. Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

Explanation

A maintenance log is a record that helps the medical assistant track routine inspections of electrical equipment in the office. By regularly checking and documenting the condition of cords and ensuring they are not frayed or presenting hazards, the medical assistant can ensure the equipment is in good working order and minimize the risk of accidents or malfunctions. This log serves as a reference for future inspections and helps maintain the safety and functionality of the electrical equipment in the office.

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25. An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.

Explanation

In order to effectively schedule and manage appointments, an office appointment calendar or book needs to include the duration of each appointment. This information is crucial for determining the availability of time slots, ensuring that appointments are appropriately spaced, and allowing for proper planning and organization of the office schedule.

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26. Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.

Explanation

Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA stands for the Drug Enforcement Administration, which is responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. The DEA registration number is a unique identifier assigned to healthcare providers who are authorized to prescribe controlled substances. This number helps to ensure that prescriptions for these substances are issued by legitimate and licensed professionals, and helps to prevent misuse and abuse of controlled substances.

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27. What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

Explanation

A closed fracture refers to a break in a bone without any penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site. In this type of fracture, the bone is broken but the skin remains intact. This is different from an open fracture, where the broken bone pierces through the skin. Spiral fracture refers to a type of fracture where the bone is twisted apart, while a greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture commonly seen in children where the bone bends and cracks but does not break completely.

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28. To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.

Explanation

The gauge number of a needle refers to the diameter of the needle bore. The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle bore. Therefore, the correct answer is "smaller".

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29. How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?

Explanation

A 24-hour urine specimen should be stored in a refrigerator during collection. This is because refrigeration helps to preserve the integrity of the specimen by slowing down the growth of bacteria and preventing the breakdown of certain components. Storing the specimen at body temperature, in a freezer, or at room temperature may lead to changes in the composition of the urine, which can affect the accuracy of any tests that need to be performed on the specimen.

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30. Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?

Explanation

When obtaining a specimen for a throat culture, the back of the throat and tonsillar area should be swabbed. This is because these areas are more likely to harbor bacteria or viruses that may be causing an infection. Swabbing these areas allows for the collection of a sample that is more likely to accurately represent the presence of pathogens in the throat. Swabbing other areas such as the nasopharynx, epiglottis, cheeks, tongue, gums, or other parts of the mouth may not provide an accurate representation of the pathogens present in the throat.

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31. Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "admissions review." Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are tasked with reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient. This process is specifically referred to as "admissions review," where the Peer Review Organization evaluates whether the admission of a patient to the hospital is appropriate and necessary based on certain criteria and guidelines.

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32. A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

Explanation

A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal congestion and improve airflow. Unlike antihistamines, which mainly target allergies, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Suppressants and bronchodilators are not specifically designed to decrease mucus in the nasal passages.

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33. A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.

Explanation

An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to loosen and expel mucus from the respiratory tract, making it easier to clear the airways. This can be beneficial for individuals with excessive mucus production or a persistent cough.

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34. A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.

Explanation

In full block style, all lines of a business letter are aligned at the left hand margin. This means that the text starts at the left edge of the page and does not have any indentation. Each line of the letter is aligned with the left margin to create a clean and professional appearance. This format is commonly used in business communication to ensure consistency and readability.

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35. Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.

Explanation

Defibrillation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of converting an abnormal heart rhythm, known as dysrhythmia, back to a normal rhythm by delivering an electric shock to the chest. This electrical shock helps to restore the heart's normal electrical activity and allows it to beat in a regular pattern again.

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36. A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.

Explanation

An antitussive is a drug that is used to relieve a cough. It works by suppressing the cough reflex in the brain, reducing the urge to cough. This type of medication is commonly used to treat dry, non-productive coughs that do not produce mucus. Antitussives are often used to provide temporary relief from coughing caused by conditions such as the common cold, bronchitis, or allergies. They can be available over-the-counter or as prescription medications, depending on the specific formulation and strength.

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37. A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.

Explanation

A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heart rhythm where the ventricles contract earlier than expected. In this case, the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears. This suggests that the PVCs are originating from the same source and have a consistent pattern. Therefore, the term "uniform" accurately describes this type of PVC.

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38. A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.

Explanation

A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called urethral stricture. This condition restricts the flow of urine and can cause various urinary symptoms such as difficulty urinating, frequent urination, and urinary tract infections. It can be caused by various factors including trauma, inflammation, or previous surgeries in the pelvic area. Treatment options for urethral stricture may include medication, dilation, or surgical procedures to widen or reconstruct the urethra.

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39. Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

Explanation

A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection. Intradermal injections are shallow injections that are administered just below the epidermis, so a smaller syringe like a tuberculin syringe is ideal. Tuberculin syringes are designed specifically for this purpose, with a small volume capacity and a very fine needle that allows for precise and accurate delivery of the medication into the dermis. Insulin syringes are designed for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are designed for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not typically used for intradermal injections.

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40. A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.

Explanation

A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a transdermal system because it is designed to deliver medication through the skin and into the bloodstream. This method of drug delivery allows for controlled and continuous release of the medication over a prolonged period of time. The transdermal system is convenient, non-invasive, and provides a steady and consistent dosage of the medication.

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41. A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.

Explanation

An appetite suppressant is a drug that helps to decrease appetite. It works by reducing feelings of hunger and increasing feelings of fullness, which can lead to a decrease in caloric intake and weight loss.

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42. A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.

Explanation

A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to widen and increase blood flow. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension, angina, and heart failure, where increased blood flow can help improve oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues. Vasodilators can also be used to relieve symptoms of Raynaud's disease and erectile dysfunction.

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43. Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.

Explanation

Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing inflammation. Therefore, hydrocortisone is commonly used to treat conditions characterized by inflammation, such as allergies, asthma, and skin conditions like eczema or dermatitis. It helps to alleviate symptoms like redness, swelling, and pain associated with inflammation.

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44. An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the __________ required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

Explanation

An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the time required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart. This is because the electrical activity of the heart is represented as waves on the ECG, and the time intervals between these waves provide important information about the functioning of the heart. By measuring the time it takes for the voltage to travel through different parts of the heart, abnormalities or irregularities in the heart's electrical system can be detected.

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45. When applying leads, apply the V1 lead __________.

Explanation

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46. A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.

Explanation

An emulsion is a liquid preparation that contains fine droplets of one immiscible liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (water). Emulsions are commonly used in various industries, such as cosmetics and pharmaceuticals, to create products that combine the properties of both liquids. In the context of the question, a liquid preparation that mixes fine droplets of oil in water fits the definition of an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.

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47. Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

Explanation

Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort, usually caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood and oxygen to reach the heart. This helps to relieve the chest pain associated with angina pectoris.

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48. Schedule I drugs include __________.

Explanation

Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. This means that these drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk of abuse and addiction. They are classified as Schedule I to reflect their lack of accepted medical use and the potential harm they can cause to individuals who use them. These drugs are tightly regulated and often illegal to possess or distribute.

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49. A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________.

Explanation

The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence, as well as its size and shape, can provide valuable information about the health of the heart.

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50. To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "all answers are correct" because establishing a reorder point ensures that supplies are reordered when they reach a certain level, an inventory control log helps in keeping track of the supplies and their usage, and determining the order quantity ensures that enough supplies are ordered to meet the needs of the medical office. Therefore, all of these options are important in ensuring that the medical office has the supplies it needs.

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51. A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a __________.

Explanation

A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a non-pathogen because it does not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. Non-pathogens are generally harmless and may even have beneficial effects, such as aiding in digestion or promoting a healthy immune system. Unlike pathogens, which are capable of causing disease, non-pathogens do not pose a significant threat to the health and well-being of individuals or populations.

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52. Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?

Explanation

The statement "It doesn’t really matter which direction you lancet a finger" is false because the direction in which a finger is lanced does matter during blood drawing. The lancet should be positioned parallel to the fingerprint ridges to minimize pain and maximize blood flow. Lancing in the wrong direction can cause unnecessary pain and may not yield enough blood for testing purposes.

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53. Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?

Explanation

The Gram stain is used to classify bacteria into two groups: gram-positive and gram-negative. This staining technique involves the use of crystal violet dye, iodine, alcohol, and safranin. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet dye and appear purple under a microscope, while gram-negative bacteria do not retain the dye and appear pink or red. The Gram stain is an important tool in microbiology for identifying and categorizing bacteria based on their cell wall structure.

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54. The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.

Explanation

Fecal impaction refers to the prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum. This condition occurs when stool becomes hard and dry, making it difficult to pass. It can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Treatment usually involves the use of laxatives or manual removal of the impacted stool.

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55. Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a __________.

Explanation

All the options provided (catheter, cannula, and tent) can be used to administer oxygen to a patient. A catheter is a thin tube that can be inserted into a body cavity or blood vessel to deliver oxygen. A cannula is a flexible tube that can be inserted into the nostrils or directly into the trachea to deliver oxygen. A tent is a device that covers the patient's head and upper body, delivering oxygen through a mask or hood. Therefore, all the answers are correct as they represent different methods of administering oxygen to a patient.

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56. A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.

Explanation

Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease where the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin. Insulin is necessary for regulating blood sugar levels, so the lack of insulin leads to high blood sugar levels. Unlike type 2 diabetes, which is often caused by lifestyle factors, type 1 diabetes is typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence and is an autoimmune condition where the body mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Treatment for type 1 diabetes involves daily insulin injections or the use of an insulin pump to manage blood sugar levels.

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57. The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.

Explanation

Peristalsis is the correct answer because it refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines that propel food and waste through the digestive system. This process allows for the efficient movement of materials through the digestive tract and is essential for proper digestion and elimination.

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58. On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the __________.

Explanation

The sensitivity switch on an ECG machine controls both the amplitude and gain. Amplitude refers to the height of the ECG waveforms, while gain refers to the overall size of the ECG tracing. By adjusting the sensitivity switch, the user can increase or decrease the amplitude and gain of the ECG waveform, allowing for better visualization and analysis of the electrical activity of the heart.

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59. When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

Explanation

In business letter writing, the salutation is followed by a colon. This punctuation mark is used to indicate that the salutation is complete and that the body of the letter will follow. It is a standard convention in formal letter writing to use a colon after the salutation as it provides a clear and professional transition between the greeting and the main content of the letter.

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60. Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine?

Explanation

The urine dipstick test that detects acetone in the urine is the ketones test. Acetone is a type of ketone that can be present in the urine, especially in conditions like diabetes or prolonged fasting. The ketones test on the dipstick helps to identify the presence of ketones, including acetone, in the urine. This test is important in diagnosing and monitoring conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, where the body produces excess ketones.

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61. Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "assignment of benefits". This term refers to the instructions given by an insurance company regarding the recipient and location of payment. It typically involves assigning the benefits of an insurance policy to a healthcare provider or another party, who will then receive the payment directly from the insurance company. This is commonly done in medical billing to ensure that the healthcare provider is paid directly for their services.

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62. When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called __________.

Explanation

When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called "absolutely regular" because the R-R intervals represent the time between consecutive heartbeats. In a normal ECG, there is usually some variation in these intervals due to factors such as respiration and autonomic nervous system activity. However, when there is no variation and the intervals are consistently the same, it indicates an "absolutely regular" pattern.

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63. Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.

Explanation

Pre-certification is the process of verifying whether a specific medical treatment will be covered by a patient's insurance policy contract. It involves obtaining approval from the insurance company before the treatment is performed. This ensures that the patient is aware of any potential coverage limitations or requirements, and helps prevent unexpected expenses. Pre-certification is typically required for surgeries, tests, and other high-cost procedures to ensure that the insurance company will provide the necessary coverage.

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64. A positive urine dipstick test for albumin indicates the patient has __________ in his/her urine.

Explanation

A positive urine dipstick test for albumin indicates the presence of protein in the patient's urine. This can be an indication of kidney damage or disease, as the kidneys normally filter out waste products and excess substances, including protein, from the blood. The presence of protein in the urine can be a sign of conditions such as kidney infection, glomerulonephritis, or diabetes. It is important to further investigate the underlying cause of the proteinuria in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient.

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65. Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 69.

Explanation

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66. Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 18.

Explanation

Based on the information given, the correct answer can be identified by referring to illustration #5. In this illustration, number 18 represents the Superior vena cava.

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67. When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?

Explanation

When performing any CLIA waived test, it is important to perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter. This ensures that the test is accurate and reliable. Quality control testing helps to identify any potential issues or errors in the testing process, allowing for corrective actions to be taken. By regularly performing quality control testing, healthcare professionals can maintain the integrity of the test results and ensure the quality of patient care.

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68. Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 17.

Explanation

The correct answer is Aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It is located in the illustration as number 17. The other options listed are not the correct answer as they represent different parts of the cardiovascular system.

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69. Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 70.

Explanation

The correct answer is Scapula because in the given list of body parts, the scapula is the only option that could potentially have the number 70 associated with it. The question asks to identify the number 70, and since there is no specific information or context provided in the question, we can assume that the number 70 is somehow related to the scapula.

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70. The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is __________.

Explanation

The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components: magnitude or force, and direction or shape. While magnitude or force refers to the strength of the electrical force, direction or shape refers to the orientation or pattern of the force. This means that the force can have different directions or shapes depending on the specific conditions or characteristics of the ventricular depolarization.

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71. A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

Explanation

A packing slip is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

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72. Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

Explanation

Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent is a decision based upon bioethics. Bioethics involves ethical considerations related to medical practices and decisions. In this scenario, the decision to provide medical treatment to a pregnant teenager without parental consent raises ethical questions regarding the autonomy and confidentiality of the patient, as well as the potential risks and benefits of the treatment. This decision requires balancing the best interests of the patient with legal and ethical obligations.

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73. In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.

Explanation

The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice must never be viewed by medical personnel because it contains sensitive patient information. Medical personnel have access to patient records and other confidential information, so allowing them to view the computer screen in the reception area would risk breaching patient privacy. To ensure patient confidentiality, the screen should be positioned in a way that it cannot be seen by medical personnel.

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74. A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.

Explanation

An analgesic is a drug that is used to control pain, not temperature. Therefore, the given correct answer is incorrect.

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75. The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.

Explanation

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When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.
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A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.
The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.
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