NCCT Practice Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/51 Questions

    Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as?

    • Breach of Duty
    • Competence
    • Incompetence
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About This Quiz

The NCCT Practice quiz below comprises of different general knowledge questions, which are meant to help medical officers become better and help them prepare for the actual exams. All the best as you attempt the quiz.

NCCT Practice Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called?

    • Negligence

    • Breach of Duty

    • Defamation

    Correct Answer
    A. Breach of Duty
    Explanation
    Breach of Duty refers to the violation or omission of a legal or moral duty. It occurs when someone fails to fulfill their obligations, whether they are legally bound or morally expected to do so. This can include actions or inactions that result in harm, damage, or injury to others. Negligence, on the other hand, specifically refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care, which can be a form of breach of duty. Defamation, on the other hand, involves making false statements about someone that harm their reputation.

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  • 3. 

    Latin for "he who acts through another acts for himself" is called?

    • Res gestae

    • Qui facit per alium facit per se

    • Locum tenems

    Correct Answer
    A. Qui facit per alium facit per se
    Explanation
    The Latin phrase "qui facit per alium facit per se" translates to "he who acts through another acts for himself." This phrase emphasizes the principle that when someone delegates or acts through another person, they are ultimately responsible for the actions and consequences. It implies that the person who delegates the task cannot escape accountability by simply assigning it to someone else.

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  • 4. 

    Benefits that are made in the form of cash payments are known as?

    • Indemnities

    • Deductibles

    • Medical co-pays

    Correct Answer
    A. Indemnities
    Explanation
    Indemnities are benefits that are provided in the form of cash payments. They are typically given as compensation for a loss or damage incurred by an individual or organization. Indemnities are different from deductibles and medical co-pays, which are terms commonly associated with insurance policies and healthcare expenses. Deductibles refer to the amount of money that an individual must pay out of pocket before their insurance coverage kicks in, while medical co-pays are fixed amounts that individuals are required to pay for certain medical services.

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  • 5. 

    Insurance that is meant to offset medical expenses resulting from a catastrophic illness is called?

    • Whole life policy

    • Comprehensive

    • Major medical

    Correct Answer
    A. Major medical
    Explanation
    Major medical insurance is designed to provide coverage for significant and costly medical expenses, particularly those resulting from catastrophic illnesses or injuries. This type of insurance typically covers a wide range of medical services, including hospital stays, surgeries, and specialized treatments. It aims to protect individuals from the financial burden of high medical costs that could potentially deplete their savings or lead to significant debt. Therefore, major medical is the correct answer for insurance that offsets medical expenses resulting from catastrophic illnesses.

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  • 6. 

    FICA provides benefits for?

    • Medicare

    • Social Security

    • Aid to dependent children

    Correct Answer
    A. Social Security
    Explanation
    FICA provides benefits for Social Security. FICA stands for Federal Insurance Contributions Act, which is a payroll tax that funds both Social Security and Medicare. Social Security provides retirement, disability, and survivor benefits to eligible individuals and their families. Therefore, FICA contributions help fund these Social Security benefits.

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  • 7. 

    In insurance coding using an "E" code designates?

    • A factor that contributes to a condition or disease

    • Classification of environmental events, such as poisoning

    • The primary diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Classification of environmental events, such as poisoning
    Explanation
    Using an "E" code in insurance coding designates the classification of environmental events, such as poisoning. This means that when coding for insurance purposes, an "E" code is used to identify and classify events related to the environment that may have caused a condition or disease, such as poisoning. It helps in accurately documenting and categorizing the cause of the health issue for insurance claims and statistical purposes.

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  • 8. 

    The abbreviation for dressing is?

    • Ds

    • DSS

    • Dsg

    Correct Answer
    A. Dsg
  • 9. 

    The medical term for straightening of a body part is?

    • Flexion

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Extension

    Correct Answer
    A. Extension
    Explanation
    Extension is the correct answer because it refers to the straightening of a body part. Flexion is the opposite movement, where the body part is bent or flexed. Dorsiflexion specifically refers to the extension of the foot at the ankle joint, so it is not a general term for straightening any body part.

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  • 10. 

    The medical term for a decrease in size or a wasting is?

    • Atrophy

    • Pronation

    • Abduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Atrophy
    Explanation
    Atrophy is the correct answer because it refers to the decrease in size or wasting of a body part or tissue. It is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the shrinking or weakening of muscles due to disuse, injury, or disease. Pronation refers to the inward rotation of the forearm or foot, while abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline. Therefore, neither of these terms is related to a decrease in size or wasting.

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  • 11. 

    The abbreviation for electroencephalogram is?

    • EKG

    • ECG

    • EEG

    Correct Answer
    A. EEG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EEG. Electroencephalogram is a medical test that measures and records the electrical activity of the brain. EKG and ECG are abbreviations for electrocardiogram, which is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. Therefore, EEG is the correct abbreviation for electroencephalogram.

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  • 12. 

    The opposite of deep is?

    • Low

    • Proximal

    • Superficial

    Correct Answer
    A. Superficial
    Explanation
    The opposite of deep is superficial. Deep refers to something being far below the surface or extending far inward, while superficial refers to something being near the surface or lacking depth. Therefore, superficial is the opposite of deep in terms of depth or distance from the surface.

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  • 13. 

    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a?

    • Vasoconstrictor

    • Vasodilator

    • Sedative

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilator
    Explanation
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to widen and increase blood flow. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension or angina, where increased blood flow is needed. Vasoconstrictors, on the other hand, cause constriction or narrowing of blood vessels, reducing blood flow. Sedatives have a calming or sleep-inducing effect and are unrelated to the dilation or constriction of blood vessels.

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  • 14. 

    Schedule I drugs include?

    • Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk of addiction and dependence. They are strictly controlled and illegal to possess or distribute. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, ecstasy, and marijuana (in certain jurisdictions). These substances are classified as Schedule I because they are believed to have no legitimate medical purpose and pose a significant risk to public health and safety.

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  • 15. 

    Schedule IV drugs include?

    • Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • Includes various narcotics such as Opium

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule IV drugs include minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse. This means that these drugs have a lower risk of dependency or addiction compared to drugs in higher schedules. Schedule IV drugs are commonly used for medical purposes, such as treating anxiety or insomnia, but still require a prescription from a healthcare professional. Examples of Schedule IV drugs include Xanax, Valium, and Ambien.

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  • 16. 

    The Sebaceous Glands, Skin, Hair, and Nails make up the _________ system?

    • Sensory

    • Integumentary

    • Nervous

    Correct Answer
    A. Integumentary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Integumentary. The integumentary system consists of the sebaceous glands, skin, hair, and nails. This system is responsible for protecting the body from external threats, regulating body temperature, and providing sensory information to the brain. It plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and overall body health.

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  • 17. 

    The Brain, Nerves, and Spinal Cord are in the ___________ system?

    • Skeletal

    • Nervous

    • Sensory

    Correct Answer
    A. Nervous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nervous." The brain, nerves, and spinal cord are all part of the nervous system. This system is responsible for transmitting signals and coordinating the body's response to stimuli. It controls various functions such as movement, sensation, and cognition. The skeletal system, on the other hand, is responsible for providing support, protection, and movement to the body. The sensory system is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information from the environment.

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  • 18. 

    The Humerus is located in the?

    • Leg

    • Back

    • Arm

    Correct Answer
    A. Arm
    Explanation
    The humerus is a long bone located in the arm. It is the bone that extends from the shoulder to the elbow and is responsible for connecting the shoulder girdle to the forearm. The humerus is the largest bone in the arm and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the upper limb.

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  • 19. 

    The Ulna is located in the?

    • Arm

    • Leg

    • Foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Arm
    Explanation
    The ulna is a long bone located in the arm. It runs parallel to the radius bone and together they form the forearm. The ulna is on the inner side of the forearm, while the radius is on the outer side. It plays a crucial role in forearm rotation and provides stability to the arm.

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  • 20. 

    The Radius is located in the?

    • Leg

    • Foot

    • Arm

    Correct Answer
    A. Arm
    Explanation
    The radius is one of the two bones in the forearm, along with the ulna. It is located on the same side as the thumb and runs parallel to the ulna. The arm is the correct answer because the radius is part of the skeletal structure of the arm.

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  • 21. 

    The Sphenoid bone is located in the?

    • Foot

    • Chest

    • Head

    Correct Answer
    A. Head
    Explanation
    The Sphenoid bone is located in the head. It is a complex bone that is situated at the base of the skull, towards the middle. It is shaped like a butterfly and forms part of the cranial floor. The Sphenoid bone is important as it helps to support the structures of the face and skull, and also provides attachment sites for various muscles and ligaments.

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  • 22. 

    Bones are?

    • Meant to be pliable and bend easily

    • Built to provide support & structure

    • Solid, sturdy calcium structures

    Correct Answer
    A. Built to provide support & structure
    Explanation
    Bones are built to provide support and structure to the body. They are solid and sturdy calcium structures that give our bodies shape and protect our internal organs. Without bones, our bodies would not be able to stand upright or move properly. They also serve as attachment points for muscles, allowing us to perform various movements. Overall, bones play a crucial role in maintaining the body's form and function.

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  • 23. 

    The major artery that supplies the abdomen is called the ________ artery?

    • Iliac

    • Celiac

    • Carotid

    Correct Answer
    A. Celiac
    Explanation
    The correct answer is celiac. The celiac artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the organs in the abdomen, including the stomach, liver, spleen, and pancreas. It branches off from the abdominal aorta and plays a crucial role in delivering oxygenated blood to these organs for their proper functioning. The iliac artery supplies blood to the lower limbs, while the carotid artery supplies blood to the head and neck.

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  • 24. 

    One of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of?

    • White Blood Cells

    • Red Blood Cells

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Red Blood Cells
    Explanation
    Long bones are responsible for the production of red blood cells. This process occurs in the bone marrow, which is found in the center of long bones. Red blood cells are crucial for transporting oxygen throughout the body and removing carbon dioxide. They play a vital role in maintaining overall health and proper functioning of various organs and tissues. Therefore, the formation of red blood cells is an essential function of long bones.

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  • 25. 

    The right ventricle pumps the used blood to the lungs by of the ________ artery?

    • Atria

    • Pulmonary

    • Vena Cava

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary
    Explanation
    The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. This artery carries blood from the heart to the lungs, where it picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide. The pulmonary artery is responsible for taking the used blood away from the heart and delivering it to the lungs for oxygenation.

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  • 26. 

    It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel?

    • At all times in the laboratory

    • When cleaning up blood or body fluids

    • When routinely cleaning equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. When cleaning up blood or body fluids
    Explanation
    When cleaning up blood or body fluids, it is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians or housekeeping personnel. This is because blood and body fluids can contain pathogens or infectious agents that can be transmitted through respiratory droplets or contact with the eyes. Wearing protective masks and eye wear helps to prevent the inhalation or splashing of these fluids, reducing the risk of infection. However, it is not necessary to wear them at all times in the laboratory or when routinely cleaning equipment, as the risk of exposure to blood or body fluids is lower in these situations.

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  • 27. 

    The first line of defense in preventing disease is?

    • Wearing gloves

    • The medical hand wash

    • Wearing a mask

    Correct Answer
    A. The medical hand wash
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in preventing disease is the medical hand wash. Washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer is a simple yet effective way to remove germs and prevent the spread of diseases. It helps to eliminate bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that may be present on the hands, reducing the risk of infection. Regular hand hygiene is particularly important in healthcare settings, where healthcare professionals come into contact with patients and potentially harmful microorganisms.

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  • 28. 

    The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called?

    • Disinfection

    • Washing

    • Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    A. Sterilization
    Explanation
    Sterilization is the correct answer because it refers to the process of killing all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, in a certain area. This process ensures the complete elimination of all forms of life and is commonly used in medical settings, laboratories, and food preparation to prevent the spread of infections and diseases. Disinfection, on the other hand, refers to the process of reducing the number of microorganisms to a level that is considered safe, while washing simply refers to the act of cleaning with water or a liquid detergent.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse?

    • Apical Pulse

    • Brachial Pulse

    • Apical-Radial Pulse

    Correct Answer
    A. Apical-Radial Pulse
    Explanation
    The Apical-Radial Pulse is usually used for taking a pulse. This method involves simultaneously measuring the pulse at the apex of the heart (apical pulse) and at the radial artery (radial pulse). By comparing the two pulses, healthcare professionals can assess the heart's efficiency and detect any irregularities. This technique is commonly used in situations where the patient's condition requires a more comprehensive evaluation of their cardiovascular status.

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  • 30. 

    The raidal pulse is located in the?

    • Chest

    • Neck

    • Wrist

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrist
    Explanation
    The radial pulse is located in the wrist. This is because the radial artery, which carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the hand and fingers, can be easily felt and measured at the wrist.

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  • 31. 

    Which degree of burn is the most serious?

    • First

    • Second

    • Third

    Correct Answer
    A. Third
    Explanation
    Third-degree burns are the most serious because they involve damage to all layers of the skin, including the underlying tissues. These burns are characterized by a white or charred appearance and can be painless due to nerve damage. Third-degree burns often require immediate medical attention and may require surgical intervention, such as skin grafting, for proper healing.

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  • 32. 

    Lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side is the __________ position?

    • Prone

    • Dorsal

    • Supine

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supine." The supine position refers to lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side. This position is commonly used in medical settings for procedures or examinations. It allows for easy access to the front of the body and is often the preferred position for surgeries or interventions involving the abdomen or chest.

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  • 33. 

    When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:

    • Wipe the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep

    • Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry

    • Blow on the alcohol to dry it so it doesn't burn

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
    Explanation
    When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry. This is because cleansing the site from the inside out helps to remove any potential contaminants away from the puncture site. Allowing the site to air dry helps to ensure that any remaining alcohol or cleansing solution evaporates, reducing the risk of irritation or burning when the needle is inserted. Wiping the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep or blowing on the alcohol to dry it is not recommended as it may not effectively remove contaminants and can introduce additional risks.

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  • 34. 

    To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the ___________ needle.

    • Longer

    • Shorter

    • Smaller

    Correct Answer
    A. Smaller
    Explanation
    The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle. This is because the gauge number refers to the thickness or diameter of the needle. So, a higher gauge number indicates a smaller needle size, while a lower gauge number indicates a larger needle size. Therefore, the correct answer is "Smaller".

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  • 35. 

    Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?

    • 24-25

    • 19-20

    • 21-22

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-22
    Explanation
    The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-22. These gauges are preferred because they are large enough to allow for a smooth flow of blood during the procedure, but not so large that they cause excessive discomfort or damage to the veins. Using a smaller gauge needle can make it more difficult to draw blood, while using a larger gauge needle can increase the risk of bruising or hematoma formation. Therefore, the 21-22 gauge needles strike a balance between these factors and are widely used in venipuncture.

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  • 36. 

    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and ____________?

    • Wipe carefully back and forth

    • Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

    • Work in a circle to the periphery

    Correct Answer
    A. Work in a circle to the periphery
    Explanation
    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, it is recommended to work in a circle to the periphery. This means starting at the intended site of the draw and moving outward in a circular motion. This method ensures that the entire area is properly cleansed and reduces the risk of contamination.

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  • 37. 

    When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a ___________?

    • Blue-Top Tube

    • Lavender-Top Tube

    • Red-Top Tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Red-Top Tube
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Red-Top Tube. When collecting electrolytes, a Red-Top Tube is used because it contains no additives or anticoagulants. This allows for the accurate measurement of electrolyte levels in the blood, without any interference from additives that could affect the results.

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  • 38. 

    When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a __________?

    • Lavender-Top Evacuated Tube

    • Red-Top Evacuated Tube

    • Yellow-Top Evacuated Tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Lavender-Top Evacuated Tube
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Lavender-Top Evacuated Tube. A hematocrit test measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total volume of blood. Lavender-Top Evacuated Tubes are specifically designed for collecting blood samples for hematology tests, including hematocrit tests. These tubes contain an anticoagulant called EDTA, which prevents blood from clotting and preserves the integrity of the blood sample. The lavender color of the tube indicates that it is suitable for hematology testing. Red-Top and Yellow-Top Evacuated Tubes are used for other types of blood tests and do not contain the necessary anticoagulant for hematocrit testing.

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  • 39. 

    What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?

    • Serum Only

    • White Blood Cells

    • EDTA added

    Correct Answer
    A. EDTA added
    Explanation
    To perform a hemoglobin test, EDTA added blood sample will be needed. EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting, allowing accurate measurement of hemoglobin levels. Serum only or white blood cells would not be suitable for this test as they do not contain the necessary components for hemoglobin measurement.

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  • 40. 

    The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to________?

    • 0.10 Seconds

    • 0.04 Seconds

    • 0.20 Seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.20 Seconds
    Explanation
    The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to 0.20 seconds. This is because ECG paper is typically divided into small squares and large squares. Each large square is made up of 5 small squares, and the small squares are usually equal to 0.04 seconds. Therefore, since each large square consists of 5 small squares, the duration of each large square is 5 times the duration of a small square, which is 0.04 seconds. Hence, the correct answer is 0.20 seconds.

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  • 41. 

    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _________?

    • R Wave

    • Q Wave

    • S Wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Q Wave
    Explanation
    The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence can provide important diagnostic information about certain cardiac conditions.

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  • 42. 

    The ________ wave represents atrial depolarization.

    • P

    • S

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The P wave represents atrial depolarization. During atrial depolarization, the electrical activity spreads through the atria, causing them to contract and pump blood into the ventricles. This electrical activity is represented by the P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG). The P wave is the first positive deflection seen on the ECG and indicates the initiation of the cardiac cycle.

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  • 43. 

    A QRS measurement of less than ______ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.

    • 0.16

    • 0.14

    • 0.12

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.12
    Explanation
    A QRS measurement of less than 0.12 seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker. This measurement refers to the duration of the QRS complex on an electrocardiogram (ECG), which represents the electrical activation of the ventricles. A shorter QRS duration suggests that the electrical impulse is originating from above the ventricles, indicating a supraventricular pacemaker.

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  • 44. 

    The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as _______?

    • Sinus Arrest

    • Atrial Flutter

    • Ventricular Arrhythmia

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinus Arrest
    Explanation
    Sinus arrest refers to the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted. In this condition, the sinus node, which is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses in the heart, fails to generate a normal heartbeat. This results in a pause in the cardiac rhythm, causing a temporary interruption in the normal flow of blood. Sinus arrest can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath, and may require medical intervention to restore the normal heart rhythm.

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  • 45. 

    A 24-hour urine specimen should be?

    • Kept at room temperature

    • Kept at body temperature

    • Chilled/Refrigerated

    Correct Answer
    A. Chilled/Refrigerated
    Explanation
    A 24-hour urine specimen should be chilled/refrigerated because this helps to preserve the integrity of the sample and prevent the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms. Keeping the urine specimen at a low temperature slows down the breakdown of certain compounds and reduces the risk of degradation. This is important for accurate laboratory analysis and interpretation of the results. Room temperature or body temperature may promote bacterial growth and could lead to inaccurate test results.

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  • 46. 

    To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the ___________ must be swabbed.

    • Nasopharynx and Tonsillar Area

    • Back of the tongue and epiglottis

    • Under the tongue and along the gum line

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasopharynx and Tonsillar Area
    Explanation
    To obtain a specimen for a throat culture, the nasopharynx and tonsillar area must be swabbed. This is because these areas are commonly colonized by bacteria and viruses that can cause throat infections. Swabbing these areas allows for the collection of a sample that can be used to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection and determine appropriate treatment.

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  • 47. 

    Blood from all individuals should be considered _____________?

    • Decontaminated

    • Infective or Infectious

    • Chemically Hazardous

    Correct Answer
    A. Infective or Infectious
    Explanation
    Blood from all individuals should be considered infective or infectious because it can potentially contain pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, or other microorganisms that can cause infections or diseases. Therefore, proper precautions should be taken when handling or coming into contact with blood to prevent the spread of infections.

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  • 48. 

    The medical term for paralysis from the waist down is?

    • Quadriplegia

    • Paraplegia

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Paraplegia
    Explanation
    Paraplegia refers to the medical condition in which there is paralysis from the waist down. This means that the individual is unable to move or feel their legs and lower body due to damage or injury to the spinal cord. Quadriplegia, on the other hand, refers to paralysis of both the arms and legs. Therefore, the correct answer for paralysis from the waist down is paraplegia.

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  • 49. 

    The medical term for paralysis from the neck down is?

    • Quadriplegia

    • Paraplegia

    • Hemiplegia

    Correct Answer
    A. Quadriplegia
    Explanation
    Quadriplegia refers to the paralysis of all four limbs and the torso, typically resulting from an injury or illness affecting the spinal cord in the neck region. This condition causes a loss of sensation and motor function below the neck, leading to complete paralysis from the neck down. Paraplegia, on the other hand, refers to the paralysis of the lower half of the body, including both legs. Hemiplegia refers to paralysis on one side of the body. Therefore, quadriplegia is the correct term for paralysis from the neck down.

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  • Current Version
  • May 25, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Gladys102103

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