NCCT Practice Trivia Quiz
The NCCT Practice quiz below comprises of different general knowledge questions, which are meant to help medical officers become better and help them prepare for the actual exams. All the best as you attempt the quiz.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as?
- A.
Breach of Duty
- B.
Competence
- C.
Incompetence
Correct Answer
C. IncompetenceExplanation
Incompetence refers to the lack of physical or mental fitness. It implies a person's inability to perform a task or fulfill a responsibility due to a lack of necessary skills, knowledge, or abilities. It suggests a lack of competence or proficiency in a particular area, indicating that the individual is not capable of meeting the required standards or expectations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called?
- A.
Negligence
- B.
Breach of Duty
- C.
Defamation
Correct Answer
B. Breach of DutyExplanation
Breach of Duty refers to the violation or omission of a legal or moral duty. It occurs when someone fails to fulfill their obligations, whether they are legally bound or morally expected to do so. This can include actions or inactions that result in harm, damage, or injury to others. Negligence, on the other hand, specifically refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care, which can be a form of breach of duty. Defamation, on the other hand, involves making false statements about someone that harm their reputation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Latin for "he who acts through another acts for himself" is called?
- A.
Res gestae
- B.
Qui facit per alium facit per se
- C.
Locum tenems
Correct Answer
B. Qui facit per alium facit per seExplanation
The Latin phrase "qui facit per alium facit per se" translates to "he who acts through another acts for himself." This phrase emphasizes the principle that when someone delegates or acts through another person, they are ultimately responsible for the actions and consequences. It implies that the person who delegates the task cannot escape accountability by simply assigning it to someone else.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Benefits that are made in the form of cash payments are known as?
- A.
Indemnities
- B.
Deductibles
- C.
Medical co-pays
Correct Answer
A. IndemnitiesExplanation
Indemnities are benefits that are provided in the form of cash payments. They are typically given as compensation for a loss or damage incurred by an individual or organization. Indemnities are different from deductibles and medical co-pays, which are terms commonly associated with insurance policies and healthcare expenses. Deductibles refer to the amount of money that an individual must pay out of pocket before their insurance coverage kicks in, while medical co-pays are fixed amounts that individuals are required to pay for certain medical services.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Insurance that is meant to offset medical expenses resulting from a catastrophic illness is called?
- A.
Whole life policy
- B.
Comprehensive
- C.
Major medical
Correct Answer
C. Major medicalExplanation
Major medical insurance is designed to provide coverage for significant and costly medical expenses, particularly those resulting from catastrophic illnesses or injuries. This type of insurance typically covers a wide range of medical services, including hospital stays, surgeries, and specialized treatments. It aims to protect individuals from the financial burden of high medical costs that could potentially deplete their savings or lead to significant debt. Therefore, major medical is the correct answer for insurance that offsets medical expenses resulting from catastrophic illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 6.
FICA provides benefits for?
- A.
Medicare
- B.
Social Security
- C.
Aid to dependent children
Correct Answer
B. Social SecurityExplanation
FICA provides benefits for Social Security. FICA stands for Federal Insurance Contributions Act, which is a payroll tax that funds both Social Security and Medicare. Social Security provides retirement, disability, and survivor benefits to eligible individuals and their families. Therefore, FICA contributions help fund these Social Security benefits.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In insurance coding using an "E" code designates?
- A.
A factor that contributes to a condition or disease
- B.
Classification of environmental events, such as poisoning
- C.
The primary diagnosis
Correct Answer
B. Classification of environmental events, such as poisoningExplanation
Using an "E" code in insurance coding designates the classification of environmental events, such as poisoning. This means that when coding for insurance purposes, an "E" code is used to identify and classify events related to the environment that may have caused a condition or disease, such as poisoning. It helps in accurately documenting and categorizing the cause of the health issue for insurance claims and statistical purposes.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The abbreviation for dressing is?
- A.
Ds
- B.
DSS
- C.
Dsg
Correct Answer
C. Dsg -
- 9.
The medical term for straightening of a body part is?
- A.
Flexion
- B.
Dorsiflexion
- C.
Extension
Correct Answer
C. ExtensionExplanation
Extension is the correct answer because it refers to the straightening of a body part. Flexion is the opposite movement, where the body part is bent or flexed. Dorsiflexion specifically refers to the extension of the foot at the ankle joint, so it is not a general term for straightening any body part.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The medical term for a decrease in size or a wasting is?
- A.
Atrophy
- B.
Pronation
- C.
Abduction
Correct Answer
A. AtrophyExplanation
Atrophy is the correct answer because it refers to the decrease in size or wasting of a body part or tissue. It is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the shrinking or weakening of muscles due to disuse, injury, or disease. Pronation refers to the inward rotation of the forearm or foot, while abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline. Therefore, neither of these terms is related to a decrease in size or wasting.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The abbreviation for electroencephalogram is?
- A.
EKG
- B.
ECG
- C.
EEG
Correct Answer
C. EEGExplanation
The correct answer is EEG. Electroencephalogram is a medical test that measures and records the electrical activity of the brain. EKG and ECG are abbreviations for electrocardiogram, which is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. Therefore, EEG is the correct abbreviation for electroencephalogram.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The opposite of deep is?
- A.
Low
- B.
Proximal
- C.
Superficial
Correct Answer
C. SuperficialExplanation
The opposite of deep is superficial. Deep refers to something being far below the surface or extending far inward, while superficial refers to something being near the surface or lacking depth. Therefore, superficial is the opposite of deep in terms of depth or distance from the surface.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a?
- A.
Vasoconstrictor
- B.
Vasodilator
- C.
Sedative
Correct Answer
B. VasodilatorExplanation
A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a vasodilator. Vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, allowing them to widen and increase blood flow. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension or angina, where increased blood flow is needed. Vasoconstrictors, on the other hand, cause constriction or narrowing of blood vessels, reducing blood flow. Sedatives have a calming or sleep-inducing effect and are unrelated to the dilation or constriction of blood vessels.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Schedule I drugs include?
- A.
Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs
- B.
Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
- C.
Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
Correct Answer
C. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuseExplanation
Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. These drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk of addiction and dependence. They are strictly controlled and illegal to possess or distribute. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, ecstasy, and marijuana (in certain jurisdictions). These substances are classified as Schedule I because they are believed to have no legitimate medical purpose and pose a significant risk to public health and safety.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Schedule IV drugs include?
- A.
Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
- B.
Includes various narcotics such as Opium
- C.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
A. Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuseExplanation
Schedule IV drugs include minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse. This means that these drugs have a lower risk of dependency or addiction compared to drugs in higher schedules. Schedule IV drugs are commonly used for medical purposes, such as treating anxiety or insomnia, but still require a prescription from a healthcare professional. Examples of Schedule IV drugs include Xanax, Valium, and Ambien.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The Sebaceous Glands, Skin, Hair, and Nails make up the _________ system?
- A.
Sensory
- B.
Integumentary
- C.
Nervous
Correct Answer
B. IntegumentaryExplanation
The correct answer is Integumentary. The integumentary system consists of the sebaceous glands, skin, hair, and nails. This system is responsible for protecting the body from external threats, regulating body temperature, and providing sensory information to the brain. It plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and overall body health.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The Brain, Nerves, and Spinal Cord are in the ___________ system?
- A.
Skeletal
- B.
Nervous
- C.
Sensory
Correct Answer
B. NervousExplanation
The correct answer is "Nervous." The brain, nerves, and spinal cord are all part of the nervous system. This system is responsible for transmitting signals and coordinating the body's response to stimuli. It controls various functions such as movement, sensation, and cognition. The skeletal system, on the other hand, is responsible for providing support, protection, and movement to the body. The sensory system is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information from the environment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The Humerus is located in the?
- A.
Leg
- B.
Back
- C.
Arm
Correct Answer
C. ArmExplanation
The humerus is a long bone located in the arm. It is the bone that extends from the shoulder to the elbow and is responsible for connecting the shoulder girdle to the forearm. The humerus is the largest bone in the arm and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the upper limb.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The Ulna is located in the?
- A.
Arm
- B.
Leg
- C.
Foot
Correct Answer
A. ArmExplanation
The ulna is a long bone located in the arm. It runs parallel to the radius bone and together they form the forearm. The ulna is on the inner side of the forearm, while the radius is on the outer side. It plays a crucial role in forearm rotation and provides stability to the arm.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The Radius is located in the?
- A.
Leg
- B.
Foot
- C.
Arm
Correct Answer
C. ArmExplanation
The radius is one of the two bones in the forearm, along with the ulna. It is located on the same side as the thumb and runs parallel to the ulna. The arm is the correct answer because the radius is part of the skeletal structure of the arm.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The Sphenoid bone is located in the?
- A.
Foot
- B.
Chest
- C.
Head
Correct Answer
C. HeadExplanation
The Sphenoid bone is located in the head. It is a complex bone that is situated at the base of the skull, towards the middle. It is shaped like a butterfly and forms part of the cranial floor. The Sphenoid bone is important as it helps to support the structures of the face and skull, and also provides attachment sites for various muscles and ligaments.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Bones are?
- A.
Meant to be pliable and bend easily
- B.
Built to provide support & structure
- C.
Solid, sturdy calcium structures
Correct Answer
B. Built to provide support & structureExplanation
Bones are built to provide support and structure to the body. They are solid and sturdy calcium structures that give our bodies shape and protect our internal organs. Without bones, our bodies would not be able to stand upright or move properly. They also serve as attachment points for muscles, allowing us to perform various movements. Overall, bones play a crucial role in maintaining the body's form and function.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The major artery that supplies the abdomen is called the ________ artery?
- A.
Iliac
- B.
Celiac
- C.
Carotid
Correct Answer
B. CeliacExplanation
The correct answer is celiac. The celiac artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the organs in the abdomen, including the stomach, liver, spleen, and pancreas. It branches off from the abdominal aorta and plays a crucial role in delivering oxygenated blood to these organs for their proper functioning. The iliac artery supplies blood to the lower limbs, while the carotid artery supplies blood to the head and neck.Rate this question:
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- 24.
One of the vital functions of long bones is the formation of?
- A.
White Blood Cells
- B.
Red Blood Cells
- C.
Calcium
Correct Answer
B. Red Blood CellsExplanation
Long bones are responsible for the production of red blood cells. This process occurs in the bone marrow, which is found in the center of long bones. Red blood cells are crucial for transporting oxygen throughout the body and removing carbon dioxide. They play a vital role in maintaining overall health and proper functioning of various organs and tissues. Therefore, the formation of red blood cells is an essential function of long bones.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The right ventricle pumps the used blood to the lungs by of the ________ artery?
- A.
Atria
- B.
Pulmonary
- C.
Vena Cava
Correct Answer
B. PulmonaryExplanation
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. This artery carries blood from the heart to the lungs, where it picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide. The pulmonary artery is responsible for taking the used blood away from the heart and delivering it to the lungs for oxygenation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel?
- A.
At all times in the laboratory
- B.
When cleaning up blood or body fluids
- C.
When routinely cleaning equipment
Correct Answer
B. When cleaning up blood or body fluidsExplanation
When cleaning up blood or body fluids, it is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians or housekeeping personnel. This is because blood and body fluids can contain pathogens or infectious agents that can be transmitted through respiratory droplets or contact with the eyes. Wearing protective masks and eye wear helps to prevent the inhalation or splashing of these fluids, reducing the risk of infection. However, it is not necessary to wear them at all times in the laboratory or when routinely cleaning equipment, as the risk of exposure to blood or body fluids is lower in these situations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The first line of defense in preventing disease is?
- A.
Wearing gloves
- B.
The medical hand wash
- C.
Wearing a mask
Correct Answer
B. The medical hand washExplanation
The first line of defense in preventing disease is the medical hand wash. Washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer is a simple yet effective way to remove germs and prevent the spread of diseases. It helps to eliminate bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that may be present on the hands, reducing the risk of infection. Regular hand hygiene is particularly important in healthcare settings, where healthcare professionals come into contact with patients and potentially harmful microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called?
- A.
Disinfection
- B.
Washing
- C.
Sterilization
Correct Answer
C. SterilizationExplanation
Sterilization is the correct answer because it refers to the process of killing all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, in a certain area. This process ensures the complete elimination of all forms of life and is commonly used in medical settings, laboratories, and food preparation to prevent the spread of infections and diseases. Disinfection, on the other hand, refers to the process of reducing the number of microorganisms to a level that is considered safe, while washing simply refers to the act of cleaning with water or a liquid detergent.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse?
- A.
Apical Pulse
- B.
Brachial Pulse
- C.
Apical-Radial Pulse
Correct Answer
C. Apical-Radial PulseExplanation
The Apical-Radial Pulse is usually used for taking a pulse. This method involves simultaneously measuring the pulse at the apex of the heart (apical pulse) and at the radial artery (radial pulse). By comparing the two pulses, healthcare professionals can assess the heart's efficiency and detect any irregularities. This technique is commonly used in situations where the patient's condition requires a more comprehensive evaluation of their cardiovascular status.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The raidal pulse is located in the?
- A.
Chest
- B.
Neck
- C.
Wrist
Correct Answer
C. WristExplanation
The radial pulse is located in the wrist. This is because the radial artery, which carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the hand and fingers, can be easily felt and measured at the wrist.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which degree of burn is the most serious?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
Correct Answer
C. ThirdExplanation
Third-degree burns are the most serious because they involve damage to all layers of the skin, including the underlying tissues. These burns are characterized by a white or charred appearance and can be painless due to nerve damage. Third-degree burns often require immediate medical attention and may require surgical intervention, such as skin grafting, for proper healing.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side is the __________ position?
- A.
Prone
- B.
Dorsal
- C.
Supine
Correct Answer
C. SupineExplanation
The correct answer is "Supine." The supine position refers to lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side. This position is commonly used in medical settings for procedures or examinations. It allows for easy access to the front of the body and is often the preferred position for surgeries or interventions involving the abdomen or chest.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:
- A.
Wipe the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep
- B.
Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
- C.
Blow on the alcohol to dry it so it doesn't burn
Correct Answer
B. Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dryExplanation
When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry. This is because cleansing the site from the inside out helps to remove any potential contaminants away from the puncture site. Allowing the site to air dry helps to ensure that any remaining alcohol or cleansing solution evaporates, reducing the risk of irritation or burning when the needle is inserted. Wiping the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep or blowing on the alcohol to dry it is not recommended as it may not effectively remove contaminants and can introduce additional risks.Rate this question:
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- 34.
To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the ___________ needle.
- A.
Longer
- B.
Shorter
- C.
Smaller
Correct Answer
C. SmallerExplanation
The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle. This is because the gauge number refers to the thickness or diameter of the needle. So, a higher gauge number indicates a smaller needle size, while a lower gauge number indicates a larger needle size. Therefore, the correct answer is "Smaller".Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?
- A.
24-25
- B.
19-20
- C.
21-22
Correct Answer
C. 21-22Explanation
The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-22. These gauges are preferred because they are large enough to allow for a smooth flow of blood during the procedure, but not so large that they cause excessive discomfort or damage to the veins. Using a smaller gauge needle can make it more difficult to draw blood, while using a larger gauge needle can increase the risk of bruising or hematoma formation. Therefore, the 21-22 gauge needles strike a balance between these factors and are widely used in venipuncture.Rate this question:
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- 36.
To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and ____________?
- A.
Wipe carefully back and forth
- B.
Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds
- C.
Work in a circle to the periphery
Correct Answer
C. Work in a circle to the peripheryExplanation
To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, it is recommended to work in a circle to the periphery. This means starting at the intended site of the draw and moving outward in a circular motion. This method ensures that the entire area is properly cleansed and reduces the risk of contamination.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a ___________?
- A.
Blue-Top Tube
- B.
Lavender-Top Tube
- C.
Red-Top Tube
Correct Answer
C. Red-Top TubeExplanation
The correct answer is the Red-Top Tube. When collecting electrolytes, a Red-Top Tube is used because it contains no additives or anticoagulants. This allows for the accurate measurement of electrolyte levels in the blood, without any interference from additives that could affect the results.Rate this question:
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- 38.
When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a __________?
- A.
Lavender-Top Evacuated Tube
- B.
Red-Top Evacuated Tube
- C.
Yellow-Top Evacuated Tube
Correct Answer
A. Lavender-Top Evacuated TubeExplanation
The correct answer is Lavender-Top Evacuated Tube. A hematocrit test measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total volume of blood. Lavender-Top Evacuated Tubes are specifically designed for collecting blood samples for hematology tests, including hematocrit tests. These tubes contain an anticoagulant called EDTA, which prevents blood from clotting and preserves the integrity of the blood sample. The lavender color of the tube indicates that it is suitable for hematology testing. Red-Top and Yellow-Top Evacuated Tubes are used for other types of blood tests and do not contain the necessary anticoagulant for hematocrit testing.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?
- A.
Serum Only
- B.
White Blood Cells
- C.
EDTA added
Correct Answer
C. EDTA addedExplanation
To perform a hemoglobin test, EDTA added blood sample will be needed. EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting, allowing accurate measurement of hemoglobin levels. Serum only or white blood cells would not be suitable for this test as they do not contain the necessary components for hemoglobin measurement.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to________?
- A.
0.10 Seconds
- B.
0.04 Seconds
- C.
0.20 Seconds
Correct Answer
C. 0.20 SecondsExplanation
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to 0.20 seconds. This is because ECG paper is typically divided into small squares and large squares. Each large square is made up of 5 small squares, and the small squares are usually equal to 0.04 seconds. Therefore, since each large square consists of 5 small squares, the duration of each large square is 5 times the duration of a small square, which is 0.04 seconds. Hence, the correct answer is 0.20 seconds.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _________?
- A.
R Wave
- B.
Q Wave
- C.
S Wave
Correct Answer
B. Q WaveExplanation
The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence can provide important diagnostic information about certain cardiac conditions.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The ________ wave represents atrial depolarization.
- A.
P
- B.
S
- C.
R
Correct Answer
A. PExplanation
The P wave represents atrial depolarization. During atrial depolarization, the electrical activity spreads through the atria, causing them to contract and pump blood into the ventricles. This electrical activity is represented by the P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG). The P wave is the first positive deflection seen on the ECG and indicates the initiation of the cardiac cycle.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A QRS measurement of less than ______ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.
- A.
0.16
- B.
0.14
- C.
0.12
Correct Answer
C. 0.12Explanation
A QRS measurement of less than 0.12 seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker. This measurement refers to the duration of the QRS complex on an electrocardiogram (ECG), which represents the electrical activation of the ventricles. A shorter QRS duration suggests that the electrical impulse is originating from above the ventricles, indicating a supraventricular pacemaker.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as _______?
- A.
Sinus Arrest
- B.
Atrial Flutter
- C.
Ventricular Arrhythmia
Correct Answer
A. Sinus ArrestExplanation
Sinus arrest refers to the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted. In this condition, the sinus node, which is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses in the heart, fails to generate a normal heartbeat. This results in a pause in the cardiac rhythm, causing a temporary interruption in the normal flow of blood. Sinus arrest can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath, and may require medical intervention to restore the normal heart rhythm.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A 24-hour urine specimen should be?
- A.
Kept at room temperature
- B.
Kept at body temperature
- C.
Chilled/Refrigerated
Correct Answer
C. Chilled/RefrigeratedExplanation
A 24-hour urine specimen should be chilled/refrigerated because this helps to preserve the integrity of the sample and prevent the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms. Keeping the urine specimen at a low temperature slows down the breakdown of certain compounds and reduces the risk of degradation. This is important for accurate laboratory analysis and interpretation of the results. Room temperature or body temperature may promote bacterial growth and could lead to inaccurate test results.Rate this question:
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- 46.
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the ___________ must be swabbed.
- A.
Nasopharynx and Tonsillar Area
- B.
Back of the tongue and epiglottis
- C.
Under the tongue and along the gum line
Correct Answer
A. Nasopharynx and Tonsillar AreaExplanation
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture, the nasopharynx and tonsillar area must be swabbed. This is because these areas are commonly colonized by bacteria and viruses that can cause throat infections. Swabbing these areas allows for the collection of a sample that can be used to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection and determine appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Blood from all individuals should be considered _____________?
- A.
Decontaminated
- B.
Infective or Infectious
- C.
Chemically Hazardous
Correct Answer
B. Infective or InfectiousExplanation
Blood from all individuals should be considered infective or infectious because it can potentially contain pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, or other microorganisms that can cause infections or diseases. Therefore, proper precautions should be taken when handling or coming into contact with blood to prevent the spread of infections.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The medical term for paralysis from the waist down is?
- A.
Quadriplegia
- B.
Paraplegia
- C.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. ParaplegiaExplanation
Paraplegia refers to the medical condition in which there is paralysis from the waist down. This means that the individual is unable to move or feel their legs and lower body due to damage or injury to the spinal cord. Quadriplegia, on the other hand, refers to paralysis of both the arms and legs. Therefore, the correct answer for paralysis from the waist down is paraplegia.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The medical term for paralysis from the neck down is?
- A.
Quadriplegia
- B.
Paraplegia
- C.
Hemiplegia
Correct Answer
A. QuadriplegiaExplanation
Quadriplegia refers to the paralysis of all four limbs and the torso, typically resulting from an injury or illness affecting the spinal cord in the neck region. This condition causes a loss of sensation and motor function below the neck, leading to complete paralysis from the neck down. Paraplegia, on the other hand, refers to the paralysis of the lower half of the body, including both legs. Hemiplegia refers to paralysis on one side of the body. Therefore, quadriplegia is the correct term for paralysis from the neck down.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The term "Universal Precautions" is an __________?
- A.
Organization to promote infection control
- B.
Overall approach to infection control
- C.
Organizational approach to following EPA guidelines
Correct Answer
B. Overall approach to infection controlExplanation
The term "Universal Precautions" refers to a set of guidelines and practices that are used to prevent the transmission of infections in healthcare settings. It involves treating all patients as if they may be infectious and taking necessary precautions to protect both healthcare workers and patients from potential harm. This approach includes practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe handling and disposal of sharps, and proper cleaning and disinfection of equipment and surfaces. By implementing universal precautions, healthcare facilities can minimize the risk of spreading infections and ensure a safe environment for everyone involved.Rate this question:
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