NCCT Official Practice Test

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NCCT Quizzes & Trivia

This test comes from the NCCT Offical Practice Test, for National Certified Medical Assistants. This will help you practice and study for your upcoming big NCCT test! Good Luck.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) _________.

    • A.

      Reorder point

    • B.

      Inventory control log

    • C.

      Order quanity

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All answers are correct" because to ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a reorder point to know when to order more supplies, maintain an inventory control log to track the current stock levels, and determine the order quantity to ensure an adequate supply is maintained. All of these actions are necessary for effective supply management in a medical office.

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  • 2. 

    A(n)_________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also  have a pre- assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.

    • A.

      Inventory Control Log

    • B.

      Packing slip

    • C.

      Purchase order

    • D.

      Invoice

    Correct Answer
    C. Purchase order
    Explanation
    A purchase order is created to contain the necessary information such as the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It also includes a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date of purchase. This document serves as a formal request to the vendor for the purchase of specific items and acts as a record of the transaction.

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  • 3. 

    Periodically the medical assistant should check all equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) _________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • A.

      Inventory control log

    • B.

      Maintenance log

    • C.

      Quality control log

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record that helps track routine inspections of equipment in an office. By using a maintenance log, the medical assistant can ensure that all equipment is regularly checked for frayed cords, hazards, and overall working condition. This log allows for easy documentation and tracking of any maintenance or repairs needed, ensuring the safety and proper functioning of the equipment in the office.

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  • 4. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a ________.

    • A.

      Transcriptionist

    • B.

      Stenographer

    • C.

      Decoder

    • D.

      Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for transcribing spoken or recorded information into written form. In this scenario, the medical assistant is tasked with listening to the physician's dictation and accurately typing it up to create a written operative report.

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  • 5. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______ review.

    • A.

      Procedure

    • B.

      Admissions

    • C.

      Cost

    • D.

      Transfer

    Correct Answer
    B. Admissions
    Explanation
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as admissions review. This process involves evaluating the patient's condition and determining if hospitalization is necessary and appropriate. Admissions review helps ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of care and that hospital resources are used effectively.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • A.

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B.

      Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C.

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D.

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves ethical considerations regarding the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. Bioethics involves the ethical implications of biomedical research and healthcare practices, and the use of fetal tissue raises questions about the rights and dignity of the unborn fetus, as well as the potential benefits and risks of using such tissue for research purposes.

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  • 7. 

    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?

    • A.

      Gunshot wound

    • B.

      Anorexia

    • C.

      Drug addiction

    • D.

      Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot wound
    Explanation
    A physician does not need the patient's permission in writing to reveal information about a gunshot wound. This is because gunshot wounds are considered to be a public health concern and reporting them is mandatory in order to ensure public safety. However, the physician still needs to obtain permission for revealing confidential information about anorexia, drug addiction, and pregnancy, as these are personal and sensitive matters.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information?

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      CLIA

    • C.

      CMS

    • D.

      HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    D. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA, or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the security and privacy of health information and establishes penalties for violations. HIPAA ensures that patients have control over their health information and that it is only accessed by authorized individuals for legitimate purposes. OSHA, CLIA, and CMS are not directly related to patient privacy and confidentiality.

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  • 9. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines _______.

    • A.

      Right justified

    • B.

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C.

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D.

      At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    D. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines aligned at the left-hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter, including the sender's address, date, recipient's address, salutation, body paragraphs, closing, and signature, is aligned to the left. This creates a clean and professional look, with all lines starting from the same point on the left side of the page. This format is commonly used in business correspondence as it provides a neat and organized appearance to the letter.

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  • 10. 

    When writing a buisness letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?

    • A.

      Comma

    • B.

      Semicolon

    • C.

      Asterisk

    • D.

      Colon

    Correct Answer
    D. Colon
    Explanation
    When writing a business letter, the salutation is followed by a colon. This is the standard punctuation mark used to indicate that the salutation is finished and the body of the letter will begin. A colon is commonly used in formal writing to introduce a list, explanation, or further information, so it is appropriate to use it after the salutation in a business letter.

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  • 11. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • A.

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down

    • B.

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes

    • C.

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This approach shows empathy and respect towards the patient, acknowledging their concerns and ensuring that their complaint is properly documented. By actively listening and taking detailed notes, healthcare professionals can address the issue effectively, provide appropriate solutions, and prevent similar complaints in the future. Refusing to talk to complaining patients or matching their anger levels would only escalate the situation and hinder the resolution process.

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  • 12. 

    Body language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of _______.

    • A.

      Non-Verbal communication

    • B.

      Verbal communication

    • C.

      Written communcation

    • D.

      All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-Verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve the use of words or verbal language. Instead, they rely on non-verbal cues to convey messages and meaning. Non-verbal communication plays a crucial role in human interaction and can often convey emotions, attitudes, and intentions more effectively than verbal communication alone. Therefore, the correct answer is Non-Verbal communication.

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  • 13. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • A.

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment

    • B.

      Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top

    • C.

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initals

    • D.

      Mark through the entry with a single red line

    Correct Answer
    D. Mark through the entry with a single red line
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This method is commonly used to indicate that the appointment has been canceled or is no longer valid. It is a clear and visible way to signify the cancellation without completely erasing or covering up the original entry.

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  • 14. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the _________.

    • A.

      Covered amount

    • B.

      Deductible

    • C.

      Explanation of benefits

    • D.

      Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    B. Deductible
    Explanation
    The correct answer is deductible. A deductible is the amount that an insured patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the cost of medical treatment. It is a predetermined amount set by the insurance policy, and once the deductible is met, the insurance company will begin to pay for a portion or all of the medical expenses.

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  • 15. 

    Instructions to an insurance company about where and to whom to make payment are called _________.

    • A.

      Payment agreements

    • B.

      Assignment of benefits

    • C.

      Benefit accommodations

    • D.

      Assignment of payments

    Correct Answer
    B. Assignment of benefits
    Explanation
    Assignment of benefits refers to the instructions given by an insurance company regarding the recipient and location of payment. This term is commonly used in the insurance industry to specify who should receive the benefits and where the payment should be made. It is a legal and contractual arrangement that allows the insured individual or healthcare provider to assign their rights to receive the insurance benefits to a third party, such as a medical provider or hospital. This ensures that the payment is made to the correct party and at the designated location as per the insurance company's instructions.

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  • 16. 

    The Internal Revenure Service issues a(n) ____________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • A.

      Social Security number

    • B.

      Federal tax identification number

    • C.

      State tax number

    • D.

      Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a federal tax identification number to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. This number is used to identify the business entity for tax reporting and filing purposes with the IRS. It is different from a Social Security number, which is used to identify individuals, and other numbers such as a state tax number or insurance ID number, which serve different purposes and are not specifically related to income tax.

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  • 17. 

    An office appointment calender or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but also indicate the __________.

    • A.

      Duration of the appointment

    • B.

      Relationship to the patient

    • C.

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D.

      Insurance provider's contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    An office appointment calendar or book must record the duration of the appointment as it is important for scheduling and managing appointments efficiently. Knowing the duration helps in allocating appropriate time slots and avoiding overlapping appointments. It enables the office staff to plan the day effectively and ensure that each patient gets the necessary amount of time with the healthcare provider. Additionally, recording the duration allows for accurate tracking of time spent with each patient, which is crucial for billing and documentation purposes.

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  • 18. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) ______ year.

    • A.

      Fiscal

    • B.

      Financial

    • C.

      Fiduciary

    • D.

      Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a "fiscal" year. This term is commonly used in the context of government and business accounting to refer to the annual period used for budgeting, financial reporting, and tax calculations. The fiscal year does not necessarily align with the calendar year and can start at any point during the year.

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  • 19. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a(n) ________ registration number.

    • A.

      DEA

    • B.

      EPA

    • C.

      FDA

    • D.

      CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations in the United States. The registration number ensures that the physician is authorized to prescribe controlled substances and helps track the distribution of these substances to prevent misuse or illegal activities.

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  • 20. 

    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as ________.

    • A.

      Pre-certification

    • B.

      Pre-authorization

    • C.

      Pre-determination

    • D.

      Pre-existing

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-certification
    Explanation
    Pre-certification is the process of obtaining approval from an insurance company before a medical treatment or procedure is performed. It involves verifying whether the treatment is medically necessary and covered under the patient's insurance policy contract. This process helps ensure that the patient's insurance will cover the costs of the treatment and prevents any unexpected financial burden on the patient.

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  • 21. 

    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never be ___________.

    • A.

      Facing the filing cabinets

    • B.

      Able to be viewed by patients

    • C.

      Turned on

    • D.

      Viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Able to be viewed by patients
    Explanation
    The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice must never be able to be viewed by patients. This is because the information displayed on the screen may contain sensitive and confidential patient data, which should only be accessed by authorized medical personnel. Allowing patients to view the screen could compromise patient privacy and confidentiality.

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  • 22. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the ___________.

    • A.

      Lymphatic

    • B.

      Axillary

    • C.

      Deltoid

    • D.

      Delta

    Correct Answer
    B. Axillary
    Explanation
    The temperature taken at the armpit is called axillary. The axillary temperature is measured by placing a thermometer in the armpit, which is a common and convenient method for obtaining a quick and non-invasive measurement of body temperature. This method is often used for infants, young children, and individuals who are unable to have their temperature taken orally.

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  • 23. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • A.

      Open

    • B.

      Spiral

    • C.

      Greenstick

    • D.

      Closed

    Correct Answer
    D. Closed
    Explanation
    A break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site is called a closed fracture. In this type of fracture, the bone is broken but the skin remains intact. This means that the broken bone does not protrude through the skin. Closed fractures are typically less severe than open fractures, where the bone breaks through the skin.

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  • 24. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is _________.

    • A.

      Prn

    • B.

      Ppn

    • C.

      An

    • D.

      Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a medication should be administered as necessary or when required by the patient's condition.

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  • 25. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is ________.

    • A.

      NPO

    • B.

      NBM

    • C.

      NM

    • D.

      Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NPO, which stands for "nothing by mouth." This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not be given any food or drink orally, typically before a medical procedure or surgery. It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with this abbreviation in order to ensure patient safety and follow proper medical protocols.

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  • 26. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • A.

      Insulin syringe

    • B.

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C.

      Hypodermic syringe

    • D.

      A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    B. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection because it is specifically designed for this purpose. It has a small, fine needle and a low capacity, allowing for precise and accurate administration of medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Insulin syringes are used for subcutaneous injections, hypodermic syringes are used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, and a closed injection system is not typically used for intradermal injections.

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  • 27. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should ________.

    • A.

      Refrigerate it for furture use

    • B.

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C.

      Discard it

    • D.

      Incubte it

    Correct Answer
    C. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, it is important to discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, some reagents may have specific disposal requirements due to their hazardous nature. Therefore, it is best practice to properly dispose of used reagents to ensure the integrity of future experiments and to comply with safety regulations.

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  • 28. 

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and _________.

    • A.

      Date it

    • B.

      Store it

    • C.

      Freeze it

    • D.

      Color it

    Correct Answer
    A. Date it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Date it". When making a solution, it is important to label it with the date so that it can be easily identified and tracked. This helps in ensuring that the solution is used in a timely manner and prevents any confusion or misuse.

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  • 29. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration on hand is 100mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected?

    • A.

      0.5 cc

    • B.

      1.0 cc

    • C.

      1.5 cc

    • D.

      0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to the patient. The concentration of Demerol on hand is 100mg/ml. To determine the volume to be injected, we can use the formula: Volume (cc) = Amount (mg) / Concentration (mg/ml). Plugging in the values, we get Volume (cc) = 50 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.5 cc. Therefore, 0.5 cc of Demerol will be injected.

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  • 30. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a _______.

    • A.

      Diuretic

    • B.

      Hypertensive

    • C.

      Gestational Drug

    • D.

      Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics work by increasing the production of urine, which helps to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and kidney disorders. By promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, diuretics can help to reduce fluid buildup and lower blood pressure.

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  • 31. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an _______.

    • A.

      Antipyretic

    • B.

      Antidote

    • C.

      Antiemetic

    • D.

      Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antipyretic
    Explanation
    An antipyretic is a drug that is used to control or reduce fever. It works by lowering the body's temperature and providing relief from fever-related symptoms. This type of medication is commonly used to treat conditions such as the flu, common cold, and other infections that cause fever. Antipyretics are often available over-the-counter and can be taken orally or administered through other routes such as rectal suppositories. They are an important tool in managing fevers and promoting comfort and well-being in patients.

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  • 32. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • A.

      Suppressant

    • B.

      Decongestant

    • C.

      Antihistamine

    • D.

      Bronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    B. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by narrowing the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve symptoms such as a stuffy or runny nose. Unlike antihistamines, which primarily target allergic reactions, decongestants directly target nasal congestion. Suppressants, on the other hand, are drugs that suppress or inhibit certain bodily functions, but they are not specifically designed to reduce mucus in the nasal passages. Bronchodilators are medications that relax and widen the airways in the lungs, primarily used to treat conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 33. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)__________.

    • A.

      Miotic

    • B.

      Diuretic

    • C.

      Cytotoxin

    • D.

      Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    D. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to thin and loosen mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and clear the lungs. This can be helpful in relieving congestion and promoting the removal of phlegm or mucus from the respiratory tract.

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  • 34. 

    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)________.

    • A.

      Solution

    • B.

      Emulsion

    • C.

      Elixir

    • D.

      Tincture

    Correct Answer
    B. Emulsion
    Explanation
    An emulsion is a liquid preparation that contains fine droplets of one immiscible liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (in this case, water). This allows the oil and water to mix together and form a stable solution. Therefore, an emulsion is the correct term to describe a liquid preparation that mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil.

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  • 35. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • A.

      Narcotic overdose

    • B.

      Inflammation

    • C.

      Angina Pectoris

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    C. Angina Pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of Angina Pectoris. Angina Pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerine works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood to flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.

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  • 36. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress_________.

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Appetite

    • C.

      Swelling

    • D.

      Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the immune system's response to inflammation, thereby reducing redness, swelling, and pain associated with inflammatory conditions. By inhibiting the production of certain chemicals that cause inflammation, hydrocortisone helps to alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Therefore, it is commonly used to treat various inflammatory conditions such as arthritis, allergies, asthma, and skin disorders.

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  • 37. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • A.

      Micellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B.

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C.

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    The correct answer is substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Schedule I drugs are considered to be the most dangerous drugs with a high potential for abuse and dependence. They are classified as such because they have no accepted medical use and are not safe to use even under medical supervision. These substances are highly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute.

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  • 38. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called _________.

    • A.

      Cystitis

    • B.

      Urethral Stricture

    • C.

      Chronic Renal Failure

    • D.

      Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    B. Urethral Stricture
    Explanation
    Urethral stricture is the narrowing of the urethra due to the formation of scar tissue. This condition can occur as a result of various factors such as urinary tract infections, trauma, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulties in urination, including a weak urine stream, frequent urination, or urinary retention. Treatment options for urethral stricture include medication, dilation, or surgery, depending on the severity of the condition. Cystitis is inflammation of the bladder, chronic renal failure is the progressive loss of kidney function, and pyelonephritis is a kidney infection.

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  • 39. 

    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called ________.

    • A.

      High Blood Pressure

    • B.

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C.

      Pancreatitis

    • D.

      Type 2 diabetes

    Correct Answer
    B. Type 1 diabetes
    Explanation
    Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. In type 1 diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. This results in a lack of insulin production, causing high blood sugar levels. Type 1 diabetes typically develops in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy for proper management.

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  • 40. 

    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called _________.

    • A.

      Enema

    • B.

      Colostomy

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the intestines that helps to propel food and waste materials through the digestive system. This coordinated movement ensures that the contents of the intestines are pushed forward in a wave-like motion, allowing for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients. Enema, colostomy, and constipation are not accurate terms to describe this process.

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  • 41. 

    Where is the Temporal part of the body?

    • A.

      Hips

    • B.

      Head

    • C.

      Arm

    • D.

      Back

    Correct Answer
    B. Head
    Explanation
    The temporal part of the body refers to the region of the head where the temples are located. The temples are the flat, tender areas on the sides of the forehead, just above the ears. They are located in the temporal bone, which is one of the skull bones. The temporal part of the body is important as it houses various structures such as the temporal muscle, blood vessels, and nerves.

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  • 42. 

    Where is the Scapula part of the body?

    • A.

      Wrist

    • B.

      Shoulder Blade

    • C.

      Knee

    • D.

      Hips

    Correct Answer
    B. Shoulder Blade
    Explanation
    The scapula is a large triangular bone located on the back of the body, specifically in the upper back region. It is commonly known as the shoulder blade and plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. The scapula connects the upper arm bone (humerus) to the collarbone (clavicle) and provides attachment points for various muscles involved in arm and shoulder movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Shoulder Blade."

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  • 43. 

    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ________.

    • A.

      R wave

    • B.

      T wave

    • C.

      Q wave

    • D.

      S wave

    Correct Answer
    C. Q wave
    Explanation
    The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum.

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  • 44. 

    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a ________.

    • A.

      Non-pathogen

    • B.

      Spore

    • C.

      Flora

    • D.

      Pathogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-pathogen
    Explanation
    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a non-pathogen. This term refers to a microorganism that does not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. Non-pathogens can be found in various environments, including the human body, and they play important roles in maintaining overall health and balance. Unlike pathogens, which are capable of causing diseases, non-pathogens do not pose a significant risk to the host and are generally harmless.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?

    • A.

      Both venipuncture and microsampling invovle skill

    • B.

      It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger

    • C.

      Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect

    • D.

      "Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing

    Correct Answer
    B. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger
    Explanation
    The statement "It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger" is false. The direction in which a finger is lanced does matter during blood drawing. It is important to lance the finger perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprint to avoid causing unnecessary pain and to obtain a proper blood sample.

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  • 46. 

    A centrifuge works by _________.

    • A.

      Freezing blood specimens

    • B.

      Heating blood specimens

    • C.

      Incubating blood at body temp

    • D.

      Separating cells and serum

    Correct Answer
    D. Separating cells and serum
    Explanation
    A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. When blood specimens are placed in a centrifuge and spun at high speeds, the centrifugal force causes the heavier components, such as cells, to settle at the bottom of the tube, while the lighter components, such as serum, rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis of the different components of the blood, such as testing for specific cells or measuring levels of certain substances in the serum.

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  • 47. 

    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called _______.

    • A.

      Uniform

    • B.

      Malignant

    • C.

      Fused

    • D.

      Bigeminy

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform
    Explanation
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) refers to an irregular heartbeat that occurs earlier than expected. In this case, a PVC is considered "uniform" when the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears. This means that the abnormal heartbeat has a consistent pattern, making it easier to identify and diagnose.

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  • 48. 

    On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the ________.

    • A.

      Start

    • B.

      Amplitude

    • C.

      Gain

    • D.

      B or C

    Correct Answer
    D. B or C
    Explanation
    The sensitivity switch on an ECG machine controls either the amplitude or the gain. Amplitude refers to the measurement of the height of the ECG waveforms, while gain refers to the amplification or magnification of the ECG signal. By adjusting the sensitivity switch, the user can either change the amplitude of the waveforms or increase/decrease the gain to get a clearer or more detailed ECG reading.

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  • 49. 

    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is ____________.

    • A.

      Defibrillation

    • B.

      Shock Treatment

    • C.

      V Tach

    • D.

      Scintillation

    Correct Answer
    A. Defibrillation
    Explanation
    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is defibrillation. Defibrillation is a medical procedure that uses an electrical shock to restore the heart's normal rhythm. It is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, the given answer is correct as it accurately describes the second component of the electrical force produced by ventricular depolarization.

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  • 50. 

    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____ the first drop.

    • A.

      Collect

    • B.

      Use

    • C.

      Wipe away

    • D.

      Wash off

    Correct Answer
    C. Wipe away
    Explanation
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop. This is because the first drop of blood may contain tissue fluid or contaminants from the skin surface, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. Wiping away the first drop ensures that the subsequent drops collected for the blood smear are free from any potential contaminants, allowing for a more accurate analysis of the blood sample.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Amjolyn77
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