A Medical Quiz About Muscoskeletal System. Are You A Doctor?

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  • 1/83 Questions

    GOUT IS CAUSED BY ACCUMULATION OF ________________ IN THE BLOOD

    • URIC ACID
    • URINE
    • URIC ACID ANTIBODIES
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About This Quiz

Muscles make up approximately 40 percent of total weight with the heart being the hardest-working muscle in the body. Many things can hinder the system from functioning correctly and from correcting some of them a surgery must take place. The quiz below is perfect for refreshing your memory on some of the vocabulary used in such surgeries.

A Medical Quiz About Muscoskeletal System. Are You A Doctor? - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    CARTILAGE DEGENERATION FROM NORMAL WEAR AND TEAR

    • RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. OSTEOARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Osteoarthritis is the most likely explanation for the given answer. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs due to the breakdown and eventual loss of cartilage in the joints. It is commonly caused by normal wear and tear on the joints over time. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to the joints. While both conditions can lead to cartilage degeneration, osteoarthritis is more commonly associated with normal wear and tear.

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  • 3. 

    BONE ARTICULATION OCCURS AT JOINTS

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bone articulation refers to the movement and connection between bones at joints. Joints allow bones to move in specific ways, such as bending, rotating, or sliding. This movement is essential for various bodily functions, including walking, grasping objects, and performing other physical activities. Therefore, it is correct to say that bone articulation occurs at joints.

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  • 4. 

    REPAIR OF A JOINT SURFACE OR SURFACES

    • ARTHODESIS

    • ARTHROCENTESIS

    • ARTHOPLASTY

    Correct Answer
    A. ARTHOPLASTY
    Explanation
    Arthroplasty refers to the surgical repair or replacement of a joint surface or surfaces. It is a procedure commonly performed to relieve pain and restore function in joints affected by conditions such as arthritis or injury. During arthroplasty, the damaged joint surfaces are either repaired or replaced with artificial components, such as metal or plastic implants. This helps to improve joint mobility and reduce pain, allowing patients to regain their normal range of motion and quality of life.

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  • 5. 

    FAT EMBOLISM IS THE MOST SERIOUS COMPLICATION OF

    • LONG BONE FRACTURE

    • GAS GANGRENE

    • NECK FRACTURES

    Correct Answer
    A. LONG BONE FRACTURE
    Explanation
    Fat embolism is a serious complication that can occur as a result of long bone fractures. When a long bone is fractured, fat from the bone marrow can enter the bloodstream and travel to other organs, such as the lungs, brain, or heart, causing blockages and impairing their function. This can lead to respiratory distress, neurological symptoms, and even death. While gas gangrene and neck fractures can also have serious complications, fat embolism is specifically associated with long bone fractures.

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  • 6. 

    SURGICAL FUSION OF A JOINT

    • ARTHOPLASTY

    • ARTHODESIS

    • ARTHROCENTESIS

    Correct Answer
    A. ARTHODESIS
    Explanation
    Arthodesis is a surgical procedure that involves the fusion of a joint. It is commonly used to treat severe joint pain or instability. During arthodesis, the bones surrounding the joint are fused together, eliminating the joint and creating a solid connection. This procedure helps to relieve pain and improve joint stability by preventing movement in the affected joint. Arthodesis is often performed in cases where other treatments, such as medication or physical therapy, have been unsuccessful.

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  • 7. 

    OSTEOMYELITIS CAN BE THOUGHT OF AS

    • INFECTION OF BONE AND MARROW

    • MINERAL BASED DISEASE

    • VITAMIN BASED DISEASE

    Correct Answer
    A. INFECTION OF BONE AND MARROW
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is an infection that affects the bone and marrow. It is characterized by inflammation and destruction of the bone tissue, usually caused by bacteria or fungi. The infection can spread through the bloodstream or from nearby tissues, leading to symptoms such as pain, swelling, and fever. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and, in severe cases, surgery to remove the infected tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is "infection of bone and marrow."

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  • 8. 

    BONE INJURY WHERE BACTERIA ENTERS THROUGH THE BLOODSTREAM FROM ANOTHER PART OF THE BODY CAUSING INFECTION OF THE BONE AND MARROW

    • GOUT

    • BONE CANCER

    • OSTEOMYELITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. OSTEOMYELITIS
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is the correct answer because it refers to a bone infection caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream from another part of the body. This infection can lead to inflammation and destruction of the bone and marrow. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, not a bone infection. Bone cancer refers to the abnormal growth of cells in the bone, which is different from an infection.

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  • 9. 

    pHALENS MANEUVER IS USED TO DETECT CARPAL TUNNEL

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Phalen's maneuver is a diagnostic test used to detect carpal tunnel syndrome. It involves flexing the wrist for a minute to compress the median nerve. If the patient experiences numbness, tingling, or pain in the hand or fingers during or after the maneuver, it suggests the presence of carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, the given statement "Phalen's maneuver is used to detect carpal tunnel" is true.

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  • 10. 

    SYSTEMIC DISEASE

    • OSTEOARTHRITIS

    • RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is the correct answer because it is a systemic disease that affects the joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is primarily caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the joints, causing inflammation and damage. Rheumatoid arthritis can also affect other organs and systems in the body, making it a systemic disease.

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  • 11. 

    MOST ENDOSCOPIC PROCEDURES REQUIRE PATIENT TO BE ON NPO STATUS HOW LONG BEFORE PROCEDURE

    • 2-4 HOURS

    • 6-12 HOURS

    • NPO NOT NEEEDED

    Correct Answer
    A. 6-12 HOURS
    Explanation
    Most endoscopic procedures require patients to be on NPO (nothing by mouth) status for 6-12 hours before the procedure. This is because the stomach needs to be empty to ensure better visualization and reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. By not eating or drinking for this period, the stomach is less likely to contain any food or liquid that could interfere with the procedure or cause complications.

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  • 12. 

    YOU SEE YOUR PATIENT WHO HAS JUST HAD A HIP REPLACEMENT LYING ON HER SIDE THAT HAS BEEN REPLACED , YOU

    • REALIZE THAT THIS NOT A PROBLEM

    • INSTRUCT HER TO TURN EVERY TWO HOURS OR CALL FOR HELP IF NEEDED

    • CORRECT HER POSITION AND TELL HER TO NOT LIE ON HER REPAIRED SIDE

    Correct Answer
    A. CORRECT HER POSITION AND TELL HER TO NOT LIE ON HER REPAIRED SIDE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to correct her position and tell her to not lie on her repaired side. This is because after a hip replacement surgery, it is important to avoid putting excessive pressure on the replaced hip. Lying on the repaired side can cause discomfort and potentially damage the new hip joint. By correcting her position and instructing her not to lie on the repaired side, the patient can prevent any potential complications and promote proper healing.

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  • 13. 

    MOVEMENT AWAY FROM THE BODY IS CALLED

    • ADDUCTION

    • ABDUCTION

    • PRONATION

    Correct Answer
    A. ABDUCTION
    Explanation
    Abduction is the correct answer because it refers to the movement away from the body. In anatomical terms, abduction specifically refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. This movement can occur in various joints, such as the shoulder or hip, and is the opposite of adduction, which is the movement towards the midline of the body. Pronation, on the other hand, refers to the rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces downwards.

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  • 14. 

    JOINT WITH NO MOVEMENT

    • SYNARTHROSIS

    • AMPHIARTHROSIS

    • DIARTHROSIS

    Correct Answer
    A. SYNARTHROSIS
    Explanation
    Synarthrosis refers to a type of joint that has no movement. This means that the bones forming the joint are tightly fused together, allowing no mobility. Examples of synarthrosis joints include the sutures between the bones of the skull and the teeth in their sockets. In contrast, amphiarthrosis refers to joints that have limited movement, while diarthrosis refers to joints that have a wide range of movement.

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  • 15. 

    AFTER A FOREARM FRACTURE, COMPLAINTS OF SHARP,DEEP,UNRELENTING PAIN IN THE HAND NOT HELPED BY PAIN MEDICATION MAY INDICATE

    • FAT EMBOLISM

    • GANGRENE

    • COMPARTMENT SYNDROME

    Correct Answer
    A. COMPARTMENT SYNDROME
    Explanation
    After a forearm fracture, complaints of sharp, deep, unrelenting pain in the hand not helped by pain medication may indicate compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome occurs when there is increased pressure within a closed space, such as the compartments in the hand, leading to compromised blood flow and tissue damage. The pain in compartment syndrome is often severe and not relieved by pain medication. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications.

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  • 16. 

    TEST TO HELP CONFIRM RA

    • PTT

    • INR

    • ESR

    Correct Answer
    A. ESR
    Explanation
    ESR stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate. It is a test used to measure the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. This test is commonly used to help diagnose and monitor the presence and severity of inflammation in the body. An elevated ESR can indicate the presence of various inflammatory conditions, such as infections, autoimmune diseases, and certain types of cancer. Therefore, in the context of the given question, the ESR test would be helpful in confirming the presence of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), which is an inflammatory autoimmune disease affecting the joints.

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  • 17. 

    ALLOPURINOL, PROBENECID, AND SULFINPYRAZONE ARE USED IN TREATMENT OF

    • HOLMAN'S SIGN

    • HEBERDEN'S NODES

    • GOUT

    Correct Answer
    A. GOUT
    Explanation
    Allopurinol, probenecid, and sulfinpyrazone are all medications used in the treatment of gout. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the body, leading to the formation of uric acid crystals in the joints. These medications work by either reducing the production of uric acid or increasing the excretion of uric acid from the body. By doing so, they help to lower the levels of uric acid in the blood and prevent the formation of uric acid crystals, thereby reducing the symptoms of gout.

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  • 18. 

    AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE

    • RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease characterized by chronic inflammation of the joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues, leading to joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. This condition can affect multiple joints and may also cause fatigue, fever, and weight loss. Treatment for rheumatoid arthritis typically involves medication to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms, as well as physical therapy to improve joint function.

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  • 19. 

    FOSMAX SHOULD BE GIVEN

    • AM WITH 8 OUNCE OF WATER

    • PM WITH 8 OUNCE WATER

    • WITHOUT ANY FLUIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. AM WITH 8 OUNCE OF WATER
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "AM with 8 ounce of water" because Fosamax, a medication used to treat osteoporosis, should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. Taking it with water helps to ensure proper absorption of the medication and taking it on an empty stomach prevents interference with food or other medications.

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  • 20. 

    THE NURSE ENTERS A PATIENTS ROOM ONE DAY POST SURGERY AND NOTICES HIS WIFE MASSAGING HIS CALF AREA, HER RESPONSE SHOULD BE

    • THAT WILL HELP WITH HIS CIRCULATION

    • THAT WILL PREVENT CLOTS FROM FORMING

    • DO NOT MASSAGE THE LOWER EXTREMITIES, A THROMBOEMBOLUS MAY EXIST

    Correct Answer
    A. DO NOT MASSAGE THE LOWER EXTREMITIES, A THROMBOEMBOLUS MAY EXIST
    Explanation
    Massaging the lower extremities after surgery can be dangerous if a thromboembolus (blood clot) is present. Massaging the area can dislodge the clot and cause it to travel to other parts of the body, leading to serious complications such as a pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the nurse should advise against massaging the calf area and be cautious about the possibility of a thromboembolus.

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  • 21. 

    HOMANS SIGN,PT,,INR, AND DOPPLER ARE USED IN CONFIRMING A

    • FAT EMBOLISM

    • DVT

    • TOPHI

    Correct Answer
    A. DVT
    Explanation
    Homan's sign, PT, INR, and Doppler are used in confirming DVT. DVT stands for deep vein thrombosis, which is a condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. Homan's sign is a test used to check for pain in the calf when the foot is flexed upward, which can be an indication of DVT. PT (prothrombin time) and INR (international normalized ratio) are blood tests that measure how long it takes for blood to clot, and they can help diagnose DVT. Doppler is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of blood flow, and it can be used to detect blood clots in the veins. Therefore, these tests and signs are used to confirm the presence of DVT.

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  • 22. 

    PROCAINE INFILTRATION MAY BE USED TO TREAT STUMPS IN AMPUTEES FOR pHANTOM PAIN

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Procaine infiltration is a medical procedure that involves injecting the anesthetic drug procaine into a specific area. It is commonly used to treat phantom pain in amputees, which refers to the sensation of pain or discomfort in a limb that is no longer there. By numbing the affected area, procaine infiltration can help alleviate the phantom pain experienced by amputees. Therefore, the statement that procaine infiltration may be used to treat stumps in amputees for phantom pain is true.

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  • 23. 

    A GONIOMETER MEASURES JOINT ANGLES

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A goniometer is a medical device used to measure the angles of joints in the body. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals such as physical therapists and orthopedic surgeons to assess the range of motion and flexibility of a joint. By accurately measuring joint angles, a goniometer can help in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as arthritis, joint injuries, and muscle imbalances. Therefore, the statement that a goniometer measures joint angles is true.

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  • 24. 

    GOUT IS WHAT TYPE OF DIEASE

    • AUTOIMMUNE

    • METABOLIC

    • DISEASE MAINLY OF WOMEN

    Correct Answer
    A. METABOLIC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "METABOLIC" because gout is a type of metabolic disease. It is characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and severe pain. Gout is caused by an overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid, which is a waste product of purine metabolism. This condition primarily affects men and is often associated with lifestyle factors such as diet, alcohol consumption, and obesity.

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  • 25. 

    PALM FACING UP

    • EXTENSION

    • SUPINATION

    • PRONATION

    Correct Answer
    A. SUPINATION
    Explanation
    Supination refers to the movement of the forearm and hand where the palm is facing up. It involves the rotation of the radius bone in the forearm, causing the palm to turn upward. This movement is commonly used when performing activities such as holding a bowl of soup or pouring liquid from a container.

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  • 26. 

    FLAT BONES ARE FOUND

    • SKULL

    • FEET

    • WRIST

    Correct Answer
    A. SKULL
    Explanation
    Flat bones are found in the skull. The skull is made up of several flat bones that protect the brain and provide structural support for the face. These flat bones include the frontal bone, parietal bones, temporal bones, and occipital bone. The flat shape of these bones helps to distribute force and protect the delicate structures of the brain. Additionally, the flat bones of the skull also provide attachment points for muscles that control facial expressions and jaw movements.

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  • 27. 

    NONSPECIFIC TEST TO DETECT INFLAMMATION

    • ESR

    • RA

    • MCG

    Correct Answer
    A. ESR
    Explanation
    ESR stands for Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate, which is a non-specific test used to detect inflammation in the body. It measures the rate at which red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube over a certain period of time. Inflammation in the body can cause the red blood cells to clump together and settle faster, leading to an elevated ESR. While ESR is a non-specific test and cannot diagnose a specific condition, it is often used in conjunction with other tests to help diagnose and monitor inflammatory conditions such as infections, autoimmune diseases, and certain cancers.

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  • 28. 

    ONLY ONE SIDE OF BODY MAYBE AFFECTED

    • OSTEOARTHRITIS

    • RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. OSTEOARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that primarily affects the cartilage in the joints. It commonly occurs in older individuals and is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage, leading to pain, stiffness, and limited movement in the affected joint. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which is an autoimmune disease, osteoarthritis typically affects only one side of the body. This is because it is often caused by wear and tear or injury to a specific joint, rather than a systemic inflammatory response.

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  • 29. 

    IF USING GOUT DRUGS LIKE COLCHICINE, YOU SHOULD AVOID

    • TYLENOL

    • MORPHINE

    • ASPIRIN

    Correct Answer
    A. ASPIRIN
    Explanation
    Gout is a type of arthritis that causes sudden and severe joint pain. Colchicine is commonly used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and pain. Aspirin, on the other hand, can interfere with the effectiveness of colchicine and may increase the risk of side effects. Therefore, individuals using gout drugs like colchicine should avoid taking aspirin to ensure the proper functioning of the medication and to minimize potential complications.

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  • 30. 

    GOUT INDICATOR

    • HEBERDENS NODES

    • HOMANS SIGN

    • TOPHI

    Correct Answer
    A. TOPHI
    Explanation
    Tophi are a characteristic feature of gout, a type of arthritis. They are deposits of uric acid crystals that form under the skin, typically around joints. These tophi can cause pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area. Therefore, the presence of tophi serves as an indicator or a sign of gout. Heberden's nodes, on the other hand, are bony growths that develop on the joints of fingers and are associated with osteoarthritis. Homans sign is a clinical test used to assess for deep vein thrombosis.

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  • 31. 

    SURGICAL PUNCTURE OF A JOINT

    • ARTHROCENTESIS

    • ARTHOPLASTY

    • ARTHODESIS

    Correct Answer
    A. ARTHROCENTESIS
    Explanation
    Arthrocentesis is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical puncture of a joint. This procedure involves the insertion of a needle into a joint to remove fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. It is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as arthritis or to relieve joint swelling and pain. Arthroplasty, on the other hand, refers to the surgical reconstruction or replacement of a joint, while arthrodesis involves the fusion of a joint to provide stability.

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  • 32. 

    CRITICAL ASSESSMENT AFTER PLACING A CAST IS

    • GASTROINTESTINAL

    • RESPIRATORY

    • CMS

    Correct Answer
    A. CMS
    Explanation
    CMS stands for Circulation, Motion, and Sensation. After placing a cast, it is important to conduct a critical assessment of these three factors to ensure the patient's well-being. Gastrointestinal and respiratory assessments are not directly related to the placement of a cast and are not typically part of the immediate post-casting assessment.

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  • 33. 

    OSTEOMYELITIS IS BEST DETECTED BY WHICH TEST

    • ELECTROMYOGRAM WITH ATOMIC DYE

    • CT SCAN

    • BONE SCAN

    Correct Answer
    A. BONE SCAN
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and the best test to detect it is a bone scan. A bone scan involves injecting a small amount of radioactive material into the bloodstream, which then accumulates in areas of the bone that are actively undergoing repair or inflammation. By using a special camera to detect the radiation, areas of increased activity can be identified, indicating the presence of osteomyelitis. An electromyogram with atomic dye is not a suitable test for detecting osteomyelitis, as it is used to evaluate muscle and nerve function. A CT scan can provide detailed images of the bone, but it may not always be able to differentiate between infection and other bone abnormalities.

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  • 34. 

    BONES SERVE AS STORAGE FOR WHAT TWO MAIN MINERALS

    • CALCIUM AND IRON

    • CALCIUM AND PHOS

    • CALCIUM AND POTASSIUM

    Correct Answer
    A. CALCIUM AND PHOS
    Explanation
    Bones serve as storage for two main minerals, calcium and phosphorus. Calcium is essential for building and maintaining strong bones, while phosphorus plays a crucial role in bone formation and repair. These minerals are stored in the bone matrix and released into the bloodstream as needed to maintain the body's calcium and phosphorus levels.

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  • 35. 

    ENZYME THAT BREAKS DOWN ACETYLCHOLINE

    • CHOLINESTRATE

    • NEUROSTRATE

    • URIC ACID

    Correct Answer
    A. CHOLINESTRATE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CHOLINESTRATE because cholinesterase is the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in many important functions in the body, including muscle movement and cognitive processes. Cholinesterase helps regulate the levels of acetylcholine by breaking it down into choline and acetate. This process is crucial for maintaining proper neurotransmission and preventing excessive accumulation of acetylcholine, which can lead to overstimulation of the nervous system. Therefore, cholinesterase plays a vital role in the regulation of acetylcholine levels in the body.

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  • 36. 

    9.5 TO 10.5 IS A NORMAL LEVEL FOR

    • MYOGLOBIN

    • CALCIUM

    • POTASSIUM

    Correct Answer
    A. CALCIUM
    Explanation
    A normal level for calcium in the body is typically between 9.5 to 10.5. Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone health, muscle contraction, and nerve function. It is necessary for the proper functioning of the heart, muscles, and nerves. Maintaining a normal level of calcium is important for overall health and wellbeing.

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  • 37. 

    SLOWS BONE LOSS

    • MIACALIN

    • FOSMAX

    • FORTEO

    Correct Answer
    A. FOSMAX
    Explanation
    Fosamax is a medication that is commonly prescribed for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis. It belongs to a class of drugs called bisphosphonates, which work by slowing down the bone loss process. Fosamax helps to increase bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. It does this by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells responsible for breaking down bone. By slowing down bone loss, Fosamax helps to maintain and strengthen the bones, making it an effective treatment for osteoporosis.

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  • 38. 

    WHICH OF THESE LEADS YOU TO SUSPECT COMPARTMENT SYNDROME

    • BUBBLES UNDER THE SKIN

    • HYPOTENSION, TACHYCARDIA, TACHYPENA

    • NO PULSE IN AFFECTED EXTREMITY

    Correct Answer
    A. NO PULSE IN AFFECTED EXTREMITY
    Explanation
    The absence of a pulse in the affected extremity can lead to a suspicion of compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome occurs when there is increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygenation to the tissues. This can result in ischemia and tissue damage. The absence of a pulse suggests compromised blood flow to the extremity, which is a characteristic feature of compartment syndrome. Other symptoms such as bubbles under the skin and hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea may not specifically indicate compartment syndrome, but the absence of a pulse is a more definitive sign.

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  • 39. 

    INFLAMMATION OF SYNOVIAL MEMBRANE,

    • RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory condition that primarily affects the synovial membrane, causing inflammation. This leads to joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is a degenerative condition, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues, including the synovial membrane. This results in the inflammation and destruction of the synovial membrane, leading to the characteristic symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis.

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  • 40. 

    VERTEBRAE SURGERY  PATIENTS BED POSITION SHOULD BE

    • LESS THAN 30%

    • UPRIGHT AS POSSIBLE

    • CHANGE FROM HIGH TO FLAT EVERY 30 MINUTES

    Correct Answer
    A. LESS THAN 30%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "LESS THAN 30%". This means that the patient's bed position should be tilted at an angle of less than 30 degrees. This is important for patients undergoing vertebral surgery as it helps to reduce the risk of complications such as pressure ulcers and respiratory problems. Tilting the bed at an angle less than 30% ensures that the patient's spine is properly aligned and reduces the pressure on the surgical site. It also helps to promote proper blood flow and oxygenation to the tissues, aiding in the healing process.

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  • 41. 

    HEMATOPOIESIS OCCURS WHERE

    • YELLOW MARROW

    • RED MARROW

    • SPLEEN AND RED MARROW

    Correct Answer
    A. RED MARROW
    Explanation
    Hematopoiesis refers to the process of formation and development of blood cells. It primarily occurs in the red marrow of bones, specifically in the spongy bone tissue. Red marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, consists mainly of fat cells and does not actively participate in hematopoiesis. While the spleen does play a role in the destruction and recycling of old blood cells, it is not a primary site for hematopoiesis. Therefore, the correct answer is red marrow.

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  • 42. 

    AFTER A FRACTURE OF THE FEMUR 48 HOURS AGO THE NURSE NOTICES PETECHIAE ON THE CHEST,NECK AND CONJUNCTIVA, SHE SUSPECTS

    • FAT EMBOLISM

    • DVT

    • DEVELOPING G AS GANGRENE

    Correct Answer
    A. FAT EMBOLISM
    Explanation
    The presence of petechiae on the chest, neck, and conjunctiva after a fracture of the femur 48 hours ago suggests a fat embolism. Fat embolism occurs when fat globules from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and travel to various organs, causing microvascular occlusion and tissue damage. The petechiae are a result of small blood vessel rupture due to the occlusion. This is a known complication of long bone fractures, particularly in the femur. DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and developing gas gangrene are less likely to present with petechiae in this context.

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  • 43. 

    NORMAL pHOSpHORUS RANGE

    • 2.5-4.5

    • 6.5-7.5

    • LESS THAN 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.5-4.5
    Explanation
    The normal phosphorus range is between 2.5 and 4.5. This means that a healthy individual should have phosphorus levels within this range. Phosphorus is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, such as bone and teeth formation, energy production, and cell growth. Deviations from this range may indicate an underlying health issue or imbalance in the body.

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  • 44. 

    CREPITUS IS EXPECTED TO BE HEAR IN

    • MUSCLE TEARS

    • FRACTURES

    • EMBOLI

    Correct Answer
    A. FRACTURES
    Explanation
    Crepitus refers to a crackling or grating sound that is heard when bones rub against each other or when there is air trapped under the skin. It is commonly associated with fractures, as the broken bones can cause friction and produce the crepitus sound. Muscle tears may also cause some degree of crepitus, but it is more commonly observed in fractures. Emboli, which are blood clots that travel through the bloodstream and block blood vessels, do not typically result in crepitus.

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  • 45. 

    IN A BONE SCAN ATOMIC DYE IS GIVEN BY IV WHEN

    • 24 HOURS BEFORE PROCEDURE

    • DURING THE PROCEDURE

    • 2-3 HOURS BEFORE PROCEDURE

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-3 HOURS BEFORE PROCEDURE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2-3 hours before the procedure. This is because the atomic dye needs enough time to circulate throughout the body and be absorbed by the bones before the scan takes place. Giving the dye too close to the procedure may not allow enough time for proper distribution and absorption, leading to inaccurate results. Giving the dye 24 hours before the procedure would be too far in advance and may result in the dye being cleared from the body before the scan. Giving the dye during the procedure would not allow enough time for proper distribution and absorption.

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  • 46. 

    DORSIFLEXION INVOLVES

    • ELEVATION OF THE WRIST

    • TILTING THE FOOT UPWARDS

    • MOVING THE FOOT DOWN IN THE PLANTAR REGION

    Correct Answer
    A. TILTING THE FOOT UPWARDS
    Explanation
    Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the foot in which the top of the foot is brought towards the shin, resulting in an upward tilt of the foot. This movement is commonly used when walking, running, or climbing stairs. It helps to lift the foot off the ground and prepare it for the next step.

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  • 47. 

    A HIP FRACTURE PATIENT WOULD NEED TO KEEP HIS LEGS IN WHAT POSITION POST SURGERY BY USE OF A FOAM BOLSTER

    • ABDUCTED

    • ADDUCTED

    • PRONE

    Correct Answer
    A. ABDUCTED
    Explanation
    After hip fracture surgery, a patient would need to keep his legs in an abducted position using a foam bolster. Abduction refers to the movement of the leg away from the midline of the body. This position helps to prevent the hip joint from dislocating and promotes proper healing and alignment of the fractured bone. By keeping the legs abducted, the patient can also avoid excessive pressure and strain on the surgical site, reducing the risk of complications and promoting a faster recovery.

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  • 48. 

    CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE DISORDER OF THE SACROILIAC AND HIP, SYNOVIAL JOINTS AND ADJACENT SOFT TISSUE. AFFECTS YOUNG MEN,HEREDITY A FACTOR

    • ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

    • ARTHRITIS

    • GOUT

    Correct Answer
    A. ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS
    Explanation
    Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic progressive disorder that primarily affects the sacroiliac and hip joints, as well as the adjacent soft tissue. It is more common in young men and has a hereditary component. This condition causes inflammation and stiffness in the affected joints, leading to pain and limited mobility. The correct answer, Ankylosing spondylitis, aligns with the given description of the disorder.

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  • 49. 

    PREGNANT WOMEN ARE AT RISK FOR CARPAL TUNNEL IN THE LAST TRIMESTER

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, hormonal changes can cause fluid retention and swelling in the body, including the wrists. This swelling can compress the median nerve, leading to carpal tunnel syndrome. The last trimester is when the body retains the most fluid, making pregnant women more susceptible to developing carpal tunnel syndrome during this time. Therefore, it is true that pregnant women are at risk for carpal tunnel syndrome in the last trimester.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 28, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Billbowman57
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