A Medical Quiz About Muscoskeletal System. Are You A Doctor?

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A Medical Quiz About Muscoskeletal System. Are You A Doctor? - Quiz

Muscles make up approximately 40 percent of total weight with the heart being the hardest-working muscle in the body. Many things can hinder the system from functioning correctly and from correcting some of them a surgery must take place. The quiz below is perfect for refreshing your memory on some of the vocabulary used in such surgeries.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    SURGICAL PUNCTURE OF A JOINT

    • A.

      ARTHROCENTESIS

    • B.

      ARTHOPLASTY

    • C.

      ARTHODESIS

    Correct Answer
    A. ARTHROCENTESIS
    Explanation
    Arthrocentesis is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical puncture of a joint. This procedure involves the insertion of a needle into a joint to remove fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. It is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as arthritis or to relieve joint swelling and pain. Arthroplasty, on the other hand, refers to the surgical reconstruction or replacement of a joint, while arthrodesis involves the fusion of a joint to provide stability.

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  • 2. 

    REPAIR OF A JOINT SURFACE OR SURFACES

    • A.

      ARTHODESIS

    • B.

      ARTHROCENTESIS

    • C.

      ARTHOPLASTY

    Correct Answer
    C. ARTHOPLASTY
    Explanation
    Arthroplasty refers to the surgical repair or replacement of a joint surface or surfaces. It is a procedure commonly performed to relieve pain and restore function in joints affected by conditions such as arthritis or injury. During arthroplasty, the damaged joint surfaces are either repaired or replaced with artificial components, such as metal or plastic implants. This helps to improve joint mobility and reduce pain, allowing patients to regain their normal range of motion and quality of life.

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  • 3. 

    SURGICAL FUSION OF A JOINT

    • A.

      ARTHOPLASTY

    • B.

      ARTHODESIS

    • C.

      ARTHROCENTESIS

    Correct Answer
    B. ARTHODESIS
    Explanation
    Arthodesis is a surgical procedure that involves the fusion of a joint. It is commonly used to treat severe joint pain or instability. During arthodesis, the bones surrounding the joint are fused together, eliminating the joint and creating a solid connection. This procedure helps to relieve pain and improve joint stability by preventing movement in the affected joint. Arthodesis is often performed in cases where other treatments, such as medication or physical therapy, have been unsuccessful.

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  • 4. 

    JOINT WITH SLIGHT MOVEMENT

    • A.

      SYNARTHROSIS

    • B.

      DIARTHROSIS

    • C.

      AMPHIARTHROSIS

    Correct Answer
    C. AMPHIARTHROSIS
    Explanation
    Amphiarthrosis is the correct answer because it refers to a type of joint that allows slight movement. In amphiarthrosis, the bones are connected by fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage, which allows for limited movement and provides some stability to the joint. This type of joint is found in the vertebral column and the pubic symphysis, where it allows for small amounts of movement while still maintaining some structural integrity.

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  • 5. 

    JOINT WITH FREE MOVEMENT

    • A.

      DIARTHROSIS

    • B.

      SYNARTHROSIS

    • C.

      AMPHIARTHROSIS

    Correct Answer
    A. DIARTHROSIS
    Explanation
    Diarthrosis refers to a type of joint that allows for free movement. This means that the joint has a wide range of motion and can move in various directions. Diarthrosis joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity, which contains synovial fluid that lubricates the joint and reduces friction. Examples of diarthrosis joints include the shoulder and knee joints.

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  • 6. 

    JOINT WITH NO MOVEMENT

    • A.

      SYNARTHROSIS

    • B.

      AMPHIARTHROSIS

    • C.

      DIARTHROSIS

    Correct Answer
    A. SYNARTHROSIS
    Explanation
    Synarthrosis refers to a type of joint that has no movement. This means that the bones forming the joint are tightly fused together, allowing no mobility. Examples of synarthrosis joints include the sutures between the bones of the skull and the teeth in their sockets. In contrast, amphiarthrosis refers to joints that have limited movement, while diarthrosis refers to joints that have a wide range of movement.

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  • 7. 

    FOURTH FUNCTION OF THE MUSCULAR SYSTEM

    • A.

      TENDON SUPPORT

    • B.

      VENOUS BLOOD RETURN

    • C.

      ANTIBODY FORMATION

    Correct Answer
    B. VENOUS BLOOD RETURN
    Explanation
    The fourth function of the muscular system is venous blood return. The muscles in our body help in pumping blood back to the heart from the veins. When the muscles contract, they squeeze the veins, which helps in pushing the blood towards the heart. This process is especially important in the lower extremities, where gravity makes it difficult for blood to flow back up to the heart. The contraction and relaxation of muscles play a crucial role in maintaining proper blood circulation throughout the body.

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  • 8. 

    EPIMYSIUM, PERIMYSIUM, ENDOMYSIUM FORM/RELATE TO THE

    • A.

      NERVE BUNDLES

    • B.

      MUSCLE MATRIX

    • C.

      TENDONS

    Correct Answer
    C. TENDONS
    Explanation
    The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium are connective tissue layers that surround and support muscle fibers. These layers together form the muscle matrix, providing structural integrity and support to the muscle. However, tendons are fibrous connective tissues that attach muscles to bones, allowing for the transmission of force from the muscle to the bone. Therefore, the correct answer is tendons, as the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium do not directly relate to nerve bundles or the muscle matrix.

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  • 9. 

    ENZYME THAT BREAKS DOWN ACETYLCHOLINE

    • A.

      CHOLINESTRATE

    • B.

      NEUROSTRATE

    • C.

      URIC ACID

    Correct Answer
    A. CHOLINESTRATE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CHOLINESTRATE because cholinesterase is the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in many important functions in the body, including muscle movement and cognitive processes. Cholinesterase helps regulate the levels of acetylcholine by breaking it down into choline and acetate. This process is crucial for maintaining proper neurotransmission and preventing excessive accumulation of acetylcholine, which can lead to overstimulation of the nervous system. Therefore, cholinesterase plays a vital role in the regulation of acetylcholine levels in the body.

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  • 10. 

    EACH MUSCLE USUALLY IS PENETRATED BY

    • A.

      TWO ARTERIES, ONE VEIN, ONE NERVE

    • B.

      MULTIPLE NERVES, ONE VEIN, ONE ARTERY

    • C.

      TWO VEINS, ONE ARTERY, ONE NERVE

    Correct Answer
    C. TWO VEINS, ONE ARTERY, ONE NERVE
    Explanation
    Muscles are highly vascularized tissues that require a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients. Therefore, they are usually penetrated by two veins to drain deoxygenated blood and waste products away, one artery to supply oxygenated blood and nutrients, and one nerve to provide innervation and control muscle contraction. This arrangement allows for efficient blood flow and nerve signaling, ensuring proper muscle function.

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  • 11. 

    MOST COMMON DISCOMFORT AFTER A MYELOGRAM

    • A.

      BACK PAIN

    • B.

      HEADACHE

    • C.

      NECK STIFFNESS

    Correct Answer
    B. HEADACHE
    Explanation
    After a myelogram, the most common discomfort experienced is a headache. This is because during a myelogram, a contrast dye is injected into the spinal canal, which can cause irritation and inflammation of the surrounding tissues. This irritation can lead to a headache, which is typically described as a dull, throbbing pain that is worse when sitting or standing upright. The headache usually resolves within a few days with rest and over-the-counter pain medications. It is important to stay well hydrated and avoid strenuous activities to help alleviate the headache.

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  • 12. 

    AFTER A MYELOGRAM, PATIENT SHOULD REMAIN IN WHAT POSITION FOR AT LEAST 8 HOURS

    • A.

      HIGH FOWLERS

    • B.

      PRONE

    • C.

      SEMI-FOWLERS

    Correct Answer
    C. SEMI-FOWLERS
    Explanation
    After a myelogram, it is important for the patient to remain in a semi-fowlers position for at least 8 hours. This position helps to prevent the contrast dye from leaking out of the spinal canal and reduces the risk of complications such as headaches or infection. The semi-fowlers position involves the patient lying on their back with the head of the bed elevated at a 30-degree angle. This position allows for proper drainage and helps to maintain the integrity of the spinal canal.

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  • 13. 

    DURING A CT SCAN THE PATIENT MAY FEEL

    • A.

      CHILLED AND CLAMY

    • B.

      HEART TACHYCARDIA AND CONFUSION

    • C.

      WARM AND SOMEWHAT NAUSEATED

    Correct Answer
    C. WARM AND SOMEWHAT NAUSEATED
    Explanation
    During a CT scan, the patient may feel warm and somewhat nauseated. This is because the CT scan involves the use of radiation to create detailed images of the body. The radiation can cause a warming sensation in the body, which some patients may perceive as feeling warm. Additionally, the contrast dye used in some CT scans can cause nausea or a feeling of being somewhat nauseated. It is important for the patient to communicate any discomfort or symptoms they experience during the scan to the healthcare provider.

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  • 14. 

    OSTEOMYELITIS IS BEST DETECTED BY WHICH TEST

    • A.

      ELECTROMYOGRAM WITH ATOMIC DYE

    • B.

      CT SCAN

    • C.

      BONE SCAN

    Correct Answer
    C. BONE SCAN
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and the best test to detect it is a bone scan. A bone scan involves injecting a small amount of radioactive material into the bloodstream, which then accumulates in areas of the bone that are actively undergoing repair or inflammation. By using a special camera to detect the radiation, areas of increased activity can be identified, indicating the presence of osteomyelitis. An electromyogram with atomic dye is not a suitable test for detecting osteomyelitis, as it is used to evaluate muscle and nerve function. A CT scan can provide detailed images of the bone, but it may not always be able to differentiate between infection and other bone abnormalities.

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  • 15. 

    IN A BONE SCAN ATOMIC DYE IS GIVEN BY IV WHEN

    • A.

      24 HOURS BEFORE PROCEDURE

    • B.

      DURING THE PROCEDURE

    • C.

      2-3 HOURS BEFORE PROCEDURE

    Correct Answer
    C. 2-3 HOURS BEFORE PROCEDURE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2-3 hours before the procedure. This is because the atomic dye needs enough time to circulate throughout the body and be absorbed by the bones before the scan takes place. Giving the dye too close to the procedure may not allow enough time for proper distribution and absorption, leading to inaccurate results. Giving the dye 24 hours before the procedure would be too far in advance and may result in the dye being cleared from the body before the scan. Giving the dye during the procedure would not allow enough time for proper distribution and absorption.

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  • 16. 

    MOST ENDOSCOPIC PROCEDURES REQUIRE PATIENT TO BE ON NPO STATUS HOW LONG BEFORE PROCEDURE

    • A.

      2-4 HOURS

    • B.

      6-12 HOURS

    • C.

      NPO NOT NEEEDED

    Correct Answer
    B. 6-12 HOURS
    Explanation
    Most endoscopic procedures require patients to be on NPO (nothing by mouth) status for 6-12 hours before the procedure. This is because the stomach needs to be empty to ensure better visualization and reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. By not eating or drinking for this period, the stomach is less likely to contain any food or liquid that could interfere with the procedure or cause complications.

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  • 17. 

    ALKALINE pHOSpHATASE LEVEL ARE ELEVATED IN

    • A.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • B.

      MI

    • C.

      GOUT

    Correct Answer
    B. MI
  • 18. 

    NONSPECIFIC TEST TO DETECT INFLAMMATION

    • A.

      ESR

    • B.

      RA

    • C.

      MCG

    Correct Answer
    A. ESR
    Explanation
    ESR stands for Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate, which is a non-specific test used to detect inflammation in the body. It measures the rate at which red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube over a certain period of time. Inflammation in the body can cause the red blood cells to clump together and settle faster, leading to an elevated ESR. While ESR is a non-specific test and cannot diagnose a specific condition, it is often used in conjunction with other tests to help diagnose and monitor inflammatory conditions such as infections, autoimmune diseases, and certain cancers.

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  • 19. 

    9.5 TO 10.5 IS A NORMAL LEVEL FOR

    • A.

      MYOGLOBIN

    • B.

      CALCIUM

    • C.

      POTASSIUM

    Correct Answer
    B. CALCIUM
    Explanation
    A normal level for calcium in the body is typically between 9.5 to 10.5. Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone health, muscle contraction, and nerve function. It is necessary for the proper functioning of the heart, muscles, and nerves. Maintaining a normal level of calcium is important for overall health and wellbeing.

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  • 20. 

    INFLAMMATION OF SYNOVIAL MEMBRANE,

    • A.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • B.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory condition that primarily affects the synovial membrane, causing inflammation. This leads to joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is a degenerative condition, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues, including the synovial membrane. This results in the inflammation and destruction of the synovial membrane, leading to the characteristic symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis.

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  • 21. 

    CARTILAGE DEGENERATION FROM NORMAL WEAR AND TEAR

    • A.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • B.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    B. OSTEOARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Osteoarthritis is the most likely explanation for the given answer. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs due to the breakdown and eventual loss of cartilage in the joints. It is commonly caused by normal wear and tear on the joints over time. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to the joints. While both conditions can lead to cartilage degeneration, osteoarthritis is more commonly associated with normal wear and tear.

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  • 22. 

    FEMALES ARE AT HIGHER RISK

    • A.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • B.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    The given answer is "RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS". Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing inflammation, pain, and stiffness. It is more common in females compared to males, making females at a higher risk. This could be due to hormonal and genetic factors, as well as differences in the immune system response. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that occurs with age and is not specifically associated with gender. Therefore, the higher risk for females mentioned in the question aligns with the characteristics of rheumatoid arthritis.

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  • 23. 

    ONLY ONE SIDE OF BODY MAYBE AFFECTED

    • A.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    • B.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. OSTEOARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that primarily affects the cartilage in the joints. It commonly occurs in older individuals and is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage, leading to pain, stiffness, and limited movement in the affected joint. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which is an autoimmune disease, osteoarthritis typically affects only one side of the body. This is because it is often caused by wear and tear or injury to a specific joint, rather than a systemic inflammatory response.

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  • 24. 

    MAINTAIN AND ENCOURAGE ACTIVITY LEVEL WITHOUT RESTRICTION

    • A.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • B.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    B. OSTEOARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Osteoarthritis is the correct answer because it is a degenerative joint disease that commonly affects older individuals. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which is an autoimmune disease, osteoarthritis is primarily caused by wear and tear on the joints over time. Maintaining and encouraging activity levels without restriction can help manage symptoms and slow down the progression of osteoarthritis. This is because regular exercise helps strengthen the muscles around the joints, improves flexibility, and reduces pain and stiffness.

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  • 25. 

    SYSTEMIC DISEASE

    • A.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    • B.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    B. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is the correct answer because it is a systemic disease that affects the joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is primarily caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the joints, causing inflammation and damage. Rheumatoid arthritis can also affect other organs and systems in the body, making it a systemic disease.

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  • 26. 

    AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE

    • A.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    • B.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    A. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease characterized by chronic inflammation of the joints. Unlike osteoarthritis, which is caused by wear and tear on the joints, rheumatoid arthritis occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues, leading to joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. This condition can affect multiple joints and may also cause fatigue, fever, and weight loss. Treatment for rheumatoid arthritis typically involves medication to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms, as well as physical therapy to improve joint function.

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  • 27. 

    COX-2 INHIBITORS (CELEBREX) USED FOR TREATMENT

    • A.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    • B.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    B. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    COX-2 inhibitors, such as Celebrex, are commonly used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation and pain in the joints. COX-2 inhibitors work by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for inflammation and pain. By inhibiting COX-2, these medications help to alleviate the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis and improve joint function. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that primarily affects the cartilage and is not typically treated with COX-2 inhibitors.

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  • 28. 

    PROVIDES RELIEF FROM RHEUMATOID PAIN

    • A.

      ICE WATER SOAKS

    • B.

      HOT WAX TREATMENTS

    • C.

      TWO OR THREE ONE HOUR EXERCISE SESSIONS A DAY

    Correct Answer
    B. HOT WAX TREATMENTS
    Explanation
    Hot wax treatments can provide relief from rheumatoid pain. The heat from the wax helps to increase blood circulation and relax the muscles and joints, reducing pain and stiffness. The wax also acts as a barrier, trapping moisture and preventing dehydration of the skin, which can be beneficial for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. Additionally, the warmth from the hot wax can help to alleviate inflammation and improve joint mobility. Therefore, hot wax treatments are a suitable option for managing rheumatoid pain.

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  • 29. 

    AKS( SPONDYLITIS) AFFECTS

    • A.

      KNEES AND ANKLES

    • B.

      HIPS AND SPINE

    • C.

      FINGERS AND TOES

    Correct Answer
    B. HIPS AND SPINE
    Explanation
    AKS (Ankylosing Spondylitis) is a type of arthritis that primarily affects the spine and the joints between the spine and the pelvis (hips). It causes inflammation, stiffness, and pain in these areas. While it can also affect other joints such as the knees, ankles, fingers, and toes, the most commonly affected areas are the hips and spine. Therefore, the correct answer is hips and spine.

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  • 30. 

    YOU ARE LIKELY TO BE AFFECTED BY AKS AT WHAT AGE

    • A.

      OVER 60

    • B.

      40-50

    • C.

      UNDER 30

    Correct Answer
    C. UNDER 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "UNDER 30". This suggests that individuals who are under the age of 30 are more likely to be affected by AKS (Age-related Keratoconus). AKS is a condition that affects the cornea, causing it to become thin and bulge outwards, resulting in distorted vision. It is commonly diagnosed during adolescence and progresses until the mid-30s. Therefore, individuals who are younger are more susceptible to developing AKS compared to those who are older.

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  • 31. 

    HEBERDENS AND BOUCHARDS NODES ARE EVIDENT IN

    • A.

      AKA

    • B.

      OSTEOARTHRITIS

    • C.

      RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

    Correct Answer
    B. OSTEOARTHRITIS
    Explanation
    Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are bony enlargements that develop on the finger joints. These nodes are characteristic features of osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint disease that primarily affects the cartilage in the joints. Osteoarthritis is caused by wear and tear on the joints over time, leading to the breakdown of cartilage and the formation of bony growths. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the synovial lining of the joints, causing inflammation and joint damage, but does not typically result in the formation of Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes.

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  • 32. 

    GOUT IS WHAT TYPE OF DIEASE

    • A.

      AUTOIMMUNE

    • B.

      METABOLIC

    • C.

      DISEASE MAINLY OF WOMEN

    Correct Answer
    B. METABOLIC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "METABOLIC" because gout is a type of metabolic disease. It is characterized by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and severe pain. Gout is caused by an overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid, which is a waste product of purine metabolism. This condition primarily affects men and is often associated with lifestyle factors such as diet, alcohol consumption, and obesity.

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  • 33. 

    GOUT IS CAUSED BY ACCUMULATION OF ________________ IN THE BLOOD

    • A.

      URIC ACID

    • B.

      URINE

    • C.

      URIC ACID ANTIBODIES

    Correct Answer
    A. URIC ACID
    Explanation
    Gout is caused by the accumulation of uric acid in the blood. When there is an excess of uric acid in the body, it can form crystals that accumulate in the joints, leading to inflammation and severe pain. This condition is known as gout. Therefore, the correct answer is uric acid.

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  • 34. 

    TOpHI IS USUALLY MANIFESTED IN THE

    • A.

      FINGERS

    • B.

      TOES

    • C.

      ALL EXTREMITIES

    Correct Answer
    B. TOES
    Explanation
    Tophi is a manifestation of gout, which is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. These crystals form when there is an excess of uric acid in the blood, and they typically accumulate in the joints of the toes. Therefore, tophi is usually manifested in the toes.

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  • 35. 

    IF USING GOUT DRUGS LIKE COLCHICINE, YOU SHOULD AVOID

    • A.

      TYLENOL

    • B.

      MORPHINE

    • C.

      ASPIRIN

    Correct Answer
    C. ASPIRIN
    Explanation
    Gout is a type of arthritis that causes sudden and severe joint pain. Colchicine is commonly used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and pain. Aspirin, on the other hand, can interfere with the effectiveness of colchicine and may increase the risk of side effects. Therefore, individuals using gout drugs like colchicine should avoid taking aspirin to ensure the proper functioning of the medication and to minimize potential complications.

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  • 36. 

    SLOWS BONE LOSS

    • A.

      MIACALIN

    • B.

      FOSMAX

    • C.

      FORTEO

    Correct Answer
    B. FOSMAX
    Explanation
    Fosamax is a medication that is commonly prescribed for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis. It belongs to a class of drugs called bisphosphonates, which work by slowing down the bone loss process. Fosamax helps to increase bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. It does this by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells responsible for breaking down bone. By slowing down bone loss, Fosamax helps to maintain and strengthen the bones, making it an effective treatment for osteoporosis.

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  • 37. 

    HELPS PREVENTS BONE LOSS AND SPINE FRACTURES

    • A.

      MIACALIN

    • B.

      FORTEO

    • C.

      EVISTA

    Correct Answer
    C. EVISTA
    Explanation
    Evista is the correct answer because it helps prevent bone loss and spine fractures. It is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). Evista works by mimicking the effects of estrogen in the body, specifically in the bones, without increasing the risk of uterine or breast cancer. It is commonly prescribed for postmenopausal women to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. By binding to estrogen receptors, Evista helps to maintain bone density and strength, reducing the likelihood of bone loss and spine fractures.

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  • 38. 

    FOSMAX SHOULD BE GIVEN

    • A.

      AM WITH 8 OUNCE OF WATER

    • B.

      PM WITH 8 OUNCE WATER

    • C.

      WITHOUT ANY FLUIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. AM WITH 8 OUNCE OF WATER
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "AM with 8 ounce of water" because Fosamax, a medication used to treat osteoporosis, should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. Taking it with water helps to ensure proper absorption of the medication and taking it on an empty stomach prevents interference with food or other medications.

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  • 39. 

    AMOUNT OF CALCIUM NEEDED BY WOMEN DAILY

    • A.

      1000 MG

    • B.

      1500MG

    • C.

      OVER 2000MG

    Correct Answer
    B. 1500MG
    Explanation
    The recommended daily amount of calcium for women is 1500MG. Calcium is an essential mineral that is important for maintaining strong bones and teeth, as well as for proper muscle and nerve function. Women have a higher risk of developing osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so they require more calcium to support bone health. Consuming an adequate amount of calcium can help prevent osteoporosis and reduce the risk of fractures. Therefore, 1500MG is the correct answer for the amount of calcium needed by women daily.

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  • 40. 

    OSTEOMYELITIS CAN BE THOUGHT OF AS

    • A.

      INFECTION OF BONE AND MARROW

    • B.

      MINERAL BASED DISEASE

    • C.

      VITAMIN BASED DISEASE

    Correct Answer
    A. INFECTION OF BONE AND MARROW
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is an infection that affects the bone and marrow. It is characterized by inflammation and destruction of the bone tissue, usually caused by bacteria or fungi. The infection can spread through the bloodstream or from nearby tissues, leading to symptoms such as pain, swelling, and fever. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and, in severe cases, surgery to remove the infected tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is "infection of bone and marrow."

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  • 41. 

    FIBROMYALGIA DOES NOT CAUSE PERMANENT DAMAGE

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain condition characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and tenderness. While it can significantly impact a person's quality of life, it does not cause permanent damage to the body. The symptoms of fibromyalgia may come and go, and although they can be severe, they do not result in any lasting structural damage to the muscles, joints, or organs. Treatment mainly focuses on managing symptoms and improving overall well-being.

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  • 42. 

    VOLKMANNS CONTRACTURE IS SEEN WHERE

    • A.

      FEET AND TOES

    • B.

      WRIST AND FINGERS

    • C.

      SPINE AND NECK

    Correct Answer
    B. WRIST AND FINGERS
    Explanation
    Volkman's contracture is a condition characterized by the permanent flexion or contraction of the wrist and fingers. It occurs as a result of the compression or damage to the blood vessels that supply the muscles in the forearm. This can happen due to trauma, such as a fracture or crush injury, or as a complication of compartment syndrome. The lack of blood supply to the muscles leads to tissue damage and subsequent contracture. Therefore, the correct answer is "WRIST AND FINGERS."

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  • 43. 

    FAT EMBOLISM IS THE MOST SERIOUS COMPLICATION OF

    • A.

      LONG BONE FRACTURE

    • B.

      GAS GANGRENE

    • C.

      NECK FRACTURES

    Correct Answer
    A. LONG BONE FRACTURE
    Explanation
    Fat embolism is a serious complication that can occur as a result of long bone fractures. When a long bone is fractured, fat from the bone marrow can enter the bloodstream and travel to other organs, such as the lungs, brain, or heart, causing blockages and impairing their function. This can lead to respiratory distress, neurological symptoms, and even death. While gas gangrene and neck fractures can also have serious complications, fat embolism is specifically associated with long bone fractures.

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  • 44. 

    VERTEBRAE SURGERY  PATIENTS BED POSITION SHOULD BE

    • A.

      LESS THAN 30%

    • B.

      UPRIGHT AS POSSIBLE

    • C.

      CHANGE FROM HIGH TO FLAT EVERY 30 MINUTES

    Correct Answer
    A. LESS THAN 30%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "LESS THAN 30%". This means that the patient's bed position should be tilted at an angle of less than 30 degrees. This is important for patients undergoing vertebral surgery as it helps to reduce the risk of complications such as pressure ulcers and respiratory problems. Tilting the bed at an angle less than 30% ensures that the patient's spine is properly aligned and reduces the pressure on the surgical site. It also helps to promote proper blood flow and oxygenation to the tissues, aiding in the healing process.

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  • 45. 

    BONES SERVE AS STORAGE FOR WHAT TWO MAIN MINERALS

    • A.

      CALCIUM AND IRON

    • B.

      CALCIUM AND PHOS

    • C.

      CALCIUM AND POTASSIUM

    Correct Answer
    B. CALCIUM AND PHOS
    Explanation
    Bones serve as storage for two main minerals, calcium and phosphorus. Calcium is essential for building and maintaining strong bones, while phosphorus plays a crucial role in bone formation and repair. These minerals are stored in the bone matrix and released into the bloodstream as needed to maintain the body's calcium and phosphorus levels.

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  • 46. 

    HEMATOPOIESIS OCCURS WHERE

    • A.

      YELLOW MARROW

    • B.

      RED MARROW

    • C.

      SPLEEN AND RED MARROW

    Correct Answer
    B. RED MARROW
    Explanation
    Hematopoiesis refers to the process of formation and development of blood cells. It primarily occurs in the red marrow of bones, specifically in the spongy bone tissue. Red marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, consists mainly of fat cells and does not actively participate in hematopoiesis. While the spleen does play a role in the destruction and recycling of old blood cells, it is not a primary site for hematopoiesis. Therefore, the correct answer is red marrow.

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  • 47. 

    TEST TO HELP CONFIRM RA

    • A.

      PTT

    • B.

      INR

    • C.

      ESR

    Correct Answer
    C. ESR
    Explanation
    ESR stands for erythrocyte sedimentation rate. It is a test used to measure the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. This test is commonly used to help diagnose and monitor the presence and severity of inflammation in the body. An elevated ESR can indicate the presence of various inflammatory conditions, such as infections, autoimmune diseases, and certain types of cancer. Therefore, in the context of the given question, the ESR test would be helpful in confirming the presence of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), which is an inflammatory autoimmune disease affecting the joints.

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  • 48. 

    GOUT INDICATOR

    • A.

      HEBERDENS NODES

    • B.

      HOMANS SIGN

    • C.

      TOPHI

    Correct Answer
    C. TOPHI
    Explanation
    Tophi are a characteristic feature of gout, a type of arthritis. They are deposits of uric acid crystals that form under the skin, typically around joints. These tophi can cause pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area. Therefore, the presence of tophi serves as an indicator or a sign of gout. Heberden's nodes, on the other hand, are bony growths that develop on the joints of fingers and are associated with osteoarthritis. Homans sign is a clinical test used to assess for deep vein thrombosis.

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  • 49. 

    AFTER A FOREARM FRACTURE, COMPLAINTS OF SHARP,DEEP,UNRELENTING PAIN IN THE HAND NOT HELPED BY PAIN MEDICATION MAY INDICATE

    • A.

      FAT EMBOLISM

    • B.

      GANGRENE

    • C.

      COMPARTMENT SYNDROME

    Correct Answer
    C. COMPARTMENT SYNDROME
    Explanation
    After a forearm fracture, complaints of sharp, deep, unrelenting pain in the hand not helped by pain medication may indicate compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome occurs when there is increased pressure within a closed space, such as the compartments in the hand, leading to compromised blood flow and tissue damage. The pain in compartment syndrome is often severe and not relieved by pain medication. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications.

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  • 50. 

    AFTER A FRACTURE OF THE FEMUR 48 HOURS AGO THE NURSE NOTICES PETECHIAE ON THE CHEST,NECK AND CONJUNCTIVA, SHE SUSPECTS

    • A.

      FAT EMBOLISM

    • B.

      DVT

    • C.

      DEVELOPING G AS GANGRENE

    Correct Answer
    A. FAT EMBOLISM
    Explanation
    The presence of petechiae on the chest, neck, and conjunctiva after a fracture of the femur 48 hours ago suggests a fat embolism. Fat embolism occurs when fat globules from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and travel to various organs, causing microvascular occlusion and tissue damage. The petechiae are a result of small blood vessel rupture due to the occlusion. This is a known complication of long bone fractures, particularly in the femur. DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and developing gas gangrene are less likely to present with petechiae in this context.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 28, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Billbowman57
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