Z3dx5x Vol 1

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Z3dx5x Vol 1 - Quiz

Z3DX5X VOL 1 EDIT 02


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with RF technology to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.

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  • 2. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This includes the wiring needed to support both fixed and deployed operations. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not specifically involve the installation and maintenance of network wiring, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 3. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • A.

      Core task.

    • B.

      Duty competency.

    • C.

      Core competency.

    • D.

      Duty position task.

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task.
    Explanation
    According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the duty position tasks to the trainees. These tasks are specific to the trainee's assigned duty position and are designed to develop the necessary skills and knowledge required for that position. Core tasks, duty competency, and core competency are not mentioned in relation to the supervisor's assignment of training elements. Therefore, the correct answer is duty position task.

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  • 4. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is responsible for advising on all matters that affect the career field. They oversee the development and implementation of policies and procedures that impact career field personnel. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers (UTMs), base functional managers (BFMs), and major command functional managers (MFM) to ensure that career field personnel receive the necessary training and support for their career progression.

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  • 5. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exceptions or waivers based on specific circumstances or individual needs. The AFCFM's role is to ensure that the career field's training and development requirements are met while also considering the unique situations of personnel within the career field.

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  • 6. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    Explanation
    The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which are focused on utilizing and training personnel in a specific career field. The MFM would have a deep understanding of the career field and the requirements of the MAJCOM, making them the appropriate choice for this role.

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  • 7. 

    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    Explanation
    The Major command functional manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). They have the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are well-versed in the specific subject matter and can contribute to the development of these tests and courses. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the content of the SKT and CDC is accurate and up-to-date, thereby supporting the career development of individuals in the Air Force.

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  • 8. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM).
    Explanation
    The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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  • 9. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • A.

      Modify local training.

    • B.

      Allocate manpower.

    • C.

      Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

    • D.

      Assist the unit training manager in course development.

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks performed within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides training and guidance to individuals in that particular occupation. The CDC helps individuals enhance their skills and knowledge in their field, leading to career growth and development. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys as it helps in creating targeted training programs for specific occupations.

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  • 10. 

    What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Conduct climate training surveys.

    • B.

      Develop Career Development Courses.

    • C.

      Review the occupational analysis report.

    • D.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is important for providing structured and comprehensive training to individuals in a specific career field. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to ensure that the training and education provided align with the needs and requirements of the career field, ultimately enhancing the skills and capabilities of the workforce.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

    • A.

      Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • B.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.

    • C.

      MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).

    • D.

      AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM, who manages the training pipeline, to determine the scheduling of the STRT. They collaborate to ensure that the training requirements for the specialty are met efficiently and effectively.

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  • 12. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

    • C.

      On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

    • D.

      Occupational Analysis Program.

    Correct Answer
    C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
    Explanation
    The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining practical experience and on-the-job training. It is a hands-on approach to learning and helps individuals to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge needed to excel in their chosen field.

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  • 13. 

    Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • A.

      Quality Assessments.

    • B.

      Quality Assurance.

    • C.

      Quality System.

    • D.

      Trend Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, Quality Assurance itself is not an essential element. Quality Assurance refers to the process of ensuring that the quality standards and requirements are met. However, in a QA program, other elements such as Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential. Quality Assessments involve evaluating and measuring the quality of products or services. Quality System refers to the framework and processes in place to ensure quality. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data and patterns to identify areas for improvement in quality.

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  • 14. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • A.

      Technical Evaluation.

    • B.

      Personnel Evaluation.

    • C.

      Managerial Evaluation.

    • D.

      Standard Evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard Evaluation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Standard Evaluation." In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on evaluating the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation assesses the skills and performance of the personnel involved in the program. Managerial Evaluation evaluates the managerial aspects and effectiveness of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program, as it does not refer to a particular aspect or area of evaluation.

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  • 15. 

    Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • A.

      Trend analysis.

    • B.

      Quality System.

    • C.

      Quality Assessments.

    • D.

      Managerial Assessments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend analysis.
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for informed decision-making and continuous improvement. Quality System refers to the overall framework and processes in place for quality assurance, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are specific evaluation methods used within QA but do not encompass the full scope of data collection and analysis like trend analysis does.

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  • 16. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • A.

      Management Inspection (MI).

    • B.

      Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

    • C.

      Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).

    • D.

      Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
    Explanation
    Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit in achieving its mission and objectives, including its compliance with regulations and standards, readiness levels, and the ability to meet operational requirements. It provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness in achieving its goals.

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  • 17. 

    What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • A.

      Remedy.

    • B.

      Training Business Area.

    • C.

      Telephone Management System.

    • D.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy.
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets, starting from procurement and continuing through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, and maintenance of IT assets, ensuring that they are utilized effectively and retired properly when they reach the end of their lifecycle.

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  • 18. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Title 10

    • B.

      Title 18

    • C.

      Title 32

    • D.

      Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, roles, and responsibilities of the DOD and its components, providing the legal framework for the defense and security of the United States.

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  • 19. 

    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • A.

      Title 3.

    • B.

      Title 8.

    • C.

      Title 10.

    • D.

      Title 18.

    Correct Answer
    C. Title 10.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically addresses the organization, structure, and administration of the military, and it includes provisions for military justice. The UCMJ is the legal foundation for the military justice system in the United States, outlining the rights and responsibilities of military personnel and establishing the offenses and punishments that can be imposed on them.

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  • 20. 

    What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

    • A.

      National Military Cyberspace Strategy.

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.

    • D.

      National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    Correct Answer
    B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    Explanation
    The document that spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace is the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

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  • 21. 

    Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

    • A.

      National Security Policy.

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C.

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

    Correct Answer
    B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    Explanation
    The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyber infrastructure and ensuring its resilience against cyber threats. It aims to enhance cybersecurity capabilities, promote public-private partnerships, and establish a framework for coordinated response to cyber incidents.

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  • 22. 

    What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

    • A.

      National Security Policy.

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C.

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
    Explanation
    The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to ensure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on leveraging cyberspace capabilities to protect and defend US military networks, systems, and information, as well as to conduct offensive cyber operations when necessary. It provides guidance and direction for the integration of cyberspace operations into overall military planning and operations, emphasizing the importance of cyberspace as a critical domain for national security.

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  • 23. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • A.

      Title 10.

    • B.

      Title 30.

    • C.

      Title 50.

    • D.

      Title 52.

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10.
    Explanation
    When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are in a state active duty status, primarily for training purposes. However, to execute cyber operations, they must be in Title 10 status. Title 10 status refers to federal active duty status, which allows them to carry out military missions, including cyber operations.

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  • 24. 

    An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

    • A.

      Misuse of position.

    • B.

      Covered relationships.

    • C.

      Non-public information.

    • D.

      Personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    B. Covered relationships.
    Explanation
    Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where there is an employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a conflict of interest due to personal relationships, such as family members or close friends, which can compromise the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid covered relationships in order to maintain a professional and unbiased work environment.

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  • 25. 

    Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

    • A.

      Misuse of position.

    • B.

      Covered relationship.

    • C.

      Personal conflict of interest.

    • D.

      None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Covered relationship.
    Explanation
    A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of authority or influence over them, such as a supervisor or manager. In this case, the question suggests that members of a household or relatives fall under this category, indicating a potential conflict of interest or unethical situation due to the personal relationship influencing decisions or actions in a biased manner.

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  • 26. 

    What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

    • A.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • D.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This is because the question is asking about a cyberspace weapon system that includes specific functions such as the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC). The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System is the only option that mentions these specific functions, making it the correct answer.

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  • 27. 

    What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer, Air Force Cyber Security and Control System, is the result of an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). This system aims to enhance the security and control of the Air Force's cyberspace operations by centralizing management and providing a comprehensive defense against cyber threats.

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  • 28. 

    What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the correct answer because it is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, which is the internal network used by Air Force personnel for communication and information sharing. It ensures that only authorized users can access the network and protects against cyber threats and attacks.

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  • 29. 

    Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

    • A.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • C.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • D.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
    Explanation
    Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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  • 30. 

    What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide command and control capabilities in cyberspace, enabling the Air Force to effectively manage and defend its networks and information systems. It allows for the coordination and execution of cyber operations, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of critical information, and supporting the overall mission of the Air Force in cyberspace.

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  • 31. 

    What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • A.

      Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • C.

      Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in critical mission networks and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the cyberspace domain, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate any potential threats or attacks.

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  • 32. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • B.

      Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • C.

      Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
  • 33. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

    • A.

      Active and reactive.

    • B.

      Evasive and decisive.

    • C.

      Subversive and divisive.

    • D.

      Offensive and defensive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive.
    Explanation
    Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing of network activities to detect and respond to any unauthorized access or ongoing intrusion attempts. Active defense focuses on actively countering and disrupting the adversary's actions, while reactive defense involves responding to and mitigating the effects of an intrusion. These two defenses work together to actively defend against and react to cyber threats, ensuring the security and integrity of the network.

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  • 34. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • A.

      Counterintelligence (CI).

    • B.

      Operation Security (OPSEC).

    • C.

      Military deception (MILDEC)

    • D.

      Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

    Correct Answer
    C. Military deception (MILDEC)
    Explanation
    MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, actions, and perceptions. It involves creating false or misleading information to deceive the adversary and gain a tactical advantage. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, their activities are focused on providing accurate and truthful information to the public and building relationships. In contrast, MILDEC is specifically aimed at misleading the enemy, making it the activity from the given options that aligns with the question.

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  • 35. 

    What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

    • A.

      Strategic Considerations.

    • B.

      Military Strategic Framework.

    • C.

      Implementation and Assessment.

    • D.

      Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides a framework and direction for the Department of Defense to plan and execute its cyber operations, ensuring the security of cyberspace. It outlines the strategic objectives, priorities, and resources required to achieve the desired outcomes in cyberspace. This document plays a crucial role in shaping the military's approach to cybersecurity and guides the development of the National Military Strategic Plan.

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  • 36. 

    Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

    • A.

      Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

    • B.

      Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

    • C.

      National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

    • D.

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information on demand to warfighters, policy makers, and support personnel. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of this infrastructure, making it the correct answer.

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  • 37. 

    What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • A.

      644th Combat Communication Squadron.

    • B.

      85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

    • C.

      83th Network Operations Squadron.

    • D.

      4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

    Correct Answer
    B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
    Explanation
    The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (command, control, communications, and computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication systems are in place for effective military operations.

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  • 38. 

    Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D.

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and enhance the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is focused on streamlining processes and providing efficient and effective services to the warfighters, allowing them to focus more on their operational duties rather than extensive training requirements. By doing so, the ESU can contribute to increasing the overall capacity and readiness of the warfighters in the Air Force.

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  • 39. 

    What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D.

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Area Processing Center (APC).
    Explanation
    An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. This means that the APC is responsible for managing and providing these services to businesses or organizations within a specific geographic area. The other options, Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Network Operations Security Center (NOSC), do not specifically mention providing these types of services, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 40. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • A.

      Manpower.

    • B.

      Efficiency.

    • C.

      Reduce costs.

    • D.

      Department of Defense 8570 mandate

    Correct Answer
    B. Efficiency.
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers and creating a centralized service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and coordination. This can lead to faster and more effective resolution of network issues, improved customer service, and overall increased efficiency in managing and supporting network operations.

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  • 41. 

    What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

    • A.

      2009.

    • B.

      2010.

    • C.

      2011.

    • D.

      2012.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2010.
    Explanation
    In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that starting from 2010, the Air Force had a unified and centralized system for handling support requests across all locations.

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  • 42. 

    What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

    • A.

      Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

    • B.

      Unified command and subordinate unified command.

    • C.

      Functional command and geographical command.

    • D.

      Unified command and functional command.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unified command and subordinate unified command.
    Explanation
    Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and control of the JTF, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational aspects and reports to the unified command. This division ensures effective command and control within the JTF, allowing for efficient execution of tasks and missions.

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  • 43. 

    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

    • A.

      Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

    • B.

      Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

    • C.

      Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

    • D.

      Joint Force Commander (JFC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Joint Force Commander (JFC).
    Explanation
    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint operations, coordinating the efforts of multiple services and components. The COMAFFOR serves as the air component commander within the joint force, working under the direction of the JFC to provide air and space capabilities in support of the mission.

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  • 44. 

    What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

    • A.

      Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

    • B.

      Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

    • C.

      Unit type codes (UTC)

    • D.

      Stratum levels (SL).

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a rotational cycle, ensuring that the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders when and where they are needed. The AEF system allows for predictability and stability in force presentation, ensuring that the Air Force can maintain readiness and effectively respond to global requirements.

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  • 45. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • A.

      Coding.

    • B.

      Positioning.

    • C.

      Tempo bands.

    • D.

      Unit type code.

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit type code.
    Explanation
    Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that identify the type of unit, its capabilities, and its composition. They are used to categorize and organize units for operational purposes, ensuring that the right units with the right capabilities are deployed in the right locations. Unit type codes help to streamline and coordinate the deployment process, enabling efficient and effective joint force operations.

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  • 46. 

    Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

    • A.

      Service Transition.

    • B.

      Service Strategy.

    • C.

      Service Contact

    • D.

      Service Design

    Correct Answer
    C. Service Contact
  • 47. 

    What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

    • A.

      A rewriting of the main point.

    • B.

      A well-written summary

    • C.

      A postscript message.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. A well-written summary
    Explanation
    A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear statement that captures the essence of the message. This demonstrates your comprehension of the content and your ability to effectively communicate it to others. A rewriting of the main point and a postscript message do not necessarily require the same level of understanding and re-statement as a well-written summary. Therefore, the correct answer is a well-written summary.

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  • 48. 

    What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • A.

      Continual Service Improvement.

    • B.

      Service Transition.

    • C.

      Service Strategy.

    • D.

      Service Design.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement.
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the stage in the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) framework that focuses on maintaining and enhancing the quality of services. It involves constantly reviewing and analyzing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to ensure that the services meet the needs of the business and its customers. CSI is an ongoing process that helps organizations to adapt and evolve their IT services to meet changing requirements and deliver value to the business.

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  • 49. 

    The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

    • A.

      Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment

    • B.

      Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • C.

      Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

    • D.

      Improve the efficiency of the mission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
    Explanation
    The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to facilitate the effective and efficient utilization of information across the entire organization. By exploiting information, organizations can derive valuable insights, make informed decisions, and drive innovation. EIM tools help in managing and leveraging data assets, enabling users to access, analyze, and utilize information effectively to achieve organizational goals and improve overall performance.

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  • 50. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • A.

      Article 32.

    • B.

      Article 40.

    • C.

      Article 92.

    • D.

      Article 100.

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 92.
    Explanation
    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, and encompasses any willful disobedience or neglect of duty. In this case, not following the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a failure to obey regulations, thus falling under Article 92.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 06, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Dinstaar2a6x2
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