Z3dx5x Vol 1

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| By Dinstaar2a6x2
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1. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. As they are not yet finalized, they can be modified or edited as needed. However, since they are not officially released, they may not be accessible or available to the public or other parties until they are finalized and officially released.

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About This Quiz
Z3dx5x Vol 1 - Quiz

The Z3DX5X VOL 1 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty Skills, focusing on responsibilities like RF transmission, cable systems, and satellite devices. It evaluates understanding of career... see morefield management and training regulations, crucial for Air Force personnel. see less

2. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear statement that captures the essence of the message. This demonstrates your comprehension of the content and your ability to effectively communicate it to others. A rewriting of the main point and a postscript message do not necessarily require the same level of understanding and re-statement as a well-written summary. Therefore, the correct answer is a well-written summary.

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3. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information on demand to warfighters, policy makers, and support personnel. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of this infrastructure, making it the correct answer.

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4. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically addresses the organization, structure, and administration of the military, and it includes provisions for military justice. The UCMJ is the legal foundation for the military justice system in the United States, outlining the rights and responsibilities of military personnel and establishing the offenses and punishments that can be imposed on them.

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5. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with RF technology to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.

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6. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This includes the wiring needed to support both fixed and deployed operations. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not specifically involve the installation and maintenance of network wiring, making them incorrect answers.

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7. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers and creating a centralized service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and coordination. This can lead to faster and more effective resolution of network issues, improved customer service, and overall increased efficiency in managing and supporting network operations.

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8. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that is responsible for managing the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of creating, distributing, and updating technical orders, ensuring that the most current and accurate information is readily available to those who need it. ETIMS helps to improve efficiency and reduce errors in the distribution and printing of paper technical orders.

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9. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government as part of their official functions. Official government records typically include documents that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties, such as policies, reports, and correspondence. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can all be considered official government records as they are directly related to government activities and functions.

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10. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, roles, and responsibilities of the DOD and its components, providing the legal framework for the defense and security of the United States.

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11. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are in a state active duty status, primarily for training purposes. However, to execute cyber operations, they must be in Title 10 status. Title 10 status refers to federal active duty status, which allows them to carry out military missions, including cyber operations.

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12. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets, starting from procurement and continuing through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, and maintenance of IT assets, ensuring that they are utilized effectively and retired properly when they reach the end of their lifecycle.

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13. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing of network activities to detect and respond to any unauthorized access or ongoing intrusion attempts. Active defense focuses on actively countering and disrupting the adversary's actions, while reactive defense involves responding to and mitigating the effects of an intrusion. These two defenses work together to actively defend against and react to cyber threats, ensuring the security and integrity of the network.

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14. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks performed within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides training and guidance to individuals in that particular occupation. The CDC helps individuals enhance their skills and knowledge in their field, leading to career growth and development. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys as it helps in creating targeted training programs for specific occupations.

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15. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that identify the type of unit, its capabilities, and its composition. They are used to categorize and organize units for operational purposes, ensuring that the right units with the right capabilities are deployed in the right locations. Unit type codes help to streamline and coordinate the deployment process, enabling efficient and effective joint force operations.

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16. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, actions, and perceptions. It involves creating false or misleading information to deceive the adversary and gain a tactical advantage. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, their activities are focused on providing accurate and truthful information to the public and building relationships. In contrast, MILDEC is specifically aimed at misleading the enemy, making it the activity from the given options that aligns with the question.

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17. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for informed decision-making and continuous improvement. Quality System refers to the overall framework and processes in place for quality assurance, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are specific evaluation methods used within QA but do not encompass the full scope of data collection and analysis like trend analysis does.

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18. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit in achieving its mission and objectives, including its compliance with regulations and standards, readiness levels, and the ability to meet operational requirements. It provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness in achieving its goals.

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19. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

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20. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is responsible for advising on all matters that affect the career field. They oversee the development and implementation of policies and procedures that impact career field personnel. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers (UTMs), base functional managers (BFMs), and major command functional managers (MFM) to ensure that career field personnel receive the necessary training and support for their career progression.

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21. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, and encompasses any willful disobedience or neglect of duty. In this case, not following the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a failure to obey regulations, thus falling under Article 92.

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22. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is appointed by the President and is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department's operations and policies. The Deputy Secretary plays a crucial role in decision-making processes and acts as a key advisor to the Secretary of Defense.

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23. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where there is an employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a conflict of interest due to personal relationships, such as family members or close friends, which can compromise the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid covered relationships in order to maintain a professional and unbiased work environment.

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24. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is important for providing structured and comprehensive training to individuals in a specific career field. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to ensure that the training and education provided align with the needs and requirements of the career field, ultimately enhancing the skills and capabilities of the workforce.

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25. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining practical experience and on-the-job training. It is a hands-on approach to learning and helps individuals to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge needed to excel in their chosen field.

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26. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Standard Evaluation." In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on evaluating the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation assesses the skills and performance of the personnel involved in the program. Managerial Evaluation evaluates the managerial aspects and effectiveness of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program, as it does not refer to a particular aspect or area of evaluation.

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27. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of authority or influence over them, such as a supervisor or manager. In this case, the question suggests that members of a household or relatives fall under this category, indicating a potential conflict of interest or unethical situation due to the personal relationship influencing decisions or actions in a biased manner.

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28. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (command, control, communications, and computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication systems are in place for effective military operations.

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29. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that starting from 2010, the Air Force had a unified and centralized system for handling support requests across all locations.

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30. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint operations, coordinating the efforts of multiple services and components. The COMAFFOR serves as the air component commander within the joint force, working under the direction of the JFC to provide air and space capabilities in support of the mission.

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31. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question asks about the number of rules, and the correct answer states that there are six rules.

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32. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for the certification and management of the DOD workforce that performs IA functions. It ensures that personnel are trained and knowledgeable in IA principles and practices to protect DOD information systems and networks.

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33. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in critical mission networks and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the cyberspace domain, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate any potential threats or attacks.

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34. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This is because the question asks for the option that does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, all describe information that would be outlined in TO 00-5-1. However, TCTO procedures are not specifically mentioned as part of the information outlined in TO 00-5-1.

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35. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the duty position tasks to the trainees. These tasks are specific to the trainee's assigned duty position and are designed to develop the necessary skills and knowledge required for that position. Core tasks, duty competency, and core competency are not mentioned in relation to the supervisor's assignment of training elements. Therefore, the correct answer is duty position task.

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36. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and control of the JTF, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational aspects and reports to the unified command. This division ensures effective command and control within the JTF, allowing for efficient execution of tasks and missions.

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37. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA) develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

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38. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, Quality Assurance itself is not an essential element. Quality Assurance refers to the process of ensuring that the quality standards and requirements are met. However, in a QA program, other elements such as Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential. Quality Assessments involve evaluating and measuring the quality of products or services. Quality System refers to the framework and processes in place to ensure quality. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data and patterns to identify areas for improvement in quality.

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39. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

The keystone document for the communications-system series of publications is JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

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40. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the stage in the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) framework that focuses on maintaining and enhancing the quality of services. It involves constantly reviewing and analyzing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to ensure that the services meet the needs of the business and its customers. CSI is an ongoing process that helps organizations to adapt and evolve their IT services to meet changing requirements and deliver value to the business.

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41. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and recommendations without imposing specific requirements or directions. They allow flexibility and adaptability in their implementation, enabling individuals to tailor the guidance to suit the specific situation at hand.

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42. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics related to basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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43. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exceptions or waivers based on specific circumstances or individual needs. The AFCFM's role is to ensure that the career field's training and development requirements are met while also considering the unique situations of personnel within the career field.

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44. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which are focused on utilizing and training personnel in a specific career field. The MFM would have a deep understanding of the career field and the requirements of the MAJCOM, making them the appropriate choice for this role.

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45. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

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46. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides a framework and direction for the Department of Defense to plan and execute its cyber operations, ensuring the security of cyberspace. It outlines the strategic objectives, priorities, and resources required to achieve the desired outcomes in cyberspace. This document plays a crucial role in shaping the military's approach to cybersecurity and guides the development of the National Military Strategic Plan.

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47. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that the necessary technical orders are available to personnel who need them and manage the distribution process to ensure efficiency and accuracy. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that technical information and instructions are readily accessible to support operations and maintenance activities within the organization.

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48. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

AF Handbooks (AFH) are a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. AF Handbooks are typically comprehensive and provide detailed guidance and information on specific topics. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlets, and AF Visual Aids, which may be updated more frequently to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, AF Handbooks are designed to provide more enduring guidance and are not expected to undergo frequent revisions. Therefore, AF Handbook (AFH) is the correct answer.

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49. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-322. This Air Force Instruction defines an "official government record." It likely outlines the criteria and guidelines for determining what constitutes an official government record within the Air Force. This instruction is important for ensuring proper record-keeping and management within the organization.

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50. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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51. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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52. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

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53. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server. These capabilities allow users to automate and streamline business processes within their organization. By utilizing workflows, users can create and manage tasks, track progress, and improve collaboration and efficiency.

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54. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establish the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the operations and governance of these entities within the Department of Defense.

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55. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the correct answer because it is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, which is the internal network used by Air Force personnel for communication and information sharing. It ensures that only authorized users can access the network and protects against cyber threats and attacks.

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56. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The document that spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace is the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

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57. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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58. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to facilitate the effective and efficient utilization of information across the entire organization. By exploiting information, organizations can derive valuable insights, make informed decisions, and drive innovation. EIM tools help in managing and leveraging data assets, enabling users to access, analyze, and utilize information effectively to achieve organizational goals and improve overall performance.

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59. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information for Air Force personnel, outlining the specific procedures and requirements they must follow in various operational and administrative areas. AFIs are designed to ensure consistency and standardization across the Air Force and help personnel understand and comply with established policies and regulations. Thus, AFI is the correct answer as it best aligns with the purpose and function of directive publications in the Air Force.

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60. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and enhance the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is focused on streamlining processes and providing efficient and effective services to the warfighters, allowing them to focus more on their operational duties rather than extensive training requirements. By doing so, the ESU can contribute to increasing the overall capacity and readiness of the warfighters in the Air Force.

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61. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD). AFMD is a directive publication that outlines the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. It provides guidance and instructions on how these entities should operate and fulfill their roles within the Air Force.

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62. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to ensure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on leveraging cyberspace capabilities to protect and defend US military networks, systems, and information, as well as to conduct offensive cyber operations when necessary. It provides guidance and direction for the integration of cyberspace operations into overall military planning and operations, emphasizing the importance of cyberspace as a critical domain for national security.

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63. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyber infrastructure and ensuring its resilience against cyber threats. It aims to enhance cybersecurity capabilities, promote public-private partnerships, and establish a framework for coordinated response to cyber incidents.

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64. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within an organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine who is best suited to fulfill the role of a record custodian and ensure that records are properly maintained and accessible. The other options, such as the Base records manager, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have some authority over records management within their respective areas, but the ultimate authority lies with the Chief of the Office of Records.

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65. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. This means that the APC is responsible for managing and providing these services to businesses or organizations within a specific geographic area. The other options, Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Network Operations Security Center (NOSC), do not specifically mention providing these types of services, making them incorrect choices.

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66. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM, who manages the training pipeline, to determine the scheduling of the STRT. They collaborate to ensure that the training requirements for the specialty are met efficiently and effectively.

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67. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a rotational cycle, ensuring that the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders when and where they are needed. The AEF system allows for predictability and stability in force presentation, ensuring that the Air Force can maintain readiness and effectively respond to global requirements.

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68. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. These directives provide clear and specific guidance for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure consistency and adherence to established policies and procedures. They serve as a means of communicating the SECAF's intent and expectations to the entire Air Force community, ensuring unity of effort and effective execution of the Air Force mission.

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69. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by a base records manager. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records at a specific military base or facility. They ensure that records are properly maintained, accessible, and secure. The other options, such as the Chief of Office of Records, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have different responsibilities and roles within the records management system, but they do not specifically include the duties mentioned in the question.

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70. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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71. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). They have the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are well-versed in the specific subject matter and can contribute to the development of these tests and courses. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the content of the SKT and CDC is accurate and up-to-date, thereby supporting the career development of individuals in the Air Force.

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72. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies regarding records management. They work closely with other records managers and staff to ensure the proper handling, storage, and disposal of records, as well as the implementation of effective records management practices.

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73. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide command and control capabilities in cyberspace, enabling the Air Force to effectively manage and defend its networks and information systems. It allows for the coordination and execution of cyber operations, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of critical information, and supporting the overall mission of the Air Force in cyberspace.

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74. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively carry out their duties. The command records manager is in a position of authority and has the expertise to develop and implement training programs that meet the specific needs of the organization. They play a crucial role in ensuring that base records managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their responsibilities.

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75. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for managing and distributing technical orders. They have the authority to post updates and revisions to ensure that users have access to the most current and accurate information.

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76. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This is because the question is asking about a cyberspace weapon system that includes specific functions such as the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC). The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System is the only option that mentions these specific functions, making it the correct answer.

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77. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The correct answer, Air Force Cyber Security and Control System, is the result of an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). This system aims to enhance the security and control of the Air Force's cyberspace operations by centralizing management and providing a comprehensive defense against cyber threats.

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