Z3dx5x Vol 1

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| By Dinstaar2a6x2

Dinstaar2a6x2

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 6,724

| Attempts: 6,506

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1/77 Questions

Records that are considered to be in draft format
- Can be altered and are not officially released.
- Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- Officially signed and officially released.

About This Quiz

The Z3DX5X VOL 1 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty Skills, focusing on responsibilities like RF transmission, cable systems, and satellite devices. It evaluates understanding of career field management and training regulations, crucial for Air Force personnel.

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2.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- Spectrum Operations.
- Ground Radar Systems.
- Cable and Antenna Systems.
- Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with RF technology to ensure effective communication and transmission of signals.

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1
3.

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- Spectrum Operations.
- Ground Radar Systems.
- Cable and Antenna Systems.
- Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. Cable and Antenna Systems.

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This includes the wiring needed to support both fixed and deployed operations. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not specifically involve the installation and maintenance of network wiring, making them incorrect answers.

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2
4.

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- Title 3.
- Title 8.
- Title 10.
- Title 18.
Correct Answer

A. Title 10.

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically addresses the organization, structure, and administration of the military, and it includes provisions for military justice. The UCMJ is the legal foundation for the military justice system in the United States, outlining the rights and responsibilities of military personnel and establishing the offenses and punishments that can be imposed on them.

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2
5.

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
- Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer

A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information on demand to warfighters, policy makers, and support personnel. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and effectiveness of this infrastructure, making it the correct answer.

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1
6.

What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
- A rewriting of the main point.
- A well-written summary
- A postscript message.
- None of the above.
Correct Answer

A. A well-written summary

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear statement that captures the essence of the message. This demonstrates your comprehension of the content and your ability to effectively communicate it to others. A rewriting of the main point and a postscript message do not necessarily require the same level of understanding and re-statement as a well-written summary. Therefore, the correct answer is a well-written summary.

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2
7.

What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- Remedy.
- Training Business Area.
- Telephone Management System.
- Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer

A. Remedy.

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets, starting from procurement and continuing through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. It allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, and maintenance of IT assets, ensuring that they are utilized effectively and retired properly when they reach the end of their lifecycle.

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2
8.

What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- Title 10
- Title 18
- Title 32
- Title 50
Correct Answer

A. Title 10

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, roles, and responsibilities of the DOD and its components, providing the legal framework for the defense and security of the United States.

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2
9.

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- Title 10.
- Title 30.
- Title 50.
- Title 52.
Correct Answer

A. Title 10.

Explanation

When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are in a state active duty status, primarily for training purposes. However, to execute cyber operations, they must be in Title 10 status. Title 10 status refers to federal active duty status, which allows them to carry out military missions, including cyber operations.

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1
10.

What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- Manpower.
- Efficiency.
- Reduce costs.
- Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer

A. Efficiency.

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers and creating a centralized service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and coordination. This can lead to faster and more effective resolution of network issues, improved customer service, and overall increased efficiency in managing and supporting network operations.

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1
11.

Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
- Published doctrines.
- Geographical base maps.
- Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
- Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer

A. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government as part of their official functions. Official government records typically include documents that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties, such as policies, reports, and correspondence. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can all be considered official government records as they are directly related to government activities and functions.

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1
12.

What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
- Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
- Office Automation System (OAS).
- Decision Support System (DSS)
- Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer

A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that is responsible for managing the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of creating, distributing, and updating technical orders, ensuring that the most current and accurate information is readily available to those who need it. ETIMS helps to improve efficiency and reduce errors in the distribution and printing of paper technical orders.

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2
13.

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- Unit training manager (UTM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is responsible for advising on all matters that affect the career field. They oversee the development and implementation of policies and procedures that impact career field personnel. The AFCFM works closely with unit training managers (UTMs), base functional managers (BFMs), and major command functional managers (MFM) to ensure that career field personnel receive the necessary training and support for their career progression.

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1
14.

Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- Modify local training.
- Allocate manpower.
- Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
- Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer

A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks performed within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) that provides training and guidance to individuals in that particular occupation. The CDC helps individuals enhance their skills and knowledge in their field, leading to career growth and development. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys as it helps in creating targeted training programs for specific occupations.

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15.

Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- Trend analysis.
- Quality System.
- Quality Assessments.
- Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer

A. Trend analysis.

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for informed decision-making and continuous improvement. Quality System refers to the overall framework and processes in place for quality assurance, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are specific evaluation methods used within QA but do not encompass the full scope of data collection and analysis like trend analysis does.

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16.

What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- Management Inspection (MI).
- Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
- Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
- Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer

A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

Explanation

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the overall effectiveness of a unit in achieving its mission and objectives, including its compliance with regulations and standards, readiness levels, and the ability to meet operational requirements. It provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness in achieving its goals.

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17.

What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
18.

What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- Active and reactive.
- Evasive and decisive.
- Subversive and divisive.
- Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer

A. Active and reactive.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing of network activities to detect and respond to any unauthorized access or ongoing intrusion attempts. Active defense focuses on actively countering and disrupting the adversary's actions, while reactive defense involves responding to and mitigating the effects of an intrusion. These two defenses work together to actively defend against and react to cyber threats, ensuring the security and integrity of the network.

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4
19.

Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- Counterintelligence (CI).
- Operation Security (OPSEC).
- Military deception (MILDEC)
- Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer

A. Military deception (MILDEC)

Explanation

MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, actions, and perceptions. It involves creating false or misleading information to deceive the adversary and gain a tactical advantage. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, their activities are focused on providing accurate and truthful information to the public and building relationships. In contrast, MILDEC is specifically aimed at misleading the enemy, making it the activity from the given options that aligns with the question.

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20.

What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- Coding.
- Positioning.
- Tempo bands.
- Unit type code.
Correct Answer

A. Unit type code.

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that identify the type of unit, its capabilities, and its composition. They are used to categorize and organize units for operational purposes, ensuring that the right units with the right capabilities are deployed in the right locations. Unit type codes help to streamline and coordinate the deployment process, enabling efficient and effective joint force operations.

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2
21.

An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- Misuse of position.
- Covered relationships.
- Non-public information.
- Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer

A. Covered relationships.

Explanation

Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where there is an employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a conflict of interest due to personal relationships, such as family members or close friends, which can compromise the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid covered relationships in order to maintain a professional and unbiased work environment.

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2
22.

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- Article 32.
- Article 40.
- Article 92.
- Article 100.
Correct Answer

A. Article 92.

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, and encompasses any willful disobedience or neglect of duty. In this case, not following the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a failure to obey regulations, thus falling under Article 92.

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23.

Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
- The President.
- The Chief of Staff.
- The Vice President.
- The Deputy Secretary.
Correct Answer

A. The Deputy Secretary.

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is appointed by the President and is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department's operations and policies. The Deputy Secretary plays a crucial role in decision-making processes and acts as a key advisor to the Secretary of Defense.

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3
24.

What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- Conduct climate training surveys.
- Develop Career Development Courses.
- Review the occupational analysis report.
- Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer

A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is important for providing structured and comprehensive training to individuals in a specific career field. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to ensure that the training and education provided align with the needs and requirements of the career field, ultimately enhancing the skills and capabilities of the workforce.

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3
25.

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
- Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer

A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining practical experience and on-the-job training. It is a hands-on approach to learning and helps individuals to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge needed to excel in their chosen field.

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2
26.

Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- Technical Evaluation.
- Personnel Evaluation.
- Managerial Evaluation.
- Standard Evaluation.
Correct Answer

A. Standard Evaluation.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Standard Evaluation." In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on evaluating the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation assesses the skills and performance of the personnel involved in the program. Managerial Evaluation evaluates the managerial aspects and effectiveness of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program, as it does not refer to a particular aspect or area of evaluation.

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27.

Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- Misuse of position.
- Covered relationship.
- Personal conflict of interest.
- None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer

A. Covered relationship.

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of authority or influence over them, such as a supervisor or manager. In this case, the question suggests that members of a household or relatives fall under this category, indicating a potential conflict of interest or unethical situation due to the personal relationship influencing decisions or actions in a biased manner.

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1
28.

What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- 644th Combat Communication Squadron.
- 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
- 83th Network Operations Squadron.
- 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer

A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (command, control, communications, and computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication systems are in place for effective military operations.

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2
29.

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer

A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in critical mission networks and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the cyberspace domain, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate any potential threats or attacks.

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30.

What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- 2009.
- 2010.
- 2011.
- 2012.
Correct Answer

A. 2010.

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that starting from 2010, the Air Force had a unified and centralized system for handling support requests across all locations.

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31.

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
- Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
- Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
- Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer

A. Joint Force Commander (JFC).

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint operations, coordinating the efforts of multiple services and components. The COMAFFOR serves as the air component commander within the joint force, working under the direction of the JFC to provide air and space capabilities in support of the mission.

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2
32.

How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- Two.
- Four.
- Six.
- Eight.
Correct Answer

A. Six.

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question asks about the number of rules, and the correct answer states that there are six rules.

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2
33.

What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
- DODD 8140.01.
- DODD 5515.01.
- DODD 8220.01.
- DODD 8570.01.
Correct Answer

A. DODD 8570.01.

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for the certification and management of the DOD workforce that performs IA functions. It ensures that personnel are trained and knowledgeable in IA principles and practices to protect DOD information systems and networks.

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1
34.

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- Core task.
- Duty competency.
- Core competency.
- Duty position task.
Correct Answer

A. Duty position task.

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the duty position tasks to the trainees. These tasks are specific to the trainee's assigned duty position and are designed to develop the necessary skills and knowledge required for that position. Core tasks, duty competency, and core competency are not mentioned in relation to the supervisor's assignment of training elements. Therefore, the correct answer is duty position task.

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8
35.

Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?
- Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
- Resources required to manage and use TOs.
- Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
- Training to manage and use TOs.
Correct Answer

A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This is because the question asks for the option that does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, all describe information that would be outlined in TO 00-5-1. However, TCTO procedures are not specifically mentioned as part of the information outlined in TO 00-5-1.

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1
36.

Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- Quality Assessments.
- Quality Assurance.
- Quality System.
- Trend Analysis.
Correct Answer

A. Quality Assurance.

Explanation

In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, Quality Assurance itself is not an essential element. Quality Assurance refers to the process of ensuring that the quality standards and requirements are met. However, in a QA program, other elements such as Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential. Quality Assessments involve evaluating and measuring the quality of products or services. Quality System refers to the framework and processes in place to ensure quality. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data and patterns to identify areas for improvement in quality.

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1
37.

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
- Unified command and subordinate unified command.
- Functional command and geographical command.
- Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer

A. Unified command and subordinate unified command.

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and control of the JTF, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational aspects and reports to the unified command. This division ensures effective command and control within the JTF, allowing for efficient execution of tasks and missions.

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38.

What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
- JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
- JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.
- JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.
- JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.
Correct Answer

A. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

Explanation

The keystone document for the communications-system series of publications is JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

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1
39.

Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
- Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
- Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer

A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

Explanation

The Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA) develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

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2
40.

What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- Continual Service Improvement.
- Service Transition.
- Service Strategy.
- Service Design.
Correct Answer

A. Continual Service Improvement.

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the stage in the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) framework that focuses on maintaining and enhancing the quality of services. It involves constantly reviewing and analyzing service performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to ensure that the services meet the needs of the business and its customers. CSI is an ongoing process that helps organizations to adapt and evolve their IT services to meet changing requirements and deliver value to the business.

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2
41.

What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
- Directive.
- Non-directive
- Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).
- Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
Correct Answer

A. Non-directive

Explanation

Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and recommendations without imposing specific requirements or directions. They allow flexibility and adaptability in their implementation, enabling individuals to tailor the guidance to suit the specific situation at hand.

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2
42.

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- Unit training manager (UTM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). The AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exceptions or waivers based on specific circumstances or individual needs. The AFCFM's role is to ensure that the career field's training and development requirements are met while also considering the unique situations of personnel within the career field.

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3
43.

Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- Unit training manager (UTM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. Major command functional manager (MFM).

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which are focused on utilizing and training personnel in a specific career field. The MFM would have a deep understanding of the career field and the requirements of the MAJCOM, making them the appropriate choice for this role.

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3
44.

What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- Strategic Considerations.
- Military Strategic Framework.
- Implementation and Assessment.
- Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
Correct Answer

A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides a framework and direction for the Department of Defense to plan and execute its cyber operations, ensuring the security of cyberspace. It outlines the strategic objectives, priorities, and resources required to achieve the desired outcomes in cyberspace. This document plays a crucial role in shaping the military's approach to cybersecurity and guides the development of the National Military Strategic Plan.

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2
45.

What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?
- AF Doctrine.
- AF Handbook (AFH).
- AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).
- AF Visual Aid (AFVA).
Correct Answer

A. AF Handbook (AFH).

Explanation

AF Handbooks (AFH) are a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. AF Handbooks are typically comprehensive and provide detailed guidance and information on specific topics. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlets, and AF Visual Aids, which may be updated more frequently to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, AF Handbooks are designed to provide more enduring guidance and are not expected to undergo frequent revisions. Therefore, AF Handbook (AFH) is the correct answer.

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2
46.

What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
- Air Force Instructions (AFI).
- Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
- Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
- Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
47.

What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?
- Library custodian.
- Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
- Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
- Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer

A. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that the necessary technical orders are available to personnel who need them and manage the distribution process to ensure efficiency and accuracy. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that technical information and instructions are readily accessible to support operations and maintenance activities within the organization.

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1
48.

Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?
- Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
- Operation and Maintenance TO.
- Methods and Procedures TO.
- General TO.
Correct Answer

A. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics related to basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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49.

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- Unit training manager (UTM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. Base functional manager (BFM).

Explanation

The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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2

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