Z3dx5x Volume 1 And 2 Ure (2017)

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  • 1/177 Questions

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Cable and Antenna Systems
    • Spectrum Operations
    • Ground Radar Systems
    • Radio Frequency Transmission
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'Z3DX5X Volume 1 and 2 URE (2017)' assesses knowledge in Air Force specialty areas such as radio frequency transmission, cable systems, and career field management. It is crucial for career progression and professional development within the Air Force.

Z3dx5x Volume 1 And 2 Ure (2017) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • Trend analysis

    • Quality System

    • Quality Assessments

    • Managerial Assessments

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend analysis
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in the data, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. It provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the processes and helps identify areas for improvement or potential issues that need to be addressed.

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  • 3. 

    (009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authority of the DOD and its components, providing the legal framework for the military branches and their operations.

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  • 4. 

    (015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • Efficiency

    • Manpower

    • Reduce costs

    • Department of Defense 8570 mandate

    Correct Answer
    A. Efficiency
    Explanation
    The main reason for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, it allows for better coordination and communication between different departments and teams. This can lead to faster response times, streamlined processes, and overall improved effectiveness in managing network operations and providing IT support.

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  • 5. 

    (021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

    • Library reference or museum exhibitions

    • Published doctrines

    • Geographical base maps

    • Photographs of a retreat ceremony

    Correct Answer
    A. Library reference or museum exhibitions
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically created by libraries or museums, rather than government agencies. Official government records are typically created and maintained by government agencies and departments, and are used to document and preserve important information related to the functions and activities of the government. Library references and museum exhibitions may contain valuable information, but they are not typically considered official government records.

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  • 6. 

    (021) Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • Can be altered and are not officially released

    • Can't be altered, but are officially released

    • Can't be altered and are officially signed

    • Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and are subject to change. They have not yet been officially approved or released for public consumption. Therefore, they can be modified or edited before they are considered final and officially released.

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  • 7. 

    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Protect resources and peronnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect resources and peronnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and incidents that could result in harm to individuals or property. It focuses on implementing measures and practices that minimize risks and ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources.

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  • 8. 

    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • Labor

    • Commerce

    • The Treasury

    • Defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is indeed a part of the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education, and assistance to employers and workers.

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  • 9. 

    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls

    • Poor lighting

    • Horseplay

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could include slipping on wet floors, tripping over objects, or falling from heights such as ladders or unstable furniture. Falls can result in injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and clean work environment, ensure proper signage for hazards, and provide training on proper lifting techniques and ladder safety to prevent falls in the office.

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  • 10. 

    (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Linear

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network setup where all devices are connected to a single cable, known as a "bus." This cable acts as a backbone, and data is transmitted in both directions along the bus. Another name for a bus topology is a linear topology, as the devices are arranged in a linear fashion along the bus cable.

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  • 11. 

    (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the connections. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the interconnected networks may lose their ability to communicate with each other, leading to disruptions in communication and potentially impacting the overall functionality of the network.

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  • 12. 

    (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Scanner

    • Printer

    • Monitor

    • Camera lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. The sensor converts the light into electrical signals, which are then processed and converted into a digital image by the scanner's software. This digital image can be saved, edited, or printed as desired. Therefore, a scanner is the correct device for this task.

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  • 13. 

    (216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

    • Virtual private network (VPN)

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual private network (VPN)
    Explanation
    A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. This means that it creates a secure and encrypted connection between a user's device and a remote server, allowing the user to access the Internet privately and securely. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to protect their online privacy, bypass censorship or geolocation restrictions, and secure their data while using public Wi-Fi networks.

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  • 14. 

    (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians

    • Electromagnetic immunity

    • Low attenuation

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cable has several advantages, such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security. However, the cost to install and train technicians is not considered an advantage. This implies that fiber optic cable may require a higher initial investment and specialized expertise for installation and maintenance, which can be seen as a disadvantage compared to other types of cables.

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  • 15. 

    (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Spyware

    • Malware

    • Adware

    • Trojans

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is often installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their online activities, record keystrokes, and gather sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details. This unauthorized collection of personal data makes spyware a serious privacy concern and a potential threat to cybersecurity.

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  • 16. 

    (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

    • Air Force Portal

    • IMDS

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS)

    • Electronic-publications (E-pub)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows users to access various resources, tools, and applications related to their duties and responsibilities. It provides a centralized location for communication, collaboration, and access to important information, making it an essential tool for Air Force personnel.

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  • 17. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They are experts in managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity.

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  • 18. 

    (003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    • Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed in their roles. The AFCFM works closely with other managers and leaders within the Air Force to develop and implement policies and programs that benefit the career field as a whole. They play a crucial role in shaping the future of the career field and ensuring its continued success.

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  • 19. 

    (007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

    • Management Inspection (MI)

    • Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

    • Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
    Explanation
    The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. This inspection evaluates the unit's ability to accomplish its mission, meet standards, and identify areas for improvement. It combines traditional inspection elements with new approaches to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's effectiveness.

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  • 20. 

    (009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • Title 10

    • Title 3

    • Title 8

    • Title 18

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the main body of law that outlines the role and structure of the United States Armed Forces. It covers a wide range of topics including military organization, chain of command, and legal jurisdiction. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of military personnel and provides a framework for discipline and justice within the military.

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  • 21. 

    (010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations. In order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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  • 22. 

    (012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This means that these two major commands and numbered Air Force were specifically assigned and restructured to focus on and carry out tasks related to cyberspace operations.

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  • 23. 

    (012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • Military deception (MILDEC)

    • Counterintelligence (CI)

    • Operation Security (OPSEC)

    • Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military deception (MILDEC)
    Explanation
    MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception and understanding of events, capabilities, and intentions. It involves the use of various tactics such as camouflage, decoys, disinformation, and feints to create a false picture of military operations. Since MISO and PA both target the same specific audience, MILDEC can be used to mislead that audience and further enhance the effectiveness of information operations.

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  • 24. 

    (014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • 85th Engineering Installation Squadron

    • 644th Combat Communication Squadron

    • 83th Network Operations Squadron

    • 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing

    Correct Answer
    A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron
    Explanation
    The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary C4 systems are operational and ready for use in combat situations.

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  • 25. 

    (017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Unit type code

    • Coding

    • Positioning

    • Tempo bands

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit type code
    Explanation
    The basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) is the unit type code. Unit type codes are alphanumeric codes that represent specific types of military units, such as squadrons, wings, or groups. These codes are used to identify and organize units within the military, allowing for effective planning and coordination of forces during deployments and operations.

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  • 26. 

    (019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

    • A well-written summary

    • A rewriting of the main point

    • A postscript message

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A well-written summary
    Explanation
    A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. By condensing the main points of the message into a concise and coherent summary, you demonstrate your comprehension of the content and your skill in accurately conveying its main purpose. This requires you to analyze the message, identify its key points, and effectively communicate them in a succinct manner.

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  • 27. 

    (023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

    • The Deputy Secretary

    • The President

    • The Chief of Staff

    • The Vice President

    Correct Answer
    A. The Deputy Secretary
    Explanation
    The second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense is the Deputy Secretary. This individual holds a high position of authority and assists the Secretary of Defense in managing the department's operations and policies. They are responsible for overseeing various aspects of defense strategy, budgeting, and resource allocation. While the President, Chief of Staff, and Vice President may have significant roles in national security and defense matters, they do not hold the specific position of the Deputy Secretary within the Department of Defense.

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  • 28. 

    (025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

    • Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

    • Office Automation System (OAS)

    • Decision Support System (DSS)

    • Training Business Area (TBA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that is specifically designed to manage the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is a comprehensive system that provides efficient and effective management of technical information, ensuring that it is readily available to the appropriate personnel. ETIMS streamlines the process of distributing and printing technical orders, improving overall productivity and accuracy in managing technical information.

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  • 29. 

    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Substituting a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last line of defense and should be used in conjunction with other control measures. It is more effective to eliminate or minimize hazards through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be seen as a supplementary measure rather than the primary means of hazard control.

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  • 30. 

    (203) How are fires classified?

    • Fuel type

    • Heat source

    • Temperature

    • Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on their fuel type. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, oil, or gas, can result in different fire behaviors and require different extinguishing methods. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate firefighting techniques and equipment needed to control and extinguish the fire effectively.

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  • 31. 

    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Sound the fire alarm

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, it helps to minimize the risk of injury or loss of life by ensuring that everyone is aware of the emergency situation and can take appropriate action. Once the alarm is activated, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building and call the fire department for assistance.

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  • 32. 

    (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • Using ladder as a scaffold

    • Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means that it does not conduct electricity. However, using a metal ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits would be prohibited because metal is a conductor and can pose a risk of electric shock.

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  • 33. 

    (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Management and Budget

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications

    • Office of Public Engagement

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is responsible for annually evaluating agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies. They do this through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in ensuring that government agencies are making effective and efficient use of their IT investments, ultimately aiming to improve the overall performance and delivery of government services.

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  • 34. 

    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is made up of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record contains information about the installation, such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record includes drawings and diagrams of the installation layout and configuration. The maintenance record documents the ongoing maintenance and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, its documentation, and its maintenance history.

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  • 35. 

    (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • Star

    • Bus

    • Ring

    • Radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, making it easy to manage and control the network from a single point. This centralization allows for efficient monitoring, troubleshooting, and configuration of the network. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and reliability as any issues with one device do not affect the rest of the network.

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  • 36. 

    (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

    • Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

    • Request network services and pass arguments between layers

    • Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

    • Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
    Explanation
    A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate the amount of information that can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host sends an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and preventing congestion on the network by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with data.

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  • 37. 

    (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Header Checksum

    • Version Identification

    • Time to Live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The Header Checksum is a value calculated based on the contents of the IP header. When a datagram is received, the recipient recalculates the checksum and compares it with the value in the header. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded to ensure data integrity.

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  • 38. 

    (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    • Virtual private network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments where computers need to communicate and share resources with each other. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas such as cities or countries, LANs are limited to a specific location or building. Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to securely connect remote users or networks over the internet, while metropolitan area networks (MANs) cover larger areas than LANs but smaller areas than WANs.

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  • 39. 

    (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Encryption

    • Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting

    • Media access control (MAC) Filtering

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code. It involves converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. Encryption ensures the confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over a wireless local area network (WLAN) by preventing unauthorized access and protecting sensitive information from being intercepted or tampered with.

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  • 40. 

    (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling?

    • Media converter

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Media converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signals used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. Therefore, the correct device for the given scenario is a media converter.

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  • 41. 

    (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

    • Kernel

    • Shell

    • User programs

    • Dynamic-link library

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel
    Explanation
    The UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware is the kernel. The kernel is the core component of the operating system that manages the system resources and provides essential services to the user programs. It directly interacts with the hardware, controlling the memory, input/output devices, and scheduling tasks. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, ensuring proper communication and coordination between them.

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  • 42. 

    (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When the storage container has been cleaned

    • When it is placed in service

    • When it is removed from service

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container has been cleaned
    Explanation
    Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, when the container is placed in service, or when it is removed from service. Cleaning the storage container, however, is not a valid reason to change the combination as it does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials.

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  • 43. 

    (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)

    • Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET)

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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  • 44. 

    (004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

    • Modify local training

    • Allocate manpower

    • Assist the unit training manager in course development

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within a career field. This information is then used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT) which assesses an individual's knowledge and proficiency in their specific occupational area. Another use for occupational surveys is to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). This course provides additional training and education to individuals in order to enhance their skills and knowledge within their career field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another tasking that can be accomplished using the information gathered from occupational surveys.

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  • 45. 

    (005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

    • On-the-Job Training (OJT) program

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)

    • Occupational Analysis Program

    Correct Answer
    A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. This program is designed to provide training for personnel to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills required to perform their duties in their specific specialty. OJT allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing the tasks and responsibilities of their job. It is a hands-on approach to training, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and expertise in their field.

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  • 46. 

    (008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy

    • Training Business Area

    • Telephone Management System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring that they are properly maintained and retired when necessary. It provides a centralized platform for asset management, helping organizations streamline their IT operations and optimize their asset utilization.

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  • 47. 

    (011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

    • Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

    • Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This weapon system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in assessing and mitigating risks to ensure the security and integrity of the cyberspace environment.

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  • 48. 

    (012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

    • Active and reactive

    • Evasive and decisive

    • Subversive and divisive

    • Offensive and defensive

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive
    Explanation
    Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to the proactive measures taken to detect and respond to cyber threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack by taking actions to mitigate the impact and prevent further compromise, such as isolating affected systems and blocking malicious traffic. These two defenses work together to actively defend against and react to cyber threats.

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  • 49. 

    (023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

    • JP 6-0, Joint Communications System

    • JP 5–0, Joint Communications System

    • JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning

    • JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series

    Correct Answer
    A. JP 6-0, Joint Communications System
    Explanation
    JP 6-0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This publication provides guidance and doctrine for the planning and execution of joint communications systems in support of military operations. It outlines the principles, procedures, and capabilities required for effective communication and information exchange among joint forces. The other options, JP 5–0, Joint Communications System, JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning, and JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series, do not specifically focus on the communications system and its related publications.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 07, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Louis
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