Z3dx5x Volume 1 And 2 Ure (2017)

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Louis

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 1,786

Questions: 177 | Attempts: 1,786 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
- B.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- C.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- D.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission

Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They are experts in managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity.

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2.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems
- B.
  
  Spectrum Operations
- C.
  
  Ground Radar Systems
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
A. Cable and Antenna Systems

Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This involves setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are essential for communication and connectivity in both fixed and deployed operations. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning to support the Air Force's operations effectively.

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3.

(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
  
  Duty Position Task
- B.
  
  Core Task
- C.
  
  Duty competency
- D.
  
  Core competency
Correct Answer
A. Duty Position Task

Explanation
In accordance with AFI 36-2201, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the enlisted training element known as Duty Position Task. This task refers to the specific duties and responsibilities that are associated with a particular position within the Air Force. It is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that individuals are trained and competent in their assigned duty positions. This helps to ensure that personnel are prepared to perform their job duties effectively and efficiently.

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4.

(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- B.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- C.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- D.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed in their roles. The AFCFM works closely with other managers and leaders within the Air Force to develop and implement policies and programs that benefit the career field as a whole. They play a crucial role in shaping the future of the career field and ensuring its continued success.

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5.

(003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- B.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- C.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- D.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. They have the highest level of authority in determining whether or not someone needs to complete the CDC for their career field.

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6.

(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- B.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- C.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
A. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This implies that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which likely involve discussions and decisions related to the utilization and training of personnel within the career field. The MFM's role is crucial in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented in the workshop's proceedings.

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7.

(003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- B.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- C.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
A. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) is responsible for identifying qualified subject matter experts (SMEs) to assist with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKTs) and career development courses (CDCs). The MFM has the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are knowledgeable in the specific field and can contribute to the development of these materials. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the SKTs and CDCs are accurate and up-to-date, providing valuable resources for career development within the Air Force.

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8.

(003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
  
  Base Functional Manager (BFM)
- B.
  
  Unit Training Manager (UTM)
- C.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
- D.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
A. Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Explanation
The correct answer is Base Functional Manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing and coordinating the functional activities within their assigned base or unit. They ensure that the cyberspace operations are carried out effectively and efficiently, and they provide guidance and support to the personnel in their unit. The BFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness and effectiveness of the cyberspace mission.

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9.

(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
  
  Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
- B.
  
  Modify local training
- C.
  
  Allocate manpower
- D.
  
  Assist the unit training manager in course development
Correct Answer
A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within a career field. This information is then used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT) which assesses an individual's knowledge and proficiency in their specific occupational area. Another use for occupational surveys is to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). This course provides additional training and education to individuals in order to enhance their skills and knowledge within their career field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another tasking that can be accomplished using the information gathered from occupational surveys.

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10.

(004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
  
  Conduct climate training surveys
- C.
  
  Develop Career Development Courses
- D.
  
  Review the occupational analysis report
Correct Answer
A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is crucial for ensuring that individuals in a specific career field receive the necessary education and training to excel in their roles. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to provide a structured and comprehensive framework for career development and progression within the field. This includes identifying the required skills and competencies, developing training programs, and setting clear career paths for individuals to follow.

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11.

(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
  
  AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM
- B.
  
  Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME
- C.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- D.
  
  MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME)
Correct Answer
A. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM

Explanation
The AFCFM (Air Force Career Field Manager) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the TPM (Training Pipeline Manager). This means that the AFCFM and the TPM work together to ensure that the scheduling of the STRT is properly coordinated and executed.

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12.

(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
  
  On-the-Job Training (OJT) program
- B.
  
  Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- C.
  
  Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)
- D.
  
  Occupational Analysis Program
Correct Answer
A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program

Explanation
The correct answer is On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. This program is designed to provide training for personnel to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills required to perform their duties in their specific specialty. OJT allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing the tasks and responsibilities of their job. It is a hands-on approach to training, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and expertise in their field.

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13.

(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
  
  Quality Assurance
- B.
  
  Quality Assessments
- C.
  
  Quality System
- D.
  
  Trend Analysis
Correct Answer
A. Quality Assurance

Explanation
Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is the main element in a QA program. Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are all essential elements in a Quality Assurance program as they help in evaluating, maintaining, and improving the quality of products or services.

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14.

(006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
  
  Standard Evaluation
- B.
  
  Technical Evaluation
- C.
  
  Personnel Evaluation
- D.
  
  Managerial Evaluation
Correct Answer
A. Standard Evaluation

Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Evaluation. In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various types of evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation evaluates the performance and skills of the personnel involved in the program. Managerial Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program and therefore is not included in the list of evaluation types provided in the question.

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15.

(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
  
  Trend analysis
- B.
  
  Quality System
- C.
  
  Quality Assessments
- D.
  
  Managerial Assessments
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis

Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in the data, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. It provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the processes and helps identify areas for improvement or potential issues that need to be addressed.

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16.

(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
  
  Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
- B.
  
  Management Inspection (MI)
- C.
  
  Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)
- D.
  
  Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)
Correct Answer
A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

Explanation
The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. This inspection evaluates the unit's ability to accomplish its mission, meet standards, and identify areas for improvement. It combines traditional inspection elements with new approaches to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's effectiveness.

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17.

(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
  
  Remedy
- B.
  
  Training Business Area
- C.
  
  Telephone Management System
- D.
  
  Integrated Maintenance Data System
Correct Answer
A. Remedy

Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring that they are properly maintained and retired when necessary. It provides a centralized platform for asset management, helping organizations streamline their IT operations and optimize their asset utilization.

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18.

(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
  
  Title 10
- B.
  
  Title 18
- C.
  
  Title 32
- D.
  
  Title 50
Correct Answer
A. Title 10

Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authority of the DOD and its components, providing the legal framework for the military branches and their operations.

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19.

(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
  
  Title 10
- B.
  
  Title 3
- C.
  
  Title 8
- D.
  
  Title 18
Correct Answer
A. Title 10

Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the main body of law that outlines the role and structure of the United States Armed Forces. It covers a wide range of topics including military organization, chain of command, and legal jurisdiction. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of military personnel and provides a framework for discipline and justice within the military.

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20.

(010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- B.
  
  National Military Cyberspace Strategy
- C.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Correct Answer
A. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Explanation
The document that spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace is the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace. This document outlines the strategic approach and goals for protecting the nation's critical infrastructure and information systems from cyber threats. It provides a framework for coordinating efforts across government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to enhance cybersecurity and safeguard national security.

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21.

(010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- B.
  
  National Security Policy
- C.
  
  Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
A. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Explanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyberspace and ensuring the security of critical infrastructure such as power grids, transportation systems, and communication networks. It aims to enhance information sharing, promote cybersecurity awareness, and develop effective response capabilities to mitigate cyber threats.

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22.

(010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
- B.
  
  National Security Policy
- C.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- D.
  
  Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
Correct Answer
A. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

Explanation
The correct answer is the National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations. This policy outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. It provides guidance and direction for the US Armed Forces to effectively operate in cyberspace and protect national security interests. It focuses specifically on military operations in the cyber domain and aims to ensure the US maintains its advantage in this critical area.

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23.

(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
  
  Title 10
- B.
  
  Title 30
- C.
  
  Title 50
- D.
  
  Title 52
Correct Answer
A. Title 10

Explanation
Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations. In order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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24.

(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
  
  Covered relationships
- B.
  
  Misuse of position
- C.
  
  Non-public information
- D.
  
  Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationships

Explanation
A covered relationship refers to an employee or employer relationship that can create a conflict of interest or the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that the individuals involved may have personal or financial interests that could influence their decision-making in an unethical way. It is important to avoid such relationships in order to maintain fairness, transparency, and integrity in the workplace.

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25.

(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
  
  Covered relationship
- B.
  
  Misuse of position
- C.
  
  Personal conflict of interest
- D.
  
  None, this is not an example of an unethical situation
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationship

Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where there is a personal or close relationship between individuals that could potentially compromise their professional judgment or create a conflict of interest. In this case, the presence of a household member or close relative can influence decision-making and create bias, leading to ethical concerns. Therefore, the given situation of having a close personal relationship with household members or relatives falls under the category of a covered relationship, making it an example of an unethical situation.

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26.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- B.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to provide comprehensive cyber security and control capabilities for the Air Force.

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27.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It is designed to enhance the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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28.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Explanation
The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System (AFINCWS) is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and monitoring the network traffic and ensuring the security and integrity of the network. It acts as a gatekeeper, allowing authorized users to access the network while keeping unauthorized users out. The AFINCWS plays a crucial role in protecting the Air Force's information and communication systems from cyber threats.

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29.

(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Explanation
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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30.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Explanation
The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is responsible for managing and overseeing cyber operations, including defending against cyber threats, conducting offensive cyber operations, and ensuring the availability and integrity of the Air Force's networks and information systems. It provides the necessary tools and capabilities to effectively operate in the cyberspace domain and support the Air Force's mission.

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31.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
  
  Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
  
  Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Explanation
The correct answer is Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This weapon system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in assessing and mitigating risks to ensure the security and integrity of the cyberspace environment.

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32.

(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
  
  Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- B.
  
  Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- C.
  
  Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- D.
  
  Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

Explanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This means that these two major commands and numbered Air Force were specifically assigned and restructured to focus on and carry out tasks related to cyberspace operations.

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33.

(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?
- A.
  
  Active and reactive
- B.
  
  Evasive and decisive
- C.
  
  Subversive and divisive
- D.
  
  Offensive and defensive
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive

Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to the proactive measures taken to detect and respond to cyber threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack by taking actions to mitigate the impact and prevent further compromise, such as isolating affected systems and blocking malicious traffic. These two defenses work together to actively defend against and react to cyber threats.

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34.

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
  
  Military deception (MILDEC)
- B.
  
  Counterintelligence (CI)
- C.
  
  Operation Security (OPSEC)
- D.
  
  Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)
Correct Answer
A. Military deception (MILDEC)

Explanation
MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception and understanding of events, capabilities, and intentions. It involves the use of various tactics such as camouflage, decoys, disinformation, and feints to create a false picture of military operations. Since MISO and PA both target the same specific audience, MILDEC can be used to mislead that audience and further enhance the effectiveness of information operations.

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35.

(013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
  
  Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
- B.
  
  Strategic Considerations
- C.
  
  Military Strategic Framework
- D.
  
  Implementation and Assessment
Correct Answer
A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

Explanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the overall strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense, including its approach to securing cyberspace. It outlines the goals, objectives, and key initiatives that shape the development of the National Military Strategic Plan, which is a comprehensive plan for addressing the challenges and threats in the cyberspace domain.

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36.

(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
  
  Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
- B.
  
  Defense Industrial Base (DIB)
- C.
  
  Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
- D.
  
  National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD) and is responsible for providing and managing information technology and communications support to the DoD and other government agencies. As part of its mission, DISA ensures the security and reliability of the GIG infrastructure, which is the DoD's globally interconnected network of information capabilities, including personnel, equipment, and processes.

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37.

(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
  
  85th Engineering Installation Squadron
- B.
  
  644th Combat Communication Squadron
- C.
  
  83th Network Operations Squadron
- D.
  
  4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing
Correct Answer
A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron

Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary C4 systems are operational and ready for use in combat situations.

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38.

(015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- B.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC)
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- D.
  
  Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Explanation
The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is responsible for providing efficient and effective services to the warfighters, allowing them to focus on their core duties without the need for extensive training in network operations. By streamlining processes and offering comprehensive support, the ESU aims to enhance the warfighter's capabilities and readiness.

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39.

(015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
- A.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC)
- B.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
- D.
  
  Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Correct Answer
A. Area Processing Center (APC)

Explanation
An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services such as messaging, web access, and storage. It is responsible for managing and maintaining these services for the organization or enterprise. The APC serves as a central hub for processing and storing data, allowing users to access and utilize these services efficiently.

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40.

(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
  
  Efficiency
- B.
  
  Manpower
- C.
  
  Reduce costs
- D.
  
  Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
A. Efficiency

Explanation
The main reason for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, it allows for better coordination and communication between different departments and teams. This can lead to faster response times, streamlined processes, and overall improved effectiveness in managing network operations and providing IT support.

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41.

(015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
  
  2010
- B.
  
  2009
- C.
  
  2011
- D.
  
  2012
Correct Answer
A. 2010

Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This move allowed for better coordination and efficiency in addressing support requests across different locations.

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42.

(016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
  
  Unified command and subordinate unified command
- B.
  
  Subordinate unified command and geographical command
- C.
  
  Functional command and geographical command
- D.
  
  Unified command and functional command
Correct Answer
A. Unified command and subordinate unified command

Explanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level consists of multiple military services and is responsible for overall command and control of the JTF. The subordinate unified command level is responsible for specific operational tasks and reports to the unified command. This division allows for efficient coordination and execution of tasks within the JTF structure.

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43.

(016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
  
  Joint Force Commander (JFC)
- B.
  
  Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC)
- C.
  
  Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC)
- D.
  
  Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)
Correct Answer
A. Joint Force Commander (JFC)

Explanation
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating Air Force forces within a joint military operation, under the direction of the JFC. The COMAFFOR ensures that the Air Force assets are effectively integrated and synchronized with the overall joint mission objectives and requirements.

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1
0
44.

(017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
  
  Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)
- B.
  
  Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)
- C.
  
  Unit type codes (UTC)
- D.
  
  Stratum levels (SL)
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

Explanation
The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology ensures that the Air Force can rapidly deploy and sustain forces in support of military operations. AEF is a rotational force management concept that organizes and presents Air Force capabilities in a predictable, scalable, and sustainable manner. It allows the Air Force to provide forces to meet the operational requirements of combatant commanders while maintaining a balance between operational tempo and personnel tempo.

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45.

(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
  
  Unit type code
- B.
  
  Coding
- C.
  
  Positioning
- D.
  
  Tempo bands
Correct Answer
A. Unit type code

Explanation
The basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) is the unit type code. Unit type codes are alphanumeric codes that represent specific types of military units, such as squadrons, wings, or groups. These codes are used to identify and organize units within the military, allowing for effective planning and coordination of forces during deployments and operations.

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46.

(018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
  
  Service Contact
- B.
  
  Service Transition
- C.
  
  Service Strategy
- D.
  
  Service Design
Correct Answer
A. Service Contact

Explanation
The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in the ITIL framework.

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47.

(018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
  
  Continual Service Improvement
- B.
  
  Service Transition
- C.
  
  Service Strategy
- D.
  
  Service Design
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement

Explanation
Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is an ITIL stage that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. It involves constantly assessing and evaluating the service delivery processes, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance service quality. This stage helps organizations to continuously monitor and measure their service performance, identify gaps, and implement corrective actions to ensure ongoing improvement in service delivery.

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48.

(019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
  
  Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment
- B.
  
  Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment
- C.
  
  Improve the effectiveness of the mission
- D.
  
  Improve the efficiency of the mission
Correct Answer
A. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment

Explanation
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide resources and technologies that allow users to effectively and efficiently utilize information across the entire organization. By doing so, EIM helps businesses make better decisions, improve processes, and achieve their goals more effectively.

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49.

(019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
  
  Article 92
- B.
  
  Article 32
- C.
  
  Article 40
- D.
  
  Article 100
Correct Answer
A. Article 92

Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, and encompasses violations such as disobeying a lawful order, dereliction of duty, and failure to follow regulations. In this case, military personnel who fail to adhere to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be in violation of Article 92.

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50.

(019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- A.
  
  Six
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Four
- D.
  
  Eight
Correct Answer
A. Six

Explanation
There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail.

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Z3dx5x Volume 1 And 2 Ure (2017)

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

(003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

(003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

(003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

(004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

(006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

(010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

(010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

(010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

(013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

(015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

(015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

(015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

(016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

(016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

(017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

(018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

(018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

(019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

(019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

(019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?