Z3dx5x Volume 1 And 2 Ure (2017)

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1. (009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authority of the DOD and its components, providing the legal framework for the military branches and their operations.

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Z3dx5x Volume 1 And 2 Ure (2017) - Quiz

This quiz titled 'Z3DX5X Volume 1 and 2 URE (2017)' assesses knowledge in Air Force specialty areas such as radio frequency transmission, cable systems, and career field management. It is crucial for career progression and professional development within the Air Force.

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2. (021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically created by libraries or museums, rather than government agencies. Official government records are typically created and maintained by government agencies and departments, and are used to document and preserve important information related to the functions and activities of the government. Library references and museum exhibitions may contain valuable information, but they are not typically considered official government records.

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3. (021) Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and are subject to change. They have not yet been officially approved or released for public consumption. Therefore, they can be modified or edited before they are considered final and officially released.

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4. (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and incidents that could result in harm to individuals or property. It focuses on implementing measures and practices that minimize risks and ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources.

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5. (006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns and trends in the data, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements to their quality assurance processes. It provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the processes and helps identify areas for improvement or potential issues that need to be addressed.

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6. (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is indeed a part of the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education, and assistance to employers and workers.

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7. (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is often installed on a user's computer without their knowledge and can track their online activities, record keystrokes, and gather sensitive information such as passwords and credit card details. This unauthorized collection of personal data makes spyware a serious privacy concern and a potential threat to cybersecurity.

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8. (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows users to access various resources, tools, and applications related to their duties and responsibilities. It provides a centralized location for communication, collaboration, and access to important information, making it an essential tool for Air Force personnel.

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9. (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

In a typical office setting, falls are the greatest hazard. This could include slipping on wet floors, tripping over objects, or falling from heights such as ladders or unstable furniture. Falls can result in injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head trauma. It is important to maintain a safe and clean work environment, ensure proper signage for hazards, and provide training on proper lifting techniques and ladder safety to prevent falls in the office.

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10. (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. The sensor converts the light into electrical signals, which are then processed and converted into a digital image by the scanner's software. This digital image can be saved, edited, or printed as desired. Therefore, a scanner is the correct device for this task.

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11. (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A bus topology is a network setup where all devices are connected to a single cable, known as a "bus." This cable acts as a backbone, and data is transmitted in both directions along the bus. Another name for a bus topology is a linear topology, as the devices are arranged in a linear fashion along the bus cable.

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12. (216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. This means that it creates a secure and encrypted connection between a user's device and a remote server, allowing the user to access the Internet privately and securely. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to protect their online privacy, bypass censorship or geolocation restrictions, and secure their data while using public Wi-Fi networks.

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13. (015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main reason for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, it allows for better coordination and communication between different departments and teams. This can lead to faster response times, streamlined processes, and overall improved effectiveness in managing network operations and providing IT support.

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14. (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the connections. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the interconnected networks may lose their ability to communicate with each other, leading to disruptions in communication and potentially impacting the overall functionality of the network.

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15. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This involves setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are essential for communication and connectivity in both fixed and deployed operations. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning to support the Air Force's operations effectively.

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16. (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

Fiber optic cable has several advantages, such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security. However, the cost to install and train technicians is not considered an advantage. This implies that fiber optic cable may require a higher initial investment and specialized expertise for installation and maintenance, which can be seen as a disadvantage compared to other types of cables.

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17. (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The Header Checksum is a value calculated based on the contents of the IP header. When a datagram is received, the recipient recalculates the checksum and compares it with the value in the header. If they don't match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded to ensure data integrity.

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18. (009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is the main body of law that outlines the role and structure of the United States Armed Forces. It covers a wide range of topics including military organization, chain of command, and legal jurisdiction. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct of military personnel and provides a framework for discipline and justice within the military.

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19. (023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense is the Deputy Secretary. This individual holds a high position of authority and assists the Secretary of Defense in managing the department's operations and policies. They are responsible for overseeing various aspects of defense strategy, budgeting, and resource allocation. While the President, Chief of Staff, and Vice President may have significant roles in national security and defense matters, they do not hold the specific position of the Deputy Secretary within the Department of Defense.

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20. (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware is the kernel. The kernel is the core component of the operating system that manages the system resources and provides essential services to the user programs. It directly interacts with the hardware, controlling the memory, input/output devices, and scheduling tasks. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, ensuring proper communication and coordination between them.

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21. (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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22. (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is responsible for annually evaluating agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies. They do this through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in ensuring that government agencies are making effective and efficient use of their IT investments, ultimately aiming to improve the overall performance and delivery of government services.

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23. (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is made up of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record contains information about the installation, such as project documentation, contracts, and correspondence. The drawing record includes drawings and diagrams of the installation layout and configuration. The maintenance record documents the ongoing maintenance and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, its documentation, and its maintenance history.

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24. (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is only a last line of defense and should be used in conjunction with other control measures. It is more effective to eliminate or minimize hazards through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be seen as a supplementary measure rather than the primary means of hazard control.

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25. (010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations. In order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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26. (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, when the container is placed in service, or when it is removed from service. Cleaning the storage container, however, is not a valid reason to change the combination as it does not pose a risk to the security of the classified materials.

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27. (012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This means that these two major commands and numbered Air Force were specifically assigned and restructured to focus on and carry out tasks related to cyberspace operations.

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28. (203) How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on their fuel type. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, oil, or gas, can result in different fire behaviors and require different extinguishing methods. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate firefighting techniques and equipment needed to control and extinguish the fire effectively.

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29. (012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception and understanding of events, capabilities, and intentions. It involves the use of various tactics such as camouflage, decoys, disinformation, and feints to create a false picture of military operations. Since MISO and PA both target the same specific audience, MILDEC can be used to mislead that audience and further enhance the effectiveness of information operations.

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30. (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, it helps to minimize the risk of injury or loss of life by ensuring that everyone is aware of the emergency situation and can take appropriate action. Once the alarm is activated, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building and call the fire department for assistance.

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31. (025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that is specifically designed to manage the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is a comprehensive system that provides efficient and effective management of technical information, ensuring that it is readily available to the appropriate personnel. ETIMS streamlines the process of distributing and printing technical orders, improving overall productivity and accuracy in managing technical information.

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32. (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale environments where computers need to communicate and share resources with each other. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas such as cities or countries, LANs are limited to a specific location or building. Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to securely connect remote users or networks over the internet, while metropolitan area networks (MANs) cover larger areas than LANs but smaller areas than WANs.

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33. (014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary C4 systems are operational and ready for use in combat situations.

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34. (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code. It involves converting plain text into cipher text using an algorithm and a key, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. Encryption ensures the confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over a wireless local area network (WLAN) by preventing unauthorized access and protecting sensitive information from being intercepted or tampered with.

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35. (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, making it easy to manage and control the network from a single point. This centralization allows for efficient monitoring, troubleshooting, and configuration of the network. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and reliability as any issues with one device do not affect the rest of the network.

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36. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They are experts in managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity.

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37. (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling?

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signals used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used in fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. Therefore, the correct device for the given scenario is a media converter.

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38. (003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed in their roles. The AFCFM works closely with other managers and leaders within the Air Force to develop and implement policies and programs that benefit the career field as a whole. They play a crucial role in shaping the future of the career field and ensuring its continued success.

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39. (017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

The basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) is the unit type code. Unit type codes are alphanumeric codes that represent specific types of military units, such as squadrons, wings, or groups. These codes are used to identify and organize units within the military, allowing for effective planning and coordination of forces during deployments and operations.

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40. (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate the amount of information that can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host sends an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and preventing congestion on the network by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with data.

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41. (007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. This inspection evaluates the unit's ability to accomplish its mission, meet standards, and identify areas for improvement. It combines traditional inspection elements with new approaches to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's effectiveness.

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42. (019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. By condensing the main points of the message into a concise and coherent summary, you demonstrate your comprehension of the content and your skill in accurately conveying its main purpose. This requires you to analyze the message, identify its key points, and effectively communicate them in a succinct manner.

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43. (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means that it does not conduct electricity. However, using a metal ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits would be prohibited because metal is a conductor and can pose a risk of electric shock.

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44. (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to minimize potential negative impacts on an organization. Applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously contradicts the principles of risk management. Risk management should be a consistent and systematic process that is applied regularly and consistently to effectively manage risks.

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45. (005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The correct answer is On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. This program is designed to provide training for personnel to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills required to perform their duties in their specific specialty. OJT allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while actually performing the tasks and responsibilities of their job. It is a hands-on approach to training, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and expertise in their field.

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46. (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The range of numbers that are well-known port numbers is 0-1023. Well-known port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices.

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47. (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, assessing the risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. By conducting a JSA, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential hazards and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and training to safely complete the task.

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48. (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data closer to the CPU, allowing for faster retrieval and reducing the need to access data from slower storage devices such as RAM or hard drives. By reducing the CPU access time to stored data, system cache helps improve overall system performance and efficiency.

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49. (023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This publication provides guidance and doctrine for the planning and execution of joint communications systems in support of military operations. It outlines the principles, procedures, and capabilities required for effective communication and information exchange among joint forces. The other options, JP 5–0, Joint Communications System, JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning, and JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series, do not specifically focus on the communications system and its related publications.

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50. (026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. This association is responsible for setting guidelines and specifications to ensure the compatibility and quality of electronic components used in various industries. The ECIA plays a crucial role in promoting standardization and interoperability within the electronic components industry.

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51. (242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global HF system provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war.

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52. (025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures". This means that the information outlined in TO 00-5-1 does not include details about TCTO procedures. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all described in TO 00-5-1.

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53. (011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This weapon system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in assessing and mitigating risks to ensure the security and integrity of the cyberspace environment.

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54. (012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to the proactive measures taken to detect and respond to cyber threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense, on the other hand, involves responding to an ongoing attack by taking actions to mitigate the impact and prevent further compromise, such as isolating affected systems and blocking malicious traffic. These two defenses work together to actively defend against and react to cyber threats.

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55. (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

If an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. The introduction of an electric current can alter the properties and characteristics of the fuels, causing them to be reclassified as Class C.

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56. (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step is crucial as it involves actively trying to put out the fire using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques. It is important to prioritize the safety of individuals and property, and if it is safe to do so, extinguishing the fire can help prevent further damage and potential harm.

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57. (216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between different LANs and MANs over a larger geographical area.

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58. (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA provides and manages the IT infrastructure, systems, and services necessary for the DOD to carry out its mission effectively and securely. They ensure that all IT communications within the DOD are reliable, secure, and interoperable, supporting the military's operations and decision-making processes.

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59. (004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within a career field. This information is then used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT) which assesses an individual's knowledge and proficiency in their specific occupational area. Another use for occupational surveys is to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). This course provides additional training and education to individuals in order to enhance their skills and knowledge within their career field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another tasking that can be accomplished using the information gathered from occupational surveys.

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60. (008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. Remedy helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring that they are properly maintained and retired when necessary. It provides a centralized platform for asset management, helping organizations streamline their IT operations and optimize their asset utilization.

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61. (006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Evaluation. In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various types of evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation focuses on assessing the technical aspects and performance of the program. Personnel Evaluation evaluates the performance and skills of the personnel involved in the program. Managerial Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program and therefore is not included in the list of evaluation types provided in the question.

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62. (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides a user-friendly interface for creating, editing, and managing databases, making it easier for users to organize and manipulate large amounts of data. With Access, users can create tables, forms, queries, and reports to store and retrieve information efficiently. It is widely used in businesses and organizations for managing and analyzing data.

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63. (023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements and standards for IA training and certification for DOD personnel. It ensures that individuals with access to DOD information systems are knowledgeable about IA principles and practices, and are able to maintain the security and integrity of these systems.

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64. (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given answer states that "Attacker's lack of ability" is not a computer system vulnerability. This means that the vulnerability lies in the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in the system. In other words, it is not considered a vulnerability if the attacker does not possess the necessary skills or knowledge to exploit a flaw in the computer system.

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65. (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Federal level. The development of Air Force architectures is mandated by requirements at the federal level. This means that the federal government, specifically agencies and departments involved in defense and national security, set the standards and guidelines for the development of Air Force architectures. These requirements ensure that the Air Force's architectures align with federal objectives and priorities, and enable effective coordination and collaboration with other branches of the military and government agencies.

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66. (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the electrical signals in the heart become disrupted, preventing it from pumping blood effectively. A current of 50 milliamps is considered to be a dangerous level of electrical shock, as it can disrupt the heart's normal rhythm and potentially lead to cardiac arrest. It is important to be cautious around electrical sources and take preventive measures to avoid such accidents.

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67. (024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. This means that they provide general information and recommendations without imposing specific requirements or instructions. These publications allow flexibility and adaptability in their application, allowing individuals to tailor the guidance to their specific situation or needs.

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68. (010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where there is a personal or close relationship between individuals that could potentially compromise their professional judgment or create a conflict of interest. In this case, the presence of a household member or close relative can influence decision-making and create bias, leading to ethical concerns. Therefore, the given situation of having a close personal relationship with household members or relatives falls under the category of a covered relationship, making it an example of an unethical situation.

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69. (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. This layer is responsible for managing the flow of data between devices on the same network, providing error control, and establishing and terminating logical connections. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is delivered accurately and reliably across the physical network.

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70. (013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD) and is responsible for providing and managing information technology and communications support to the DoD and other government agencies. As part of its mission, DISA ensures the security and reliability of the GIG infrastructure, which is the DoD's globally interconnected network of information capabilities, including personnel, equipment, and processes.

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71. (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol that allows devices to check if the wireless channel is busy before transmitting. If the channel is busy, the device waits for a random period of time and then checks again. This helps to prevent collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit data simultaneously. Therefore, WLANs use CSMA/CA to ensure efficient and collision-free data transmission.

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72. (016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level consists of multiple military services and is responsible for overall command and control of the JTF. The subordinate unified command level is responsible for specific operational tasks and reports to the unified command. This division allows for efficient coordination and execution of tasks within the JTF structure.

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73. (016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating Air Force forces within a joint military operation, under the direction of the JFC. The COMAFFOR ensures that the Air Force assets are effectively integrated and synchronized with the overall joint mission objectives and requirements.

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74. (223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it fully encodes the information from the sender's end terminal all the way through the network to the recipient's end terminal. This means that the data remains encrypted and secure throughout the entire transmission process, making it extremely difficult for any unauthorized parties to intercept or access the information. Other types of encryption may only provide protection at certain points in the network, leaving the data vulnerable to interception or decryption at other stages.

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75. (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. In IPv4, an octet is a group of 8 bits, and each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1. Since each bit can have 2 possible values, a group of 8 bits can have a total of 2^8 = 256 possible values. However, in IPv4, the values range from 0 to 255, so the maximum value of an octet is 255.

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76. (006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

Quality Assurance is the correct answer because it is the main element in a QA program. Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are all essential elements in a Quality Assurance program as they help in evaluating, maintaining, and improving the quality of products or services.

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77. (234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet.

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78. (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The responsibility of advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation lies with the Installation Safety Office. This office is specifically designated to handle safety-related issues and provide guidance and support to ensure a safe working environment for all personnel on the installation. The Air Staff, Civil Engineering, and Squadron Commander may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the primary responsibility for safety advice and guidance rests with the Installation Safety Office.

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79. (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is commonly used as an email client, but it also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, and journal. Outlook helps users organize and manage their personal information, making it an effective personal information manager.

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80. (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

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81. (228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident occurs. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to receive it. This can lead to potential breaches in security and confidentiality, as well as the risk of unauthorized access to the classified information. It is important to ensure that proper protocols and safeguards are in place to prevent such incidents from occurring.

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82. (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is Five GB/S. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabytes per second.

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83. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The correct answer is Drawing record. The Drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) provides the physical layout of the communications and information systems and includes engineering data. This section typically includes diagrams, schematics, and other visual representations of the systems, which are essential for understanding the physical configuration and connections of the equipment. It helps in troubleshooting, maintenance, and future modifications or upgrades to the systems.

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84. (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions related to networking. The Network layer is responsible for addressing and routing data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is delivered to the correct destination. The other options mentioned (Programming, Transport, and Data) are not specific layers in the OSI model. Therefore, the correct answer is Network.

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85. (024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

The AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. This means that the information and guidance provided in the AFH are more stable and long-lasting compared to other types of publications such as AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet (AFPAM), and AF Visual Aid (AFVA). The AFH is designed to provide comprehensive information on a specific topic or subject, and its content is typically reviewed and updated less frequently, ensuring that it remains a reliable and consistent source of information for Air Force personnel.

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86. (010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to an employee or employer relationship that can create a conflict of interest or the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that the individuals involved may have personal or financial interests that could influence their decision-making in an unethical way. It is important to avoid such relationships in order to maintain fairness, transparency, and integrity in the workplace.

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87. (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.

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88. (208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it usually refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout or configuration of the network, including the placement of devices, cables, and connections. The physical topology determines how the devices are physically connected and how data flows between them. This is different from the logical topology, which refers to how data is actually transmitted in the network. The physical medium refers to the actual physical material or medium used to transmit data, such as copper wires or fiber optics.

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89. (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in that year, the IEEE officially approved and recognized the use of GbE technology, which allows for data transfer speeds of up to one gigabit per second.

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90. (002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

In accordance with AFI 36-2201, the supervisor is responsible for assigning the enlisted training element known as Duty Position Task. This task refers to the specific duties and responsibilities that are associated with a particular position within the Air Force. It is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that individuals are trained and competent in their assigned duty positions. This helps to ensure that personnel are prepared to perform their job duties effectively and efficiently.

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91. (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This implies that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which likely involve discussions and decisions related to the utilization and training of personnel within the career field. The MFM's role is crucial in ensuring that the MAJCOM's perspective is considered and represented in the workshop's proceedings.

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92. (018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is an ITIL stage that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. It involves constantly assessing and evaluating the service delivery processes, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance service quality. This stage helps organizations to continuously monitor and measure their service performance, identify gaps, and implement corrective actions to ensure ongoing improvement in service delivery.

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93. (019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, and encompasses violations such as disobeying a lawful order, dereliction of duty, and failure to follow regulations. In this case, military personnel who fail to adhere to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be in violation of Article 92.

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94. (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks, allowing devices from one network to communicate with devices on another network. In this scenario, the gateway would provide the remote network with connectivity to the host network, enabling devices in the remote network to access resources and communicate with devices in the host network. A switch is used to connect devices within a single network, a modem is used to connect a network to the internet, and a converter is used to convert signals from one form to another.

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95. (023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establishes the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives outline the specific roles and responsibilities of each entity within the OSD and provide a framework for their operations and decision-making processes. They serve as a guiding document for the OSD and its component heads to ensure effective coordination and collaboration within the organization.

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96. (025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders are properly managed and distributed to the appropriate personnel. The TODO is responsible for maintaining a library of technical orders and ensuring that they are up to date and readily available to those who need them. This office plays a crucial role in ensuring that technical information is accessible and accurate for the organization's operations.

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97. (227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and information systems. This refers to intentional and malicious activities carried out by individuals or groups with the intent to disrupt, sabotage, or gain unauthorized access to sensitive information. These operations can include hacking, espionage, social engineering, and other sophisticated techniques aimed at compromising the organization's information security. Such attacks can have severe consequences, including data breaches, financial losses, reputational damage, and disruption of critical operations.

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98. (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide appropriate recommendations to minimize or eliminate these risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these controls to ensure the health and safety of individuals in the environment.

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99. (025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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100. (024) What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM). This type of directive publication expires one year after its effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPMs have a limited duration and may be replaced by a higher-level directive such as an AFPD.

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101. (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This assessment helps to identify potential risks and vulnerabilities within a system or network. By evaluating the likelihood and impact of these risks, it becomes possible to determine the level of protection needed. This includes assessing the effectiveness of existing controls and determining if additional measures, such as an intrusion detection system, are necessary to mitigate the identified risks.

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102. (231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This role is responsible for overseeing and managing the security of classified information and ensuring that proper protocols are followed for the transportation of such materials.

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103. (232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that the aerial layer utilizes both manned and unmanned vehicles to carry communication equipment and ensure that there is uninterrupted communication coverage over a wide area. This could involve the use of drones, aircraft, or other aerial platforms to extend the reach of communication networks and provide connectivity in remote or hard-to-reach locations.

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104. (003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base Functional Manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing and coordinating the functional activities within their assigned base or unit. They ensure that the cyberspace operations are carried out effectively and efficiently, and they provide guidance and support to the personnel in their unit. The BFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness and effectiveness of the cyberspace mission.

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105. (019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail.

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106. (004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is crucial for ensuring that individuals in a specific career field receive the necessary education and training to excel in their roles. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to provide a structured and comprehensive framework for career development and progression within the field. This includes identifying the required skills and competencies, developing training programs, and setting clear career paths for individuals to follow.

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107. (010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The document that spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace is the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace. This document outlines the strategic approach and goals for protecting the nation's critical infrastructure and information systems from cyber threats. It provides a framework for coordinating efforts across government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to enhance cybersecurity and safeguard national security.

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108. (234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. The DRSN is a dedicated network that allows authorized users to communicate securely and efficiently during critical situations. It is used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies to ensure reliable and protected communication for important operations and decision-making processes.

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109. (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment in which humans operate, such as temperature, lighting, and ergonomics. Physiological factors involve the study of human capabilities and limitations, including sensory perception, cognitive processes, and motor skills. Organizational factors pertain to the design and management of work systems, including job design, communication, and leadership. These three sub-categories are important in understanding how humans interact with their environment and how to optimize human performance and well-being.

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110. (023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups. They are the entity in charge of organizing and categorizing the DOD issuances for efficient reference and retrieval.

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111. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance record. The maintenance record is the part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) that is normally retained in the production work center. This record contains information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including repairs, replacements, and upgrades. It is important to keep a record of these maintenance activities for future reference and troubleshooting purposes.

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112. (215) What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is defined as a device that is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not a crucial part of the computer system and is typically used to provide additional functionality or enhance the capabilities of the computer. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice. These devices can be connected to the computer either internally, such as through expansion slots, or externally, such as through USB ports.

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113. (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that hardhats are designed to provide protection against two types of impacts: top impact and lateral impact. The top impact classification refers to protection against objects falling directly onto the top of the hardhat, while the lateral impact classification refers to protection against objects striking the sides of the hardhat. The two impact classifications ensure that hardhats provide comprehensive protection for the wearer in different situations.

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114. (015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This move allowed for better coordination and efficiency in addressing support requests across different locations.

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115. (003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. They have the highest level of authority in determining whether or not someone needs to complete the CDC for their career field.

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116. (018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in the ITIL framework.

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117. (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the classful addressing scheme, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which provides for 256 possible addresses. However, the first address is reserved for the network address and the last address is reserved for the broadcast address, leaving 254 usable host addresses. Class A and Class B addresses have larger address spaces and can accommodate more hosts per network, while Class D addresses are used for multicast purposes and do not have a fixed number of hosts per network.

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118. (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a sender to send a single packet to multiple recipients simultaneously. In IPv4, Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for multicast group communication, where a single packet is sent to a group of hosts that have joined a specific multicast group. Class D addresses are not used for regular unicast or broadcast communication.

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119. (235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The correct answer is GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS). This system monitors the status of resources and training systems, providing decision makers with an accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

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120. (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.

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121. (013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the overall strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense, including its approach to securing cyberspace. It outlines the goals, objectives, and key initiatives that shape the development of the National Military Strategic Plan, which is a comprehensive plan for addressing the challenges and threats in the cyberspace domain.

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122. (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket refers to the combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address that is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine, enabling communication and data transfer over the network. The port number helps identify the specific application or service running on the machine, while the IP address identifies the destination machine. By using the TCP socket, the process can effectively request and utilize network services.

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123. (021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

Explanation

AFI 33-322 is the correct answer because it defines an "official government record." This instruction provides guidance on the management and disposition of official records within the Air Force. It outlines the criteria for determining what constitutes an official record, how to create and maintain them, and the procedures for their retention and disposal. By following the guidelines in AFI 33-322, Air Force personnel can ensure that records are properly managed and preserved in accordance with legal and regulatory requirements.

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124. (010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyberspace and ensuring the security of critical infrastructure such as power grids, transportation systems, and communication networks. It aims to enhance information sharing, promote cybersecurity awareness, and develop effective response capabilities to mitigate cyber threats.

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125. (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

ROM is non-volatile, meaning that the data stored in ROM is retained even when the power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, meaning that the data stored in RAM is lost when the power is turned off. This is the major difference between ROM and RAM.

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126. (025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has received the necessary training and has been given authorization to access the data, they are allowed to make updates to the technical order. This indicates that the responsibility for updating the technical order is not limited to a specific role or position, but rather can be performed by any user who meets the required criteria.

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127. (230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the designated form used by the Air Force to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures proper documentation and accountability for the destruction process, which is crucial in maintaining the security and confidentiality of sensitive information. The other forms listed are not specifically intended for this purpose, making AF Form 143 the most appropriate choice.

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128. (015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is responsible for providing efficient and effective services to the warfighters, allowing them to focus on their core duties without the need for extensive training in network operations. By streamlining processes and offering comprehensive support, the ESU aims to enhance the warfighter's capabilities and readiness.

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129. (011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System (AFINCWS) is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and monitoring the network traffic and ensuring the security and integrity of the network. It acts as a gatekeeper, allowing authorized users to access the network while keeping unauthorized users out. The AFINCWS plays a crucial role in protecting the Air Force's information and communication systems from cyber threats.

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130. (019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide resources and technologies that allow users to effectively and efficiently utilize information across the entire organization. By doing so, EIM helps businesses make better decisions, improve processes, and achieve their goals more effectively.

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131. (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: identifying risks, assessing risks, developing risk mitigation strategies, implementing risk mitigation strategies, and monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the strategies. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and minimizing their impact on the organization.

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132. (022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual holds the highest position within the office and is responsible for overseeing all record management activities. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine who is best suited to be a custodian and can make informed decisions regarding appointments. The other options mentioned, such as the base records manager, command records manager, and functional area records manager, may have authority within their respective areas but do not have the overall authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record.

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133. (024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. This publication provides guidance and direction for these entities to carry out their assigned tasks and responsibilities. AFMDs are an important tool in ensuring clear communication and coordination within the Air Force structure, allowing for effective and efficient operations.

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134. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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135. (218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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136. (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

AFI 91-202 is the correct answer because it specifically implements the Mishap Prevention Program. This publication provides guidance and procedures for the prevention of mishaps and promotes a proactive approach to identifying and mitigating potential hazards in the Air Force. It outlines the responsibilities of commanders, supervisors, and individuals in ensuring a safe and healthy work environment. By following the guidelines and procedures outlined in AFI 91-202, the Air Force can effectively prevent mishaps and maintain the well-being of its personnel and resources.

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137. (020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

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138. (010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The correct answer is the National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations. This policy outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. It provides guidance and direction for the US Armed Forces to effectively operate in cyberspace and protect national security interests. It focuses specifically on military operations in the cyber domain and aims to ensure the US maintains its advantage in this critical area.

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139. (229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, the agency or department that classified the document, and any special handling instructions. Banner Lines are crucial in ensuring that the document is properly protected and that individuals handling it are aware of its sensitive nature.

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140. (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive classification Class B. This classification is used for liquids that have a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and are capable of causing fires and explosions. Class B flammable liquids include gasoline, alcohol, and acetone. They require special handling and storage precautions to prevent accidents and ensure safety.

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141. (221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems (AS) to connect together. Autonomous systems are individual networks with their own routing policies and administration. EGP enables communication and exchange of routing information between these autonomous systems, allowing them to connect and route traffic across different networks. EGP is specifically designed for inter-domain routing, making it the correct choice for this question. OSPF, IGP, and EIGRP are all interior gateway protocols that focus on routing within a single autonomous system, not between multiple autonomous systems.

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142. (242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS). This system's mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. It is specifically designed to support military operations and ensure effective communication across different platforms and locations. The HF-GCS enables secure and efficient communication in various environments, making it an essential component of military command and control systems.

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143. (231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This individual is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information systems. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to provide guidance and assistance in handling sensitive and classified information, including the proper procedures for transporting such information securely.

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144. (015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services such as messaging, web access, and storage. It is responsible for managing and maintaining these services for the organization or enterprise. The APC serves as a central hub for processing and storing data, allowing users to access and utilize these services efficiently.

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145. (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: the lower layers (Data Transport) and the upper layers (Application). The Data Transport layers include the Network, Data Link, and Physical layers, which handle the movement of data across the network. The Application layers include the Session, Presentation, and Application layers, which focus on the interaction between the user and the network services.

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146. (024) What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions outline specific procedures and processes that must be followed by Air Force personnel to ensure compliance with policies and laws. They serve as a reference for personnel to understand and execute their responsibilities effectively and efficiently. AFIs are an important tool for standardizing practices and ensuring consistency across the Air Force.

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147. (238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The radar Tracker/Correlator software program described in the question is hosted on a powerful server-based computer system and takes inputs from long range and short-range radars, displaying the information on a scope. The correct answer, Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F), is a system specifically designed for this purpose, making it the most suitable option among the given choices.

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148. (220) Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It helps to improve network performance by reducing network congestion and improving data transfer efficiency. By dividing the network into segments, a bridge can isolate network traffic and prevent collisions, thereby enhancing network stability and overall performance.

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149. (232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This means that the DODIN encompasses all the necessary components and infrastructure needed for effective and secure communication and information sharing within the Department of Defense. The DODIN plays a crucial role in ensuring that the military has the necessary tools and resources to maintain information superiority in their operations.

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150. (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for establishing and terminating connections between devices, as well as managing flow control and error detection. It ensures that data is properly transmitted and received between devices on the same link, allowing for reliable communication.

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151. (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, in order to transmit data. The MAC sublayer ensures that multiple devices on the network do not try to transmit data at the same time, preventing collisions and ensuring efficient communication.

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152. (240) What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command System (NMCS) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. NMCS provides secure and reliable communication capabilities for the highest levels of command and control within the Department of Defense. It enables the president and other key decision-makers to receive real-time information and issue orders in a timely manner, ensuring effective military operations and national security.

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153. (238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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154. (239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that is used to transmit information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and efficient means of communication for military operations, allowing for the flow of critical information in real-time. The GBS is specifically designed for high data rate transmissions, making it ideal for delivering large amounts of information quickly and securely to forces in the field.

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155. (225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general.

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156. (004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The AFCFM (Air Force Career Field Manager) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the TPM (Training Pipeline Manager). This means that the AFCFM and the TPM work together to ensure that the scheduling of the STRT is properly coordinated and executed.

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157. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The question asks for the Air Force form used to report ground mishaps. The form number 978 is the correct answer as it is specifically designed for reporting ground mishaps in the Air Force.

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158. (228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are divided into eight categories. These categories help to classify and understand the different types of vulnerabilities that can exist in computer systems. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to analyze and address potential security risks.

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159. (017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology ensures that the Air Force can rapidly deploy and sustain forces in support of military operations. AEF is a rotational force management concept that organizes and presents Air Force capabilities in a predictable, scalable, and sustainable manner. It allows the Air Force to provide forces to meet the operational requirements of combatant commanders while maintaining a balance between operational tempo and personnel tempo.

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160. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

Air Force (AF) form 457 is used to report a hazard. This form allows individuals to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that they have observed. By using this form, the Air Force can gather information about hazards and take appropriate actions to mitigate or eliminate them, ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment.

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161. (229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority". The classification authority marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and indicates the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking is important in identifying who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified. It helps ensure that the document is handled and protected appropriately according to its classification level.

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162. (024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are publications that are issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) and contain directive policy statements. These directives are used to initiate, govern, and regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. They serve as a guide for Air Force personnel to ensure that they adhere to the policies and guidelines set forth by the SECAF. AFPDs are an important tool in maintaining consistency and standardization within the Air Force and ensuring that all activities are conducted in accordance with established policies.

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163. (023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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164. (011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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165. (022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The base records manager is responsible for providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role involves assisting with record management tasks, overseeing the organization and maintenance of staging areas for records, and providing training to staff on record management procedures.

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166. (235) Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a comprehensive system that allows for the coordination and execution of military operations across all domains. GCCS provides real-time situational awareness, decision-making support, and information sharing capabilities to military commanders and personnel. It is a critical tool in achieving the DOD's objective of full spectrum dominance, which involves the ability to control and influence operations in all domains of warfare.

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167. (241) What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS). SACCS provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. It is a system that allows for the efficient and effective management of strategic operations, ensuring that communication between various entities involved in these operations is secure and reliable. SACCS plays a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force's strategic assets.

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168. (022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

The Functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the records within their specific functional area, ensuring that they are properly maintained, organized, and accessible. They work closely with other staff members to ensure compliance with records management policies and procedures, and they may also provide training and guidance to others within their functional area on best practices for records management.

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169. (011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to provide comprehensive cyber security and control capabilities for the Air Force.

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170. (241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. This system is specifically designed for command and control purposes, allowing for the rapid and secure transmission of critical messages during emergency situations. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same level of capability or purpose as SACCS in transmitting emergency messages.

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171. (022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. They have the authority and expertise to develop and implement these programs to ensure that base records managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records at their respective bases. This role is crucial in maintaining the integrity and efficiency of record-keeping processes within the command.

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172. (003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) is responsible for identifying qualified subject matter experts (SMEs) to assist with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKTs) and career development courses (CDCs). The MFM has the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are knowledgeable in the specific field and can contribute to the development of these materials. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the SKTs and CDCs are accurate and up-to-date, providing valuable resources for career development within the Air Force.

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173. (011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It is designed to enhance the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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174. (233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a telecommunications network that allows for the exchange of information in a global and interoperable space. It is divided based on the security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is specifically designed to meet the communication needs of the Department of Defense and its various branches, ensuring secure and reliable communication capabilities.

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175. (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The correct answer is Four. The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the architecture development process. These volumes include the DODAF Volume 1: Introduction and Overview, DODAF Volume 2: Architectural Data and Models, DODAF Volume 3: Architecture Integration and DODAF Volume 4: Systems Viewpoints. Each volume plays a crucial role in helping organizations develop and maintain effective architectures within the Department of Defense.

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176. (011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is responsible for managing and overseeing cyber operations, including defending against cyber threats, conducting offensive cyber operations, and ensuring the availability and integrity of the Air Force's networks and information systems. It provides the necessary tools and capabilities to effectively operate in the cyberspace domain and support the Air Force's mission.

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177. (237) Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). This system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system. It is responsible for gathering and analyzing information from various sources, such as satellites, drones, and ground-based sensors, in order to provide crucial intelligence to military commanders and decision-makers. The DCGS enables real-time situational awareness and supports mission planning and execution. It plays a vital role in enhancing the Air Forces' operational effectiveness and decision-making capabilities in the field of ISR.

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(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of...
(021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
(021) Records that are considered to be in draft format
(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects,...
(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a...
(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal...
(236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air...
(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
(215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an...
(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network...
(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are...
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
(224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet)...
(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what...
(023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of...
(225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the...
(233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
(205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the...
(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems...
(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling...
(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for...
(230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a...
(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned...
(203) How are fires classified?
(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public...
(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
(025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper...
(216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices...
(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems...
(216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best...
(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
(219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical...
(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and...
(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission...
(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness...
(019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your...
(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge...
(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
(201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not...
(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
(023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the...
(026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and...
(242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides...
(025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and...
(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring...
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
(216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN)...
(209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology...
(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge...
(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle...
(006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality...
(226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows...
(023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all...
(228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer...
(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
(203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could...
(024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest...
(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close...
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open...
(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the...
(216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision...
(016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
(016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air...
(223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of...
(211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol...
(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality...
(234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers...
(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers,...
(226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
(202) Which action is a physiological factor?
(228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data...
(214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0...
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems...
(207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems...
(024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not...
(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the...
(203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention...
(208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's
(217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics...
(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in...
(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative...
(018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage...
(019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of...
(222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity...
(023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes...
(025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and...
(227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an...
(202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with...
(025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator...
(024) What directive publications expire one year after their...
(230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is...
(231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified...
(232) Which of the following services provides additional...
(003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D...
(019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
(004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training...
(010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the...
(234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications...
(202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
(023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD)...
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems...
(215) What is a peripheral device?
(202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
(015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of...
(003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education...
(018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology...
(211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
(211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
(235) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force...
(202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact...
(013) What document directs the development of the National Military...
(210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
(021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official...
(010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
(213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random...
(025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are...
(230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret...
(015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps)...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and...
(019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to...
(204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
(022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an...
(024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of...
(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air...
(218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do...
(201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
(020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a...
(010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces'...
(229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level...
(203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
(221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems...
(242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way...
(231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting...
(015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise...
(207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the...
(024) What directive publications provide essential procedural...
(238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program...
(220) Describe a network bridge.
(232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and...
(207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data...
(207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data...
(240) What system is the priority component of the Department of...
(238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed...
(239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link...
(225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training...
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
(228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down...
(017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to...
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
(229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each...
(024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air...
(023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions...
(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines...
(022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging...
(235) Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and...
(241) What system provides a secure communications path for command...
(022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network...
(241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the...
(022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs...
(003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational...
(233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the...
(205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture...
(011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission...
(237) Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence,...
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